jeopardy mrs.kayla Flashcards
the below symptoms are to be reported to the health care provider immediately as they are s/s of ___________.
- temp of 100.4 or greater
-cough
-sore throat
-chills
-frequent urination
-and/or a WBC count or less than 2500
luekopenia
infection
The nurse should notify the health care provider immediately if any of the following occurs during assessment of a client receiving an chemotherapeutic drug as they might be s/s of ________.
s/s:
- bleeding gums
- easy bruising
- petechiae
- increased menstrual bleeding
- tarry stools
- **hematuria
- and/or coffee-ground** emesis
thrombocytopenia
Leukopenia and thrombocytopenia are both types of ______.
bone marrow suppression
What term should the nurse use to describe the process by which cancer cells develop their own blood vessels?
angiogenesis
List three examples of immediate adverse reactions to a chemotherapeutic drug.
- nausea, vomiting, and extravasation
List treatment(s) that may be used alone or in combination for the treatment of cancer. (list four)
- surgery, radiation, chemotherapy, and/ or immunotherapy
Nursing diagnosis: body image disturbance
Nursing Intervention: The nurse can assist the client in being comfortable with their body image by suggesting that the client use ____ until the hair grows back?
-suggest the use of a wig or cap
Nursing Diagnosis: altered tissue integrity related to chemotherapeutic drug therapy
Nursing Intervention: The nurse would suggest the client to wear ____ and to watch ______
- suggest to the client to wear loose protective clothing and to watch areas of skinfolds for breakdown
Cytokines create an immune response that can be similar to _______.
- flu-like symptoms
A checkpoint inhibitor and glipizide may cause what?
-severe drop in blood sugar
-used cautiously together and the nurse should make sure the health care provider is aware of this interaction
Nursing Diagnosis: What nursing diagnosis would go with the below nursing intervention?
Nursing Intervention: -provide small frequent meals
-avoid exposure to unpleasant smells
- avoid greasy or fatty foods
- provide foods that are high in protein
- Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements
This colony stimulating factor drug works to stimulate WBC production and decrease the incidence of infection.
-filgrastim (neopogen)
List long-term averse effects of chemotherapeutic drug therapy.
(list four)
-fertility problems, cardiotoxicity, pulmonary toxicity, and neurologic problems
What is the first indication of cytokine storm?
-high fever
The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving inpatient treatment for cancer and who reports frequent diarrhea. What action should the nurse take?
-request testing of stool sample for C. difficile
What PPE equipment should the nurse don when cleaning a chemotherapeutic drug spill?
-don a gown, safety goggles, gloves, and a NIOSH-approved respirator per OSHA guidelines
Administration of the drug ______, which is an interleukin results in increased vascular permeability
-aldesleukin
__________ syndrome is accompanied by hyperkalemia, hypocalcemia, hyperuricemia, and hyperphosphatemia * Be able to recognize abnormal lab levels**
- tumor lysis syndrome
A change in blood pressure when administering aldesleukin may indicate ______?
-capillary leak syndrome
Alopecia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia, stomatitis, and diarrhea are adverse effects of what type of drugs?
-chemotherapeutic drugs
(and are related to the death of rapidly gowning cells)
The injection of ready-made antibodies found in the serum of immune individuals or animals is called ______?
- passive immunity
This type of immunity protects the body against viral, bacterial, and fungal infections.
- cell-mediated immunity
This type of immunity occurs with an individual is given a killed or weakened antigen in the form of a vaccine, which stimulates the formation of antibodies against the antigen.
- artificially acquired active immunity
Experiencing chickenpox results in which type of immunity to the disease?
-naturally acquired active immunity
Administration of the influenza vaccine to an individual who has no immunity to the disease would describe which type of immunity?
- artificially acquired active immunity
After recovering from pertussis, the client demonstrates which type of immunity against repeat exposure?
- naturally acquired active immunity
Administration of the varicella vaccine to an individual who has no immunity to the disease would provide what type of immunity?
- artificially acquired active immunity
Administration of the rubella vaccine to an individual who has no immunity to the disease would provide which type of immunity?
- artificially acquired active immunity
In which arm would anticipate administering a vaccine?
-the dominate side
The nurse determines which situation(s) as a contraindication for the administration of a vaccine?
-acute febrile illness
-leukemia
-lymphoma
-immunosuppressive illness (HIV)
- chronic prednisone drug therapy
The below nursing intervention would go with this nursing diagnosis?
