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RD Study Guide 2017 > Jean Inman Study Guide > Flashcards

Jean Inman Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

what is the water content of fruits and vegetables

A

75-93%

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2
Q

what is the cause of crispness (state of turgor) of fruits and vegetables

A

osmotic pressure of water filled vacuoles

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3
Q

what is the limiting amino acid in soybeans and its protein concentrates vs isolates

A

methionine protein concentrates =≥ 70%protein isolates =≥ 90% (isolates usually havehigher protein content)

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4
Q

list the ripening process

A

immature fruits contain theprecursorsubstance protopectin, which is converted to pectin and becomes more water-soluble as ripening proceeds.

pectin helps ripening fruits to remain firm and retain their shape

as a fruit becomes overripe, the pectin in it is broken down to simple sugars that are completely water-soluble is converted to pectic acid =overripefruitbecomes soft and begins to lose its shape.

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5
Q

describe pectin

A

pectin,any of a group of water-solublecarbohydratesubstances that are found in thecellwalls and intercellular tissues of certain plants.in the fruits of plants, pectin helps keep the walls ofadjacentcells joined together.

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6
Q

what accelerates ripening of fruits during storage?

A

ethylene gas

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7
Q

what temp should frozen fruit be stored at?

A

0 degrees F

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8
Q

what fruits ripen best at room temp?

A

avocado, banana, pear, tomato (dry fruits)

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9
Q

how can you delay aging in apples?

A

store in a controlled atmosphere (reduced oxygen)

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10
Q

why do fruits low in vitamin C darken rapidly when cut? how can you prevent this?

A

enzymatic action - to prevent dip in citrus juice, add sugar before freezing, heat to boiling

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11
Q

when sweetener is added to liquid of packing juice, what is the density of the syrup measured by?

A

a brix hydrometer expressed as % sucrose by weight

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12
Q

describe chlorophyll

A

green
insoluble in water
olive green in acid (pheophytin - d/t replacement of Mg w/ H+)
bright green in alkaline (chlorophyllin - formed when alkaline such as baking soda is added to veggies)

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13
Q

describe carotenoids

A 
yellow/orange
insoluble in water
little color effect in acid or alkaline
lycopene - red in tomato/watermelon
overtone in aprictos (antioxidant/phytochemical)
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14
Q

what are 2 types of flavinoids

A

anthocyanins, anthoxanthis (flavones) - they are both soluble in water

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15
Q

describe anthocyanins

A

red, blue, purple
soluble in water
bright red in acid
bluish tone in alkaline

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16
Q

describe anthoxanthins

A

whitesoluble in watercolorless in acidyellow in alkaline

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17
Q

what provides the flavor in vegetables (3)

A

sugars, glutamic acid naturally found in young veggies and sulfur

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18
Q

what provides flavor in the followining vegetables: peas and corn, onions and cabbage and in young vegetables

A

peas and corn = sugarsonions and cabbage = sulfuryoung vegetables = glutamic acid (used to form MSG)

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19
Q

what is glutamic acid used in

A

MSG (form of salt)

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20
Q

what provides flavor is fruits (3 things)

A

acids, sugars, aromatic compounds (such as tannins - cause astringent feeling in mouth, underripe banana)

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21
Q

what are the 3 grades of fruits and vegetables and what are they used in?

A

Grade A (Fancy)= used in desserts andsaladsGrade B (Choice) = used in processed foodsGrade C (Standard) = used in puddings and pies

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22
Q

who is responsible for grading fruits and vegetables (fresh produce) and what are their grades?

A

USDAfancy, extra #1, extra #2, combination, #2

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23
Q

what is the green color under potatoes skin due too

A

chlorophyll that develops when potato is exposed to light during storage

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24
Q

potatoes contain what compound which is a natural toxicant

A

solanine; develops in a potato d/texposure to light, especially fluorescent lightstore potatoes in a dark place btw 50°F and 65°F

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25
Q

what are benefits of microwaving vegetables

A

less time, retain color, vitamins, not a large difference in eating quality

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26
Q

describe a #10 can (most important!)

A

6 cans per case, 6lb 9oz (105 oz), 13 cups in each can, 20-25 servings

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27
Q

describe a #3 can

A

12 cans per case, 46 oz, 5 3/4 cups, serves 12-15

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28
Q

describe a #2 1/2 can

A

24 cans per case, 1lb 13 oz (29 oz), 3.5 cups, serves 6-8

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29
Q

describe a #2 can

A

24 cans per case, 1lb 4 oz (20 oz), 2.5 cups, serves 4-6

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30
Q

describe a #300 can

A

24 cans per case, 14-16 oz, 1 3/4 - 2 cups, serves 3-4

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31
Q

what is the structural part of the tendon that surrounds muscle, and what happens to it in heat

A

collagen - in heatis hydrolyzed to gelatin and becomes tender

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32
Q

what happens to elastin in heat

A

little change, it is resistant to heat

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33
Q

in potatoes, starch changes to what during storage

A

sugar

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34
Q

muscle is composed of bundles of fibers called what

A

myofibrils

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35
Q

what holds fibers in bundles

A

sheet of connective tissue

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36
Q

what identifies a cut of meat

A

shape of bone (round bone - leg, t-bone - back and ribs, etc)

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37
Q

what % protein is meat/poultry/fish

A

16-23%

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38
Q

what vitamins/minerals are meat/poultry/fish high in

A

thiamin, niacin, riboflavin, iron, copper, trace minerals

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39
Q

pork is an especially good source of what

A

thiamin

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40
Q

calcium content is higher in what types of fish

A

canned fish with bones, oysters, shrimp

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41
Q

fish has ____ fat and _____ moisture than meat

A

less, more

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42
Q

why is TVP mixed with ground meats

A

more servings, lower costs

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43
Q

soy protein adds ______ due to _____ content

A

juiciness, water

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44
Q

what is the main contributor to meat color

A

myoglobin

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45
Q

acidc vegetables that need more time to cook should use what cooking method? provide examples of acidic vegetables

A

boiling method; use more water w/ no lidex. corn, lentils, winter squash and olives

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46
Q

how does acid (vinegar) and salt increase tenderness

A

increase water-holding capacity of muscle and lowers pH

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47
Q

how should meat be aged and ripened

A

hold in cold storage for about 10 days; aging meat increases tendernessd/t increase inwater holding capacityw/ the help of enzymes which results inchanges in the muscle protein

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48
Q

change in muscle protein by enzymes increase _____ of muscle

A

water-holding capacity

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49
Q

what may extend storage life of meat

A

anaerobic (sous vide) packaging - vacuum packed, stored unfrozen at 0 C

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50
Q

what is MAP (modified atmosphere packaging)

