Jeppesen Ch 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two requirements for obtaining a student pilot certificate?

A

16 years of age

Able to speak and read English

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2
Q

Before solo, you must have what kind of medical certificate?

A

First-class, second-class, or third-class

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3
Q

A 25-year-old pilot obtained a second-class medical certificate on March 15, 2018. For exercising private pilot privileges, when does the medical certificate expire?

A

March 31, 2023

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4
Q

The BasicMed rule allows you to use a driver’s license instead of an FAA medical certificate for which of the following?
A: Below 18,000 feet MSL at a maximum airspeed of 250 kts
B: Outside the US as long as the flight is not for compensation or hire
C: Carrying up to 6 passengers in an aircraft with a maximum certificated takeoff weight of no more than 8,000 lbs

A

A: Below 18,000 feet MSL at a maximum airspeed of 250 kts

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5
Q

What requirements must you meet to utilize the BasicMed rule?

A

Completed an approved medical education course within the previous 24 calendar months and a comprehensive medical exam from a physician within the previous 48 months

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6
Q

With respect to pilot certification, which are categories of aircraft?

A

Airplane, rotorcraft, powered lift, glider, lighter-than-air

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7
Q

With respect to pilot certification, which are classes of aircraft?

A

Single-engine land and sea, multi-engine land and sea

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8
Q

With respect to the certification of aircraft, which are categories of aircraft?

A

Normal, utility, acrobatic

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9
Q

Which flight time must you record in your logbook?

A

Flight time needed to meet the requirements for a certificate, rating, flight review, or recency of experience

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10
Q

What is the required age to obtain a private pilot certificate for an airplane?

A

17

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11
Q

When is a flight review required?

A

Within the past 24 calendar months to act as pilot in command whether flying solo or carrying passengers

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12
Q

What requirement must you meet before acting as pilot in command while carrying passengers?

A

You must have completed 3 takeoffs and landings within the previous 90 days in the same category and class of aircraft.

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13
Q

Which of the following requires a logbook endorsement?
A: Aerobatic flight
B: Flying in the mountains
C: Operating as pilot in command of a tailwheel airplane

A

C: Operating as pilot in command of a tailwheel airplane

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14
Q

What is the definition of a high-performance airplane according to the FARs?

A

An airplane that has an engine with more than 200 horsepower

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15
Q

How do the FARs define a complex airplane?

A

A complex airplane has retractable landing gear, flaps, and a controllable-pitch propeller

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16
Q

Which of the following ratings requires both a computerized knowledge test and a practical test?
A: Seaplane
B: Instrument
C: Multi-engine

A

B: Instrument

17
Q

What rating allows you to operate in the clouds without a reference to the ground or horizon?

A

Instrument rating

18
Q

True or False? The glider rating does not require a knowledge test, provided you hold a powered category rating.

19
Q

Which of the following is an example of a category and class rating?
A: Multi-engine land
B: Rotorcraft helicopter
C: Powered-lift gyroplane

A

B: Rotorcraft helicopter

20
Q

True or False? You must have an ATP certificate to fly for a major airline under Part 121.

21
Q

Single-Pilot Resource Management (SRM)

A

Gathering and analyzing information and making effective decisions about the current and future status of your flight using:

  • aeronautical decision making (ADM)
  • risk management
  • task management
  • situational awareness
  • controlled flight into terrain (CFIT)
  • automation management
22
Q

Crew Resource Management (CRM)

A

The application of team management concepts in a multi-person flight crew to make effective use of all available resources: human, hardware, and information

23
Q

Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM)

A

A systematic approach to the mental process used by aircraft pilots to consistently determine the best course of action in response to circumstances

24
Q

Situational Awareness

A

The accurate perception of all the operational and environmental factors that affect flight safety before, during, and after a flight

25
Controlled Flight Into Terrain (CFIT)
Collision with terrain or water with no prior awareness by the pilot that the crash is imminent
26
Automation Management
Employing effective techniques to manage distractions and increase situational awareness when using advanced cockpit avionics
27
Which is a true statement about the ADM process? A: The ADM process is used when you need to respond immediately using established procedures B: Part of the ADM process is to evaluate the outcome of your decision to ensure your actions are producing the desired result C: The first step of the ADM process is to choose a course of action after considering the risk involved with each possible action
B: Part of the ADM process is to evaluate the outcome of your decision to ensure your actions are producing the desired result
28
List each of the factors you should assess when you follow the I'M SAFE checklist prior to a flight
``` Illness Medication Stress Alcohol Fatigue Eating/Emotion ```
29
List the five hazardous attitudes and their antidotes
Anti-authority -> Follow the rules, they are usually right Impulsivity -> Not so fast, think first Invulnerability -> It could happen to me Macho -> Taking chances is foolish Resignation -> I'm not helpless, I can make a difference
30
List the risk factors associated with the 5 Ps
``` Pilot Passengers Plane Programming Plan ```
31
Which is a true statement regarding the use of checklists? A: Use do-lists to manage emergencies, such as an engine failure B: Use flow patterns for abnormal procedures, such as an equipment malfunction C: Use flow patterns to perform normal procedures, such as configuring the airplane and avionics
C: Use flow patterns to perform normal procedures, such as configuring the airplane and avionics
32
List the items included in a passenger briefing using the SAFETY acronym
``` Seat belts Air vents Fire Extinguisher Egress and emergency Traffic and talking Your questions ```
33
Which is an item to include in the takeoff briefing? A: Traffic pattern entry B: Wind direction and velocity C: Taxi instructions to the runway
B: Wind direction and velocity
34
Which is a true statement regarding ear and sinus block during flight? A: During descent, high pressure in the middle ear typically opens the eustachian tube to equalize the pressure B: Pressure in the ear can be equalized by performing the Valsalva maneuver -- holding the nose and mouth shut and forcibly exhaling C: Rapid descent rates can help increase the pressure differential between the auditory canal and the middle ear helping to open the eustachian tube
B: Pressure in the ear can be equalized by performing the Valsalva maneuver -- holding the nose and mouth shut and forcibly exhaling
35
Name at least two ways to help prevent or alleviate motion sickness
Avoid lessons in turbulent conditions Start with shorter flights and graduate to longer instruction periods Open fresh air vents Focus on objects outside the airplane
36
In addition to pressure effects and motion sickness, name at least 3 factors that can impair your fitness for flight
``` Stress Fatigue Noise Alcohol Drugs ```
37
The FARs require that your blood alcohol level be less than what percent?
0.04%
38
How many hours must pass between drinking alcohol and piloting an airplane according to the FARs?
8 hours