Nursing Intervention:
-administering prescribed acetaminophen every 4 hours
-provide for frequent rest periods in a quit, non-stimulating environment
-apply warm or cool compresses to the injection site
-and encourage fluid intake
- acute pain related to the administration of a vaccine
The nurse will explain to the client that the antivenin will provide passive, transient protection against bites from which organism(s)?
- black widow spiders
- rattlesnakes
- copperhead snakes
- cottonmouth snakes
-and coral snakes
Clients may react within which time period if they are sensitive to an antivenin?
- within 30 minutes
Which two vaccines are contraindicated in clients with allergies to gelatin, neomycin, and eggs or those who had an allergic reaction to a previous dose of one of the vaccines.
-MMR and varicella vaccines
A nurse should recommend vaccination against which disease(s) before travel to endemic areas?
- cholera
-diphtheria
-japanese encephalitis
-Lyme disease
-smallpox
-typhoid
-yellow fever
Which vaccines are contraindicated during pregnancy, especially during the first trimester?
- measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) and varicella vaccines
What information HAS to be documented after administration of a vaccine?
- day of vaccination
-the route
-the type of vaccination
-the site - the manufacturer
-the lot number - the expiration date
-name and address
What is the action to hydrocortisone?
- topical corticoid steroid
What is the action to benzocaine?
- local anasthetic
What is the action to acetic acid?
- antimicrobial
What is the action to antipyrine?
- analgesic
What is the action to carbamide peroxide?
- aids or breaks down and removing the wax
When this medication is used for oral aesthesia the nurse would instruct the client not eat food for 1 hour after use to reduce the risk of aspiration.
Who am I?
- lidocaine
The nurse should monitor for deafness as an adverse reaction to which medication?
- chlorhexidine
This medication is applied to the nasal mucosa to reduce the risk of institutional outbreaks of MRSA.
- mupirocin
What class of medication does triamcinolone belong?
- topical coticosteriods
Localized reactions caused by the topical administration of this medication include:
-burning
-pruritus
-skin irritation
- and temporary discoloration of the fingernails & hair
- anthralin
After administering this drug __________ for chronic open-angle glaucoma, the nurse should monitor the client for a potential adverse reaction of foreign body sensation.
- brimonidine tartrate
Which behavior(s) would the nurse note when assessing an infant for a possible ear infection?
- pulling of the ear
-fever
-change in behavior
-fussy - irratibility
What should the nurse question a client reporting ear pain about?
- ringing in the ear
- changes in hearing
- dizziness
- feeling of fullness in the ear
Two ophthalmic drugs are ordered at the same time. The nurse knows to separate the drug administered by _________ minutes.
- 5 minutes
A client receiving ophthalmic drugs reports blurred vision. What nursing diagnosis would be a priority for this client?
- risk for injury
What category of otic
preparations does this
teaching plan belong to?
The client’s treatment plan
includes:
Do NOT insert ANYTHING
into the ear canal
(cottonswab)
Do NOT use the drug is there
is ear drainage
Use the drug no more than
4 days
Call the primary health care
provider if dizziness occurs
And to remove any wax
remaining after the treatment
by gently flushing the ear with
warm water using a soft
rubber bulb syringe
- miscellanous preparationrations,otic agent to promote cerumen removal
If this class of medication is
applied liberally, some
systemic absorption may our:
- hypothalamic-pituitary-
adrenal axis suppression
- Cushing syndrome
- hyperglycemia
- and glycosuria
- topical corticosteriods
If left untreated, glaucoma,
results in an increase in the
intraocular pressure (IOP)
which can lead to
___________,
____________, and, if
untreated, _____________
- nerve damage
- vision loss
- and if not treated blindness
The nurse determines the
teaching session on how to
instill otic drops in a child is
successful when the caregiver
correctly administers the drops
in which manner(s)?
- pulling the ear down and back
-having their head turned to their side
-put a cotton ball in their ear
-don’t let the dropper touch the ear - warm the bottle before inserting in the ear
How should the nurse educate
a client to apply a topical
corticosteroid?
- apply sparingly
What equipment would the
nurse point out as an
appropriate tool to remove the
drug from the container when
education a client on
application of a topical
medication?
- tongue depressor
- cotton swab
- gauze
-finger cot