A

air in packaging is removed and replaced with gases (carbon dioxide, nitrogen)

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51
Q

when is USDA inspection and grading of meat done

A

at slaughter

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52
Q

which act assures the consumer that animals are healthy at slaughter and meat is fit for consumption

A

Wholesome Meat Act of 1967

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53
Q

what are the grades of meat

A

prime, choice, select, standard

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54
Q

what are grades of meat based on

A

maturity of animal, marbling, color, texture

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55
Q

which grade has the least marbling and which has the most

A

standard has least, prime has most

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56
Q

which cuts of meat are most tender

A

loin (pork chops), backbone

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57
Q

which cuts of meat are medium tender

A

shoulder (chuck)

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58
Q

which cuts of meat are least tender

A

flank, brisket

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59
Q

what is the proper temp for a roast

A

325 F

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60
Q

when should a meat thermometer be inserted

A

before cooking

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61
Q

a ____ cooked roast yields less waste

A

slow

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62
Q

what is a safe internal temperature forpork, beef, veal, lamb, steaks, roast, fish

A

145°F

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63
Q

what is a safe internal temperature forground beef, ground veal, ground lamb

A

160°F

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64
Q

what is a safe internal temperature forturkey, chicken, duck (poultry)

A

165°F

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65
Q

collagen is hydrolyzed to _____

A

gelatin

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66
Q

why must tough cuts of meat be cooked well done

A

they have more collagen which needs more time to be softened

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67
Q

what effect does adding vinegar have on meat?

A

vinegar increases tenderness of meat by lowering pH making it more acidic and increasing water holding capacity of muscle

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68
Q

heat _____ globin

A

denatures

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69
Q

when meats are heated, iron is _______

A

oxidized

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70
Q

why are cured meats pink

A

nitrites

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71
Q

what types of cuts should be cooked with dry heat

A

tender cuts such as backbone, loin, sirloin

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72
Q

what is the result of an unsaturated fatty acid (oil) beingexposed to oxygen?

A

rancidity of the oil

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73
Q

what is “carry-over cooking”

A

after roasting, meat is removed from oven and continues to cook for about 10 minutes; internal meat temp will rise 15-25°F

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74
Q

how long should a roast stand before carving

A

30 minutes

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75
Q

what types of cuts should be cooked with moist heat

A

less tender cuts with more connective tissue, tough cuts (round, chick, brisket)

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76
Q

how should a bottom round be cooked

A

in water for several hours

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77
Q

what are moist heat cooking methods

A

braising, simmering, steaming, stewing

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78
Q

_______ enzymes such as _____ tenderizes meat

A

proteolytic, papain

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79
Q

fresh fish with head attached should have ______ red gills, _____ skin

A

bright, shiny

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80
Q

what is surimi

A

purified and frozen minced fish with a preservative

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81
Q

egg yolk is a naturally occurring _______

A

oil in water emulsion

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82
Q

a good quality egg is indicated by what

A

high proportion of thick white

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83
Q

in an egg, what becomes larger with age

A

air space within the egg

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84
Q

what holds an egg yolk in the center

A

chalazae (yolk anchor)

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85
Q

what vitamins/minerals is egg rich in

A

vitamin A, D, riboflavin

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86
Q

what is color of yolk dependent on

A

amount and type of pigment in a hen’s diet

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87
Q

what are grades of eggs

A

AA, A, B

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88
Q

grading of eggs is based on what

A

thickness of white, location and condition of yolk

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89
Q

what is candling

A

passing an egg in front of bright light to view contents, helpful when grading and judging quality

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90
Q

what are the sizes of eggs

A

jumbo, xl, large, medium, small, peewee

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91
Q

how long can egg freshness be maintained in cold storage (29-32F)

A

6 months

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92
Q

a fresh egg will _________ in a pan of cold water and has a ______ shell

A

sink to the bottom, dull and rough

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93
Q

at what temperature does protein coagulate

A

62-70 C

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94
Q

what is syneresis

A

weeping, liquid released from a coagulated product

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95
Q

when does syneresis occur

A

when cooked at too high of a temp or too low of a temp for a long time - leads to tough, watery product

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96
Q

what will stiffen an egg white foam

A

acid - it will tenderize the protein and allow it to extend more easilysugar will also stabilize egg white foams

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97
Q

how are egg white foams compared

A

measure specific gravity (relative density of a substance in relation to that of water)weight of given volume / weight of same volume in water

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98
Q

egg whites at room temperature whip more quickly and yield a larger volume due to _______ surface tension

A

lower

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99
Q

what helps an egg yolk act as an emulsifier

A

lecithin

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100
Q

what stabilizes the egg yolk emulsion

A

lipoproteins

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101
Q

why do eggs yolks yield stiffer, more stable emulsions than egg whites

A

they have more protein by weight

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102
Q

what can hasten coagulation in egg cooking

A

vinegar and salt

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103
Q

why do egg yolk surfaces turn green when overcooked or cooled to slowly

A

iron from the yolk and sulfur from the whole egg create ferrous sulfide

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104
Q

in dry heat cooking of eggs, what will result from undercooking

A

excess shrinkage

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105
Q

in dry heat cooking of eggs, what will result from overcooking

A

tougher product

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106
Q

the larger the % sag, the ______ tender the gel

A

more

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107
Q

egg substitutes are often ______ in sodium

A

higher

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108
Q

what differences occur when using egg substitutes

A

color and flavor differences

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109
Q

dried eggs are ____ % white, ____ % yolk

A

70, 30

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110
Q

dried eggs can be vacuum packed in what

A

nitrogen gas

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111
Q

what is added to improve foaming ability in bakers special eggs

A

sucrose

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112
Q

if eggs are stored in the fridge for too long, whites become _____, yolks ______, and odors are ______

A

watery, flatten, absorbed

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113
Q

if eggs are stored in the fridge for too long, ______ and ______ is lost

A

water and carbon dioxide

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114
Q

loss of carbon dioxide causes eggs to be more _______

A

alkaline

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115
Q

milk is a good source of what vitamins and minerals

A

calcium, phosphorus, riboflavinVitamin A, D

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116
Q

milk is not a good source of what mineral

A

iron

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117
Q

what is the % composition of milk (water, macronutrients)

A

87% water, 3.7% fat, 4.9% cho (lactose), 3.5% protein (complete hbv)

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118
Q

the protein in milk is ____ % casein

A

80% (precipitated at ph 4.6, forms soft curd)

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119
Q

liquid that drains from curd of clotted milk is known as what

A

whey

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120
Q

how is milk pasteurization done

A

heat to 145 F for 30 min or 160 F for 15 seconds

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121
Q

what is the purpose of pasteurization

A

destroy pathogenic bacteria

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122
Q

name the components of whey (5)

