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Private Pilot > Jeppesen Ch 1 > Flashcards

Jeppesen Ch 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the two requirements for obtaining a student pilot certificate?

A

16 years of age

Able to speak and read English

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2
Q

Before solo, you must have what kind of medical certificate?

A

First-class, second-class, or third-class

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3
Q

A 25-year-old pilot obtained a second-class medical certificate on March 15, 2018. For exercising private pilot privileges, when does the medical certificate expire?

A

March 31, 2023

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4
Q

The BasicMed rule allows you to use a driver’s license instead of an FAA medical certificate for which of the following?
A: Below 18,000 feet MSL at a maximum airspeed of 250 kts
B: Outside the US as long as the flight is not for compensation or hire
C: Carrying up to 6 passengers in an aircraft with a maximum certificated takeoff weight of no more than 8,000 lbs

A

A: Below 18,000 feet MSL at a maximum airspeed of 250 kts

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5
Q

What requirements must you meet to utilize the BasicMed rule?

A

Completed an approved medical education course within the previous 24 calendar months and a comprehensive medical exam from a physician within the previous 48 months

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6
Q

With respect to pilot certification, which are categories of aircraft?

A

Airplane, rotorcraft, powered lift, glider, lighter-than-air

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7
Q

With respect to pilot certification, which are classes of aircraft?

A

Single-engine land and sea, multi-engine land and sea

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8
Q

With respect to the certification of aircraft, which are categories of aircraft?

A

Normal, utility, acrobatic

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9
Q

Which flight time must you record in your logbook?

A

Flight time needed to meet the requirements for a certificate, rating, flight review, or recency of experience

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10
Q

What is the required age to obtain a private pilot certificate for an airplane?

A

17

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11
Q

When is a flight review required?

A

Within the past 24 calendar months to act as pilot in command whether flying solo or carrying passengers

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12
Q

What requirement must you meet before acting as pilot in command while carrying passengers?

A

You must have completed 3 takeoffs and landings within the previous 90 days in the same category and class of aircraft.

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13
Q

Which of the following requires a logbook endorsement?
A: Aerobatic flight
B: Flying in the mountains
C: Operating as pilot in command of a tailwheel airplane

A

C: Operating as pilot in command of a tailwheel airplane

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14
Q

What is the definition of a high-performance airplane according to the FARs?

A

An airplane that has an engine with more than 200 horsepower

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15
Q

How do the FARs define a complex airplane?

A

A complex airplane has retractable landing gear, flaps, and a controllable-pitch propeller

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16
Q

Which of the following ratings requires both a computerized knowledge test and a practical test?
A: Seaplane
B: Instrument
C: Multi-engine

A

B: Instrument

17
Q

What rating allows you to operate in the clouds without a reference to the ground or horizon?

A

Instrument rating

18
Q

True or False? The glider rating does not require a knowledge test, provided you hold a powered category rating.

A

True

19
Q

Which of the following is an example of a category and class rating?
A: Multi-engine land
B: Rotorcraft helicopter
C: Powered-lift gyroplane

A

B: Rotorcraft helicopter

20
Q

True or False? You must have an ATP certificate to fly for a major airline under Part 121.

A

True

21
Q

Single-Pilot Resource Management (SRM)

A

Gathering and analyzing information and making effective decisions about the current and future status of your flight using:

  • aeronautical decision making (ADM)
  • risk management
  • task management
  • situational awareness
  • controlled flight into terrain (CFIT)
  • automation management
22
Q

Crew Resource Management (CRM)

A

The application of team management concepts in a multi-person flight crew to make effective use of all available resources: human, hardware, and information

23
Q

Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM)

A

A systematic approach to the mental process used by aircraft pilots to consistently determine the best course of action in response to circumstances

24
Q

Situational Awareness

A

The accurate perception of all the operational and environmental factors that affect flight safety before, during, and after a flight

25
Q

Controlled Flight Into Terrain (CFIT)

A

Collision with terrain or water with no prior awareness by the pilot that the crash is imminent

26
Q

Automation Management

A

Employing effective techniques to manage distractions and increase situational awareness when using advanced cockpit avionics

27
Q

Which is a true statement about the ADM process?
A: The ADM process is used when you need to respond immediately using established procedures
B: Part of the ADM process is to evaluate the outcome of your decision to ensure your actions are producing the desired result
C: The first step of the ADM process is to choose a course of action after considering the risk involved with each possible action

A

B: Part of the ADM process is to evaluate the outcome of your decision to ensure your actions are producing the desired result

28
Q

List each of the factors you should assess when you follow the I’M SAFE checklist prior to a flight

A 
Illness
Medication
Stress
Alcohol
Fatigue
Eating/Emotion
29
Q

List the five hazardous attitudes and their antidotes

A

Anti-authority -> Follow the rules, they are usually right
Impulsivity -> Not so fast, think first
Invulnerability -> It could happen to me
Macho -> Taking chances is foolish
Resignation -> I’m not helpless, I can make a difference

30
Q

List the risk factors associated with the 5 Ps

A 
Pilot
Passengers
Plane
Programming
Plan
31
Q

Which is a true statement regarding the use of checklists?
A: Use do-lists to manage emergencies, such as an engine failure
B: Use flow patterns for abnormal procedures, such as an equipment malfunction
C: Use flow patterns to perform normal procedures, such as configuring the airplane and avionics

A

C: Use flow patterns to perform normal procedures, such as configuring the airplane and avionics

32
Q

List the items included in a passenger briefing using the SAFETY acronym

A 
Seat belts
Air vents
Fire Extinguisher
Egress and emergency
Traffic and talking
Your questions
33
Q

Which is an item to include in the takeoff briefing?
A: Traffic pattern entry
B: Wind direction and velocity
C: Taxi instructions to the runway

A

B: Wind direction and velocity

34
Q

Which is a true statement regarding ear and sinus block during flight?
A: During descent, high pressure in the middle ear typically opens the eustachian tube to equalize the pressure
B: Pressure in the ear can be equalized by performing the Valsalva maneuver – holding the nose and mouth shut and forcibly exhaling
C: Rapid descent rates can help increase the pressure differential between the auditory canal and the middle ear helping to open the eustachian tube

A

B: Pressure in the ear can be equalized by performing the Valsalva maneuver – holding the nose and mouth shut and forcibly exhaling

35
Q

Name at least two ways to help prevent or alleviate motion sickness

A

Avoid lessons in turbulent conditions
Start with shorter flights and graduate to longer instruction periods
Open fresh air vents
Focus on objects outside the airplane

36
Q

In addition to pressure effects and motion sickness, name at least 3 factors that can impair your fitness for flight

A 
Stress
Fatigue
Noise
Alcohol
Drugs
37
Q

The FARs require that your blood alcohol level be less than what percent?

A

0.04%

38
Q

How many hours must pass between drinking alcohol and piloting an airplane according to the FARs?

A

8 hours

Private Pilot (8 decks)

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