A

lactose, lactalbumin, lactoglobulin, water soluble vitamins, minerals

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123
Q

types of milkhigh pressure breaks fat globules to 1/5 regular size; film of protein surrounds each globule; more susceptible to action of lipase, but the pasteurization process destroys lipase

A

homogenized

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124
Q

types of milk400 USP units added per quart of milk by feeding the cow this vitamin, irradiating the milk, or adding the vitamin

A

vitamin D milk - must be labeled

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125
Q

name the 4 concentrated milks

A

evaporated milk (60% water removed) sweetened milk (add 15-18% sucrose or glucose)dried whole milk (26% fat, does not keep well) dried skim milk (not more than 1.5% fat, keeps well)

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126
Q

name the 3 fermented milks

A

cultured buttermilk sweet acidophilus kefir

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127
Q

2% milk has ______ % fat, low fat milk has _____ % fat, and skim milk has ______ % fat

A

1.5-2.25%.5-2%<0.5%

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128
Q

in cultured buttermilk, add ____ ____ bacteria to skimmed or partly skimmed milk

A

lactic acid bacteria

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129
Q

in place of using buttermilk in place of regular milk in a recipe, increase ________

A

baking soda

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130
Q

sweet acidophilus milk (skim milk + sweet acidophilus bacteria) reduces ______

A

lactose

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131
Q

the coagulated product of fermentation of milk sugars by lactic acid bacteria is known as

A

yogurt

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132
Q

when milk is heated, what happens to they whey protein?

A

it precipitates out on bottom of pan or on surface of milk

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133
Q

how do you prevent milk from curdling?

A

add an acid slowly and agitate

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134
Q

in milk, an acid precipitates _______

A

casein

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135
Q

butter is 80% __________ and margarine is 80% ___________ or ____________

A

milk fat vegetable oil or animal fat

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136
Q

does butter or margarine turns rancid as it takes up oxygen an releases hydrogen

A

butter

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137
Q

what are the types of cream

A

heavy or thick medium whipped cream light or thin sour cream half and half

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138
Q

which creams have the highest fat content

A

heavy or thick >36% fatmedium 30-36% fat whipped cream 35% fat

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139
Q

during cheese production, what enzyme is added, which coagulates casein and forms curd

A

rennet

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140
Q

what are the 3 types of cheese

A

uncured (cottage cheese)cured (additional whey removed, salt added, ripened) processed (blend of several natural cheeses)

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141
Q

what is the emulsifier added to processed cheese

A

disodium phosphate- makes cheese better for cooking; fat will not spread out

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142
Q

what are the main structural parts of grains and cereals

A

starchy endosperm rich in proteinouter layer of hull and branscutellum within the germ - contains most of thiamin

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143
Q

what vitamins and minerals are found in grains and cereals

A

vitamin E (in germ), thiamin (scutellum), riboflavin, phosphorus

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144
Q

grains are ____% starch, ___ % fat found in the germ, and contain ______ proteins

A

75%, 2%, partially complete

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145
Q

what is the inner portion of a wheat kernel called

A

farina

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146
Q

quick-cooking cereals have ________ added

A

disodium phosphate - makes cereal alkaline so particles swell fasteravoid this on low sodium diets

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147
Q

strength of gluten and protein content have a negative or positive relationship

A

negative - the stronger the gluten, the more protein; the weaker the gluten, the less protein

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148
Q

name the 8 different wheat flours

A

graham bread (hard wheat)
all-purpose (blend of hard and soft wheat)
pastry (soft wheat)
cake (soft wheat)
enriched (with B vits, iron and folic acid)
instant blending
self-rising

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149
Q

place the following flours in order from strongest gluten and most protein to weakest gluten and least protein: all-purpose, cake, pastry, bread

A

bread (strong gluten, 11.8% pro)
all-purpose (less gluten, 10.5% pro)
pastry (weaker gluten, 7.9% pro)
cake (least and weakest gluten, more starch, 7.5% pro)

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150
Q

what is gluten made from and what does it do

A

it is made from gliadin and glutenin through process of hydration and mixing it gives elastic properties, forms framework, holds in leavening agent

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151
Q

what is the color of flour due to

A

carotenoids

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152
Q

if an oxidizing agent is added to flour, what is it labeled as

A

bleached - natural agents cause oxidation and turn flour from creamy yellow to white

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153
Q

adding bran increase or decreases volume of end product

A

decrease - increase flour and liquid to compensate

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154
Q

name 3 leavening agents

A

steam, air, carbon dioxide (from yeast, baking soda, baking powder)

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155
Q

how do you incorporate air into baked flour mixtures

A

beat, sift, fold, cream

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156
Q

what does the action of yeast on sugar yield

A

carbon dioxide and alcohol

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157
Q

________ is produced from the action of acid on baking soda

A

carbon dioxide- acids include sour milk, cream of tartar, molasses

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158
Q

baking soda + a dry acid + corn starch =

A

baking powder

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159
Q

baking soda provides

A

carbon dioxide

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160
Q

cornstarch keeps contents ____

A

dry

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161
Q

a dry acid reacts with baking soda to release

A

carbon dioxide

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162
Q

a dry chemical leavening agent used to increase the volume and lighten the texture of baked goods - it works by releasing carbon dioxide gas into a batter or dough through an acid-base reaction, causing bubbles in the wet mixture to expand and thus leavening the mixture

A

baking powder

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163
Q

what are 3 types of baking powder

A

tartrate, phosphate, combination

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164
Q

use ____ tsp baking powder per ___ cup flour

A

1 1/2 tsp baking powder per 1 cup flour

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165
Q

old baking powder becomes more alkaline causing loss of _______ in baked goods

A

thiamin

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166
Q

_____ keeps yeast from sticking in baked flour mixtures

A

salt

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167
Q

_____ provides stability, retains leavening agent, distributes shortening by emulsification, introduces air, adds color and flavor in baked flour mixtures

A

egg

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168
Q

____ adds tenderness by coating gluten products particles in baked flour mixtures

A

fat

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169
Q

______ is hydroscopic, it modifies texture by tenderizing, and it softens gluten and prevents gluten development by absorbing some of the water that gluten needs

A

sugar

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170
Q

too much sugar in a flour mixture results in

A

coarse cells, thick walls, a shiny crust and a crumbly product

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171
Q

most of the sugar in honey is ____ and _____

A

glucose and fructose

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172
Q

term used to distribute fat into dry ingredients

A

cut-in

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173
Q

method of mixing used in foams- a down, across, up and across the top motion while rotating bowl

A

fold

174
Q

_______ are leavened with steam, air, chemical leavening agentsex: muffins, biscuits, popovers

A

quick breads

175
Q

2 basic ingredients in quick breads are

A

egg and flour

176
Q

excess mixing causes what

A

loss of carbon dioxide, tunnels from top to bottom, tough and heavy product

177
Q

characteristics of a good muffin

A

round pebbled toppymmetrical shape no long, narrow tunnels

178
Q

method of mixing cake

A

cream fat with sugar, add egg, add sifted dry ingredients in portions, alternating with portions of milk

179
Q

2 types of cakes

A

shortened cake (layer, pound cake, etc.) foam cake (angel cake)

180
Q

shortened cake uses _____ as leavening agent, while foam cake uses ____ as leavening agent

A

chemical leavening; air

181
Q

shortened cakes:layer cake uses _____pound cake uses ____ and _____rich cakes uses increased ___, ___, ___gold cake uses egg _____white cake uses egg _____yellow cake uses _____ _____

A

baking sodaair and steam fat, sugar, egg yolkswhites whole egg

182
Q

foam cakes:angel cake: ___ ___ foam sponge cake: ____ foam and ____ foam chiffon cake: ____, ____, ____ and ____

A

egg white foam yolk foam and white foam liquid yolks, egg white foam, baking powder, oil

183
Q

in cake, the more _____ the more time is needed to reach the elevated coagulation temperature of the gluten

A

sugar*as sugar increases, the volume of cake increases up to the point where the volume is so great, and the gluten so weak, that the gluten stands snap and the cake falls in the center (gummy, crystalline appearance)

184
Q

yellowing of cake is caused by

A

alkaline batter (excess baking soda)

185
Q

fallen center of cake may be caused by

A

excess sugar, excess fat, excess baking powder, inadequate mixing, oven temp too low, open door during early baking

186
Q

tough, dry crumb of cake is caused by

A

too much flour or egg, too much mixing, too little fat or sugar, over-baking

187
Q

coarse texture in cake is caused by

A

too much baking powder or sugar, oven temperature to low, inadequate mixing

188
Q

poor volume in cake is caused by

A

too little baking powder, improper level of sugar or fat

189
Q

cookies are a modified shortened cake, which are higher in ___ and lower in ____ and ____

A

higher in fatlower in sugar and liquid

190
Q

pastries involve ____, ____, ____ and ____

A

flour, fat, liquid and salt

191
Q

lard and oil are ___% fat, butter is ___% fat

A

100%; 80% *when substituting butter for lard, need to use more

192
Q

how is the tenderness in pie crust enhanced

A

by using oil, soft fats, or fat cut into very small pieces

193
Q

how is flakiness of a pastry promoted

A

by leavening fat in coarse particles. Fat in pieces melts and flows, leaving a hole where steam collects and pushes upward against the upper surface of the resulting cell. the cell is locked into that extended position, resulting in a flaky crust

194
Q

proportion of liquid to flour parts in the following: pour batter (ex. waffles) drop batter (ex. muffins)soft dough (bread) stiff dough (ex. pie crust)

A

liquid to flour 1:11:21:31:4

195
Q

Use high protein bread flour in __________

A

yeast dough (low protein flour causes crumbly products with poor texture)

196
Q

what does yeast do

A

ferments sugar and releases carbon dioxide

197
Q

which method of preparing dough involves all ingredients being added before dough is allowed to rise

A

straight dough method

198
Q

which method of preparing dough involves combining liquid with yeast and part of flour and allow this batter (sponge) to ferment for several hours; add sugar, salt, fat, rest of flour; knead

A

sponge dough method

199
Q

which method of preparing dough:-reduces processing time-not as affected by fermentation time and temp- commercial process that substitutes intense mechanical energy to a large degree for traditional bulk fermentation

A

continuous bread-making method

200
Q

what is the final rising of the dough (fermentation) called

A

proofing time *shortened in sponge method *use strong flour, high in protein (bread flour)

201
Q

when baking at high altitudes, you may have to decrease amount of ________ and increase amount of _______

A

baking powder, liquid

202
Q

starch is compose of _____ and _____

A

amylose and amylopectin molecules

203
Q

______ is responsible for gelation in cooled, cooked pastes

A

amylose

204
Q

corn, rice and sorghum have only ______

A

amylopectin *non-gelling; stable to freezing and thawing *used in frozen foods

205
Q

place the following starches in order of the effectiveness of thickening ability: wheat, waxy rice, tapioca, waxy sorghum, potato, waxy corn

A

potato (best thickener), waxy corn, waxy rice, waxy sorghum, tapioca, wheat

206
Q

wheat _____ is even less effective than pure wheat ______ because of the protein content

A

flour; starch

207
Q

pastry and cake flour have more starch and less gluten, so they thicken (better or worse)

A

better

208
Q

________ is the swelling that occurs when starch is heated in water close to the boiling point

A

gelatinization*heat dissociates bonds, water moves in and swells granules

209
Q

during gelatinization, sugar increases ________ and reduces _____ and ______

A

translucency; viscosity; gel strength

210
Q

what happens if lemon juice (acid) is added to lemon meringue pie before cooking is complete and why

A

filling will be runny because acid breaks down starch and will give a runny product

211
Q

what occurs in starches with a high proportion of amylose and is undesirable (reduced quality)

A

retrogradation (recrystallization) -gives a gritty texture

212
Q

what white sauce is half fat, half flour made by first melting the fat and adding flour

A

roux

213
Q

to get a clear, shiny, translucent sauce, use ______ as thickener

A

cornstarch

214
Q

name 3 crystal inhibitors (in crystallization)

A

acid (cream of tartar, vinegar) fat (chocolate, milk) protein (milk, egg whites, gelation)

215
Q

overrun ice cream is the increase in volume from ______ and ______

A

freezing and whipping

216
Q

how does fat interfere with crystal formation

A

it makes crystals small and smooth*to make smoother ice cream, increase fat

217
Q

gelatin___ calories per gramincomplete protein with no _____, and low ____ and ____

A

4 kcal/gno tryptophan low in methionine and lysine

218
Q

an enzyme in fresh or frozen pineapple the breaks down protein and prevents gelation

A

bromelain

219
Q

for best flavor, coffee should be brewed at ____ F

A

185-203 F*at high temps, tannin is extracted and coffee is bitter

220
Q

the FDA controls ______

A

additives (emulsifiers, humectant, stabilizers, anti-caking, nitrates etc.)

221
Q

monoglyceridesdiglycerideslecithindisodium phosphate all examples of what

A

emulsifiers

222
Q

gylcerol monostearate is what

A

humectant - retains h20

223
Q

propionate is what

A

preservative; mold inhibitor

224
Q

______ foods provide more benefits than the basic nutritional benefits

A

functional foods

225
Q

functional food that reduces total and LDL cholesterol; found in fortified margarines

A

plant sterols and stanol esters

226
Q

functional food that is found in grape juice and red wine; reduces platelet aggregation

A

resveratrol

227
Q

functional food that is found in tomatoes; may reduce prostate cancer

A

lycopene

228
Q

biologically active, naturally occurring chemical components in plant foods, act as natural defense for the plant - these are called what

A

phytochemicals

229
Q

example of a phytochemical; from the cruciferous vegetables; detoxification of carcinogens

A

thiols

230
Q

the additive influence of foods and constituents which, when eaten, have a beneficial effect on health

A

food synergy

231
Q

Ineffective communication can result in…

A

incorrect diagnoses and noncompliance with treatment

232
Q

_______ zone is 18”- 4’, when giving instructions or working closely

A

personal zone

233
Q

When assessing the needs of clients, not that very poor clients are…

A

short term planners

234
Q

When counseling adolescent clients, relate to their interests and consider _____ ______ and attitudes toward authority.

A

peer pressure

235
Q

The instructional media selected depends on… (5)

A

the teaching goalssize of audiencephysical facility equipment and time available learning style of audience

236
Q

Computers and programmed instruction materials are used to learn purely _______ material.

A

cognitive

237
Q

Type of LearningAcquisition of knowledge or subject matter (factual)

A

Cognitive

238
Q

Type of LearningAcquisition of attitudes and values (subjective)

A

Affective

239
Q

Type of LearningAcquisition of muscular skills (exercises, food preparation)

A

Psychomotor

240
Q

Objectives for hierarchy of learning. Objectives at lower level must be mastered before more complex learning can take place. This is:

A

Blooms taxonomy

241
Q

Encourages repetition of a given behavior (praise, reward). Should be specific and immediate; meaningful attention from superiors.

A

Positive reinforcement

242
Q

Behavior modification method that reduces undesired behavior. Involves the absence of reinforcement following undesirable behavior (ignore).

A

Extinction

243
Q

Involve learner in an ______ way.

A

active way*Doing an activity or task permits the greatest retention

244
Q

Posing a question after an ambiguous client message; used to make previous message explicit.

A

Clarification

245
Q

Paraphrase or repeat back what was just said.

A

Active or reflective listening*focus on the thoughts and feelings of others rather on personal reactions

246
Q

Keep reading level of material around the ___ grade for the general population,

A

8th grade

247
Q

What grade level should reading material be written for audiences of low literacy?

A

6th grade

248
Q

Procedure for determining readability; gives grade level.

A

SMOG index *finds the average number of polysyllabic words

249
Q

The intersection between nutrition, information and technology (use of technology for spreading nutrition info)

A

Nutritional informatics

250
Q

What is called when the groups product (decision) is superior to what the most resourceful individual within the group could have produced by working alone.

A

synergy

251
Q

Steps of the educational process (4)

A

(1) Assessment(2) Planning(3) Implementation (4) Evaluation of outcomes

252
Q

This type of evaluation of educational outcomes is made during the course of education.

A

Formative

253
Q

This type of evaluation of educational outcomes is designed at planning stage, but conducted at end of session.

A

Summative

254
Q

When do you evaluate the educational process? (which step)

A

At assessment (1st step) *note: evaluate at all 4 steps , but 1st evaluate at assessment.

255
Q

Evaluation strategies are evaluated once _____ are established.

A

objectives

256
Q

A test that asks the client to complete a task based on the learning objective.

A

performance test

257
Q

Interviewing steps (4)

A
  1. preparation (before you meet client) 2. Build rapport 3. Collect data (*open ended questions)4. Closing (summarizing)
258
Q

Non-verbal, physical communication:

A

kinesics (eye contact, folded arms, clenched fists)

259
Q

How the client’s message is delivered (hesitations, stuttering, whispering etc.)

A

paralinguistics

260
Q

What do you do if client moves away, looking away, fidgeting, etc?

A

Confront behavior, correct with patient

261
Q

Personal space is known as:

A

proxemics

262
Q

What might a reassuring response to a client do?

A

may make it difficult to solve the clients problem or discuss it further

263
Q

A counseling technique that helps clients recognize and begin to resolve their concerns and problems. The goal is to increase their motivation so the clients are able to express the rationale for the changes that need to be made.

A

motivational interviewing

264
Q

Describe the Stages of Change model

A

Determine your client’s current stage. Behavior change is more effective using this approach, rather than using the same intervention techniques with everyonePrecontemplation, Contemplation, Preparation, Action, Maintenance

265
Q

How many steps are there in research?

A

7

266
Q

Step 1 in research process

A

(1) Identify a relevant and important topic; literature review

267
Q

Step 2 in research process

A

(2) Develop a well-considered research question.

268
Q

Step 3 in research process

A

(3) Research question leads to a hypothesis.*hypothesis is a prediction of a relationship *null hypothesis= no relationship

269
Q

Step 4 in research process

A

(4) Prepare research protocol: methodology to solve the problem

270
Q

Step 5 in research process

A

(5) Organize methods and materials

271
Q

Step 6 in research process

A

(6) Collect and analyze data

272
Q

Step 7 in research process

A

(7) Study results and make decisions

273
Q

What are the parts of a research paper? (8)

A
  1. Abstract 2. General introduction3. Review of existing literature 4. Methodology 5. Results 6. Discussion (interpretation of results) 7. Conclusion 8. Implications (applied in practice)
274
Q

What type of research describes a state of nature at a point in time and establishes associations among factors, but does NOT prove cause/effect.

A

Descriptive research

275
Q

Qualitative research, case report, and surveys are what type of research?

A

Descriptive research

276
Q

Research designed to describe and quantify characteristics of a defined population and defined time frame; pinpoints problems.

A

Surveys

277
Q

Type of research that tests hypotheses concerning the effects of specific factors of interest and allows cause/effect relationship to be determined.

A

Analytical research

278
Q

Experimental model, Quasi-experiemental design, cohort studies, case control studies and cross-sectional studies are what type of research?

A

Analytical research

279
Q

The _______ model uses experimental and control groups. The control does not receive treatment or receives a placebo.

A

Experimental model

280
Q

The Quasi-experimental design involves _____ _____, which is a series of measurements at periodic intervals before and after the program. It shows whether measurements before and after are a continuation of previous patterns or whether they indicate noteworthy change.

A

time series

281
Q

This type of study follows a group through a time to see if they develop a specific disease. It’s sometimes called incidence studies tracking the frequency of new cases of a disease.

A

cohort studies

282
Q

These studies focus on a specific disease. Those with the disease are compared to those without the disease, but have similar characteristics; studies how they differ.

A

case control studies

283
Q

This study collects data ONE time. It is sometimes called prevalence study (ALL cases of a disease among a group in a specific time); gives a snap-shot look at one particular time period (present time, not past).

A

cross-sectional study

284
Q

The ability to measure phenomenon it intends to measure.

A

relevance or validity

285
Q

______ validity tests whether the difference between the two groups is real (has the experiment group really performed differently).

A

internal validity

286
Q

______ validity tests whether or not a generalization can be made from the study to a large population.

A

external validity

287
Q

ANOVA - describe

A

Analysis of variance; tool used to evaluate validity (need >2 samples). *used when several products compete against one another.

288
Q

Consistency or reproducibility of test results

A

reliability

289
Q

Variables that fit into a category with no special order (gender, race, marital status)

A

nominal variables (non ordered)

290
Q

Variables that are compared with each other and put in order, perhaps from best to worst, state of disease from 1-4)

A

rank ordered (ordered scale)

291
Q

______ variables are outcomes. ______ variables are what you manipulate in your study.

A

Dependent; Independent *effect of cholesterol levels (independent) have on heart attacks (dependent)

292
Q

Simple average of data

A

mean

293
Q

Value at the midpoint

A

median *if there is an even amount of numbers, the median is the average of the 2 numbers closest in the center

294
Q

Most frequent occurring value; prediction most likely to be right.

A

mode (no repeated #, no mode)

295
Q

Difference between the lowest and highest values in the distribution.

A

range

296
Q

Most significant measure of distribution; indicates degree of dispersion about the mean value of a distribution.

A

standard deviation*has curve of normal distribution as it falls away from its peak on either side. *distance between the mean and the point of inflection on either side is = to SD.

297
Q

About 2/3 (68%) of all observations in a normal distribution lie within ___ SD of the mean.

A

1 SD 32% lie outside the range (16% below, 16% above the range)95% lie within 2 SD either side of the mean

298
Q

The closer the points to the line, the stronger the degree of ______ relationship. This is called ______ _______ ______.

A

linear relationshiplinear correlation coefficient (r)

299
Q

There is no linear relationship if r = ___.

A

0

300
Q

Perfect positive correlation is ____. Perfect negative correlation is ____.

A

+1, -1

301
Q

The lower the p value, the (HIGHER/LOWER) the significance of your results.

A

higher

302
Q

What does p < or = 0.05 indicate?

A

< 0.05 = significant difference, results are reliable

303
Q

Management concepts are?

A

philosophies about how an organization views its customers and its delivery of products/services

304
Q

Marketing Mix - what are the 4 P’s?

A

Product, place, price, promotion

305
Q

Effectiveness refers too…

A

degree to which we achieve our objectives

306
Q

Efficiency refers too..

A

minimization of resources we expend to achieve objectives

307
Q

what is gluconeogenesis

A

conversion of non-carbohydrate sources into glucose (glycerol and amino acids -> glucose)

308
Q

state of equilibrium of the internal environment of the body is called

A

homeostasis

309
Q

which vitamins/minerals are coenzymes in energy production

A

pantothenic acid, thiamin, riboflavin, niacin

310
Q

a substance upon which an enzyme works is called

A

substrate

311
Q

which hormone stimulates liver glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis to raise blood sugar

A

thyroxine*also regulates metabolism, rate of oxidation

312
Q

a tropical climate can increase BEE by what % range

A

5-20%

313
Q

caffeine, alcohol, and nicotine can increase BEE by what % range

A

7-15%

314
Q

the thermic effect of food counts for what % of TEE

A

10%*this effect is greater after carb/pro consumption than fat consumption

315
Q

women have what % range lower BMR than men

A

5-10%

316
Q

when is BMR highest

A

0-2 years old

317
Q

what test measures the activity of the thyroid gland

A

Protein Bound Iodine (PBI)PBI up, then BMR is upmeasures level of thyroxine produced*NOT a nutritional assessment parameter

318
Q

each degree rise in temperature causes a ___ % increase in BMR

A

7%

319
Q

BEE is a calculation of what

A

calculation of BMR - minimum energy needed at rest in fasting to carry out involuntary functions of the body

320
Q

RMR is typically what % higher than BMR

A

10-20%

321
Q

which equation predicts RMR within 10% of indirect calorimetry

A

Mifflin St Jeor

322
Q

direct calorimetry measures what

A

heat produced in a respiration chamber - has limited usefulness

323
Q

indirect calorimetry measures what

A

oxygen consumed and carbon dioxide excreted*practical way to measure what nutrients are used for energy and caloric needs

324
Q

how do you calculate RQ

A

carbon dioxide expired / oxygen consumed*Vco2/vo2

325
Q

what is the RQ of carbohydrate

A

1

326
Q

what is the RQ of protein

A

0.82

327
Q

what is the RQ of fat

A

0.7

328
Q

what is the RQ of a mixed intake

A

0.85

329
Q

what are the monosaccharides (simple sugars - 3)

A

glucose, fructose, galactose

330
Q

what are the disaccharides and what makes each one up (3)

A

sucrose - glucose + fructoselactose - glucose + galactosemaltose - glucose + glucose

331
Q

what are the polysaccharides (5)

A

starch - glucose chains (about 50% cho intake)cellulose - resistant to amylase, adds bulkpectin - nondigestible, found in fruits, thickenerglycogen - animal starch made from glucosedextrin - intermediate product of starch breakdown

332
Q

what is alcohol from glucose called

A

sorbitol *absorbed via passive diffusion slower than glucose, converted to fructose, may cause diarrhea in excess

333
Q

put these in order of decreasing sweetnesssucrose, sorbitol, mannitol, galactose, maltose, lactose, glucose, fructose, invert sugar

A

fructose, invert sugar, sucrose, glucose, sorbitol, mannitol, galactose, maltose, lactose

334
Q

carbohydrates has what 3 functions

A

provide energyspare protein for use in tissue synthesisregulate fat metabolism (ketosis if cho restricted)

335
Q

carbohydrate is made up of what 3 components

A

carbon hydrogen oxygen

336
Q

protein is made up of what components

A

carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen (16%)*sulfur is present is cysteine, cystine, methionine

337
Q

is an amino group (NH2) a base or acid

A

base

338
Q

is a carboxyl group (COOH) a base or acid

A

acid

339
Q

what are the 8 essential AA’s

A

TV TILL PMHthreonine, valine, tryptophan, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, phenylalanine, methionine, histidine

340
Q

what 2 AA’s are essential during catabolic stress

A

arginine, glutamine

341
Q

serotonin and niacin have what AA as a precursor

A

tryptophan

342
Q

phenylalanine is converted to what AA

A

tyrosine

343
Q

methionine is converted to what AA

A

cysteine

344
Q

what type of protein should be primarily given in a low protein diet

A

HBV

345
Q

an incomplete protein is deficient in what

A

one or more essential AA’s

346
Q

what makes up a lipoprotein (conjugated)

A

AA (simple) + non protein substance

347
Q

what makes up a peptide (derived)

A

fragments from AA’s (simple) and lipoproteins (conjugated)

348
Q

primary food sources of protein (6)

A

meatpoultryfisheggsmilklegumes

349
Q

what % of protein may be converted to glucose

A

58%

350
Q

which AA are soybeans low in

A

methionine

351
Q

which AA’s are legumes low in (3)

A

methionine, cystine, tryptophan

352
Q

which AA’s are low in gelatin, and what AA is not in gelatin

A

low in methionine, lysineno tryptophan

353
Q

cystine is made up of what

A

2 cysteines linked by a disulfide linkage

354
Q

fat is made up of what components

A

carbon hydrogen oxygen

355
Q

what are the types of fats (3)

A

simple - triglycerides (3 FA, 1 glycerol)compound - simple + other components (phospholipid)derived - fatty acid, glycerol, steroid - dervied from simple/compound fat by hydrolysis or enzyme breakdown

356
Q

phospholipids provide what functions

A

transport and utilization of fatty acids and cholesterol through enzyme LCATcontrol passage of compounds in and out of cells in cell membraneshelps to prevent fat accumulation in the liver

357
Q

lecithins (a phospholipid) contain what

A

choline (lipotropic factor)

358
Q

describe saturated fatty acids

A

solid and hard at room tempall available bonds on carbon chains are filled with hydrogen

359
Q

what are the 3 types of unsaturated fatty acids

A

monounsaturated (1 double bond)polyunsaturated (2+ double bonds)essential fatty acids - absence creates specific deficiency dz

360
Q

what are the most polyunsaturated and monounsaturated FA’s

A

poly - safflower oilmono - canola oil

361
Q

linoleic acid (omega 6) deficiency can lead too what

A

eczema, poor growth rate, petechiae (red/purp skin spots)

362
Q

if linoleic acid replaces CHO, LDL ____ and HDL ____

A

decreasesincreases

363
Q

in linoleic acid replaces saturated fat, total cholesterol ____, HDL ____

A

decreasesdecreases

364
Q

what is the best source of linoleic acid

A

safflower oil

365
Q

alpha linolenic acid (omega 3) is involved in ______ function and ______ brain development

A

retinal functionbrain development

366
Q

a-linolenic acid deficiency results in ______ changes such as

A

neurological changes - numbness, blurred vision

367
Q

primary sources of a-linolenic acids (4)

A

fish oils - best sourcewalnutsflaxseedcanola

368
Q

a-linolenic acid _______ hepatic production of triglycerides and has _____ effect on cholersterol levels

A

decreases hepatic productionlittle effect

369
Q

linoleic acid structure is C18:2w6 - what does this indicate

A

18 carbons, two double bonds - first double bond at 6th carbon*note this is how fatty acids are classified - # of carbons, # of double bonds, position of 1st double bond

370
Q

a-linolenic acid structure is C18:3w3 - what does this indicate

A

18 carbons, three double bonds - first at 3rd carbon

371
Q

fatty acid structures have a _____ group at one end and a _____ group at the other

A

carboxyl (COOH)methyl (CH3)

372
Q

what is hydrogenation

A

process of adding hydrogen at a double bond to unsaturated fatty acids to increase saturation and stability

373
Q

trans fatty acids are found in what (4)

A

milk fat (4-8%)margarineshorteningfrying fats*it is a product of partial hydrogenation of PUFA’s

374
Q

cis fatty acids are found in what

A

most natural fats and oils

375
Q

fat intake ______ gastric emptrying by ______ gastric secretions

A

delaysdepressing/decreasing

376
Q

why does fat provide more energy than carbohydrates

A

it has less oxygen and more carbon so it has more carbons for oxidation to energy

377
Q

primary food sources of fat (4)

A

butteroilsnutsbacon

378
Q

what are the highest sources of saturated fatty acids (in order)

A

coconut oilpalm kernelcocoa butterbutterbeef tallowpalm oil

379
Q

what are the highest sources of MUFAs (4)

A

olive oilcanolapeanutsunflower

380
Q

what are the highest sources of PUFAs

A

safflowercornsoybeancottonseedsunflower

381
Q

____ primarily contains fat as SAT, MUFA, PUFA____ primarily contains fat as PUFA, MUFA, SAT

A

buttermargarine

382
Q

what are MCT’s and their sources (3)

A

SFAs with 6-12 carbons- milk fatcoconut oilpalm kernel oil

383
Q

how can you determine calories in alcohol

A

(0.8) x proof x ounces

384
Q

winterized oil wont _____ when cold and is _____ rather than ______

A

crystallizeclearcloudy

385
Q

_____, _____, and _____ are winterized, _____ is not

A

corn, soy, cottonseed oils areolive oil is not

386
Q

how is winterized oil made

A

oil chilled to 45 F, FA with high melting point will crystallize and are filtered out

387
Q

Vitamin A

A

Carotene– precursor, provitamin Toxic Level: 10,000 U Sources: yellow/orange fruits, green leafy veggies (cantaloupe, fish liver, carrots, fortified skim milk, apricots, sweet potato)

388
Q

Vitamin A Deficiency

A
  1. Nyctalopia (night blindness)- reversible; detected using dark adaptation test 2. Xeropthalmia- corneal damage, NOT reversible 3. Hyperkeratosis- dry scaly skin
389
Q

Vitamin D

A

Cholesterol is precursor, UV light 7-Dehydrocholesterol–> D3 cholecalciferol–> D2 ergocalciferol Sources: Sunlight, egg yolk, fortified milk

390
Q

Vitamin D Deficiency

A

Rickets (soft bones)

Osteomalacia (adult rickets)

391
Q

Vitamin E

A

Known as tocopherol, functions as antioxidant
*One of the least toxic vits UL 1000mgs
Sources: veg oils, whole grains, green veggies, almonds

392
Q

Vitamin E Deficiency

A

Hemolytic anemia

393
Q

Vitamin K

A

Synthesized by bacteria in lower GI tract
No toxicity symptoms
Aids in blood clotting (forms prothrombin in liver)
Given pre-surgery
Ca metabolism

394
Q

Vitamin K Sources & Deficiency

A

Sources: spinach, kale, broccoli, green leafy veg
Def = Hemorrhage (slow clotting)
*affected by mineral oil, antibiotics, anticoagulants
Blood thinners- consistent vit K intake

395
Q

Vitamin B1 Properties

A

Thiamin water soluble

  • Lost in cooking as temp or pH rises
  • Heat stable in acid
  • better maintained in meat when cooked/roasted at low end temp
396
Q

Vitamin B1 (Thiamin) Function & Sources

A

Oxidation of CHO (inc. CHO, inc. need for B1)
Metabolism of pyruvate - Grains, wheat germ
*pork, liver

397
Q

Thiamin (B1) Deficiency

A

Beriberi, muscle weakness, foot drop, memory loss, tachycardia - Elevated plasma pyruvate level indicates Thiamin def.

398
Q

Vitamin B2

A

Riboflavin
Lost in UV light (milk sold in opaque container)
Energy release from PROTEIN
RBC production
*Liver, kidney, meat, milk (animal protein)

399
Q

Riboflavin (B2) Deficiency

A

Growth failure
*Cheilosis- cracked lips
*Angular stomatitis- mouth corner cracks
Magenta tongue

400
Q

Niacin

A

Precursor: TRYPTOPHAN
Metabolism of CHO, PRO & FAT
*protein, peanuts, cereal, chicken, rice, yeast, milk

401
Q

Niacin Deficiency

A

Pellegra
*Dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia (3 Ds)
Bright, red tongue
Symmetrical, pigmented rash in sunlight

402
Q

Folate

A

*Coenzyme for DNA synthesis
Forms RBC in bone marrow
Prevents neural tube defects
*fortified cereal, liver, kidney, leafy greens, citrus fruits, lentils, beans

403
Q

Folate Deficiency

A

Megaloblastic, Macrocytic anemia Diarrhea, fatigue

404
Q

Vitamin B6

A

Pyridoxine
Coenzyme in amino acid metabolism (deamination/transamination- digestion & absorption) Increase PRO = Increased pyridoxine
*meat, wheat, corn, yeast, pork, liver, cereals

405
Q

Pyridoxine (B6) Deficiency

A

Seizures, anemia, dermatitis, glossitis, peripheral neuropathy

406
Q

Vitamin B12

A

Cyanocobalamin (contains cobalt) Bound by intrinsic factor in gastric juice Coenzyme in PRO synthesis, Forms RBC*animal proteins (liver, meat, milk, eggs, fish, cheese)

407
Q

Cyanocobalamin (B12) Deficiency

A

Macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia
Pernicious anemia - after gastrectomy or removal of ileum d/t lack of IF (intrinsic factor)
*Deficiency rare

408
Q

Pantothenic acid

A 
Functions as Coenzyme A- in energy release
Synthesis of fatty acid (by intestinal bacteria) 
Rare deficiency (paresthesia in feet)
409
Q

Vitamin C- Ascorbic acid

A

Most easily destroyed vit, structure like glucose Antioxidant
Needs acid pH
Destroyed by heat, alkaline pH, oxidation

410
Q

Vitamin C- Ascorbic acid Functions/Sources

A

Changes proline into hydroxyproline into collagen, which strengthens intercellular substances *wound healing *aids iron absorption *citrus fruits, potatoes, papaya, dark greens, yellow veggies

411
Q

Vitamin C- Ascorbic acid Deficiency

A

Scurvy = poor wound healing, bleeding gums, petechiae

412
Q

Biotin

A

Synthesized by intestinal bacteria, inactivated by avidin (protein in raw egg white)
*Coenzyme in FA synthesis, converts pyruvate to oxaloacetate in gluconeogenesis
*liver, kidney, egg yolk, yeast
Deficiency = muscle pain, dermatitis, glossitis

413
Q

Calcium

A

Most abundant mineral in body
Regulated by parathyroid hormone
Calcitonin lowers serum
Ca by inhibiting bone reabsorption

414
Q

Calcium Functions/sources/deficiency

A

Blood clotting, cardiac fn, nerve transmission, smooth muscle contractility
Dairy, leafy veggies, legumes
Def = hypocalcemia leads to tetany (irregular muscles contractions)

415
Q

Phosphorus

A 
Part of DNA molecule, RNA, ATP
*2nd most abundant mineral 
Phospholipids transport fat through lymph and blood
*bone/teeth 
*best source: animal proteins 
Def rare
416
Q

Iron

A

Trace mineral Part of hemoglobin Food iron: ferric *MOST absorbable form: FERROUS Stored: ferritin (best assessment parameter for iron status)
*Oxygen transport

417
Q

Iron Sources

A

Heme iron: animal foods, meat, fish poultry (MFP factor) Non-heme: cereals, vegetables, poorly absorbed; absorption aided by gastric juice, vit C.
*Ca helps if oxalates are present (oxalates bind iron, Ca binds oxalates)
Does NOT aid absorption: eggs, tea, milk, cheese

418
Q

Iron Deficiency

A

Pale tongue, fatigue, anemia, *spoon-shaped nails

419
Q

Magnesium

A 
Part of chlorophyll 
50% in bone, 50% in cells 
*PRO and FA synthesis 
Stabilizes structure of ATP 
High PRO, Ca, Vit D increases need 
*most foods, milk, bread 
Def rare = tremors
420
Q

Zinc

A

Trace mineral *excess leads to copper or iron deficiency *increased taste acuity *enhances insulin action *animal proteins

421
Q

Zinc deficiency

A

reduced immune function, alopecia, poor wound healing, hypogeusia

422
Q

Iodine

A

Trace mineral
Part of thyroxine
*seafoods, iodized salt
Def = goiter

423
Q

Fluoride

A

Trace mineral teeth, bones
Source: soil, water
Def = dental caries

424
Q

Copper

A

Trace mineral
Attacher to protein- ceruloplasmin
Hemoglobin synthesis
Aids in absorption
Source: liver, kidney, shellfish
Def rare = microcytic anemia, neutropenia
*Wilson’s disease: low serum copper, genetic absence of liver enzyme

425
Q

Selenium

A 
Antioxidant 
Cooperates with Vit E 
Tissue respiration 
*soil, grains, meat, fish, poultry, dairy 
Def = myalgia, cardiac myopathy
426
Q

Managanese

A

CNS whole grains, legumes, nuts

Def = unlikely

427
Q

Chromium

A

Absorption enhanced by Vit C, niacin
Aids insulin action and required for glucose metabolism (Cr & Zn)
*yeast, oysters, potatoes, liver
Def = insulin resistance

428
Q

Cobalt

A

Exists with B12 Stored in liver

Maturation of RBC Related to B12 def

429
Q

Sulfur

A

Occurs as 3 AAs
Component of organic molecules
*Animal protein sources are best

430
Q

Choline

A

Component of lecithin
Transports lipids as acetylcholine
*Fat in eggs, milk, liver, soybeans

RD Study Guide 2017 (5 decks)

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