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RD Study Guide 2017 > Food Science and Nutrient Composition of Foods (25%) > Flashcards

Food Science and Nutrient Composition of Foods (25%) Flashcards

1
Q

what are the components of milk?

A

88% water, 5% CHO, 3.5% PRO, 3.3% FAT

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2
Q

________ is the chief CHO in milk

A

lactose

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3
Q

what does lactose breakdown into?

A

glucose + galactose

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4
Q

what percentage of milk protein is casein?

A

80%

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5
Q

what is the remaining protein in milk?

A

whey

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6
Q

what are milk precipitates that form in an acidic medium?

A

curd

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7
Q

what is whey? does it denature easily?

A

whey is the liquid that drains from the curd (coagulated milk used in cheese making)
yes. whey denatures easily causing the cooked flavor of milk

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8
Q

how many vitamins are needed for human nutrition that are present in milk?

A

all vitamins needed for human nutrition are present

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9
Q

what vitamin in milk is sensitive to ultraviolet light and needs to be protected

A

riboflavin (vitamin B2)

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10
Q

is milk a good source of vitamin C? explain.

A

no, d/t pasteurization process degrading vitamin C during the heating treatment

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11
Q

is milk a good source of iron?

A

no; however, research does not support milk consumption reducing/affecting iron absorbability. https://milk.procon.org/view.answers.php?questionID=000848

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12
Q

milk is the best source of ____________

A

calcium

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13
Q

list the types of milk products (7)

A

fluid milk, whole milk, UHT, filled milk, evaporated milk, sweetened condense milk, and dry milk

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14
Q

reduced fat (2%), low fat (1%), fat-free (skim)

A

fluid milk (labeled according to fat content)

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15
Q

not less than 3.25% milk fat and not less than 8.25% milk solids ( lactose, caseins, whey proteins, and minerals )

A

whole milk

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16
Q

what is the difference between pasteurization and homogenization?

A 
pasteurization = the use of heat to kill disease causing microorgaisms in milk and increase milk safety
homogenization = the use of high pressure which reduces the size of fat globules in milk to evenly distribute the fat and prevent separation of fat and liquid when packaged
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17
Q

uses a fat other than milk fat to create a substitute for milk (any milk, cream, or skim milk that has been reconstituted with fats, usually vegetable oils, from sources other than dairy cows)

A

filled milk

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18
Q

60% of the water is removed; must contain 6.5% butterfat and not less than 25% total milk solids

A

evaporated milk

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19
Q

15% sugar is added and volume is reduced to 1/3 of the original amount

A

sweetened condensed milk

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20
Q

usually made by removing 2/3 of the water from skim milk under a vacuum, then spraying this milk concentration into a chamber of hot filtered air; about 3% moisture content

A

dry milk

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21
Q

process of heating milk up and then quickly cooling it down to eliminate certain bacteria.

A

pasteurization

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22
Q

most commonly used method in the US; milk is pasteurized at 161°F (72°C) for 15 seconds; these conditions provide fresh tasting milk that meets the requirements for consumer safety.

A

HTST = High-Temperature-Short-Time Treatment

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23
Q

milk is pasteurized at 145°F (63°C) for 30 minutes

A

Hold or LTLT = Low-Temperature-Long-Time Treatment; less common practice

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24
Q

milk heated to 138°C and held for 2 seconds (kills all microorganisms); makes it possible to store milk in closed contaiers at room temperature for 6 months

A

UHT = ultra high temperature

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25
Q

any cheese made by clotting milk to form a curd and then concentrating the curd by draining the whey (containing no additives)

A

natural cheese

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26
Q

processed cheese w/ higher moisture content than processed cheese; 51% or more cheese, < 44% moistureExample: American cheese

A

processed cheese food

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27
Q

spreadable at 70 degrees, 44-60% moisture

A

processed cheese spread

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28
Q

less than 51% cheese and greater than 60% moisture

A

processed cheese product

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29
Q

soft, whitish in color and mild tasting, highly perishable, 80% moisture contentExample: cream cheese, cottage cheese, ricotta, marscapone

A

natural; fresh cheese

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30
Q

aged a short time, moisture content 50-70%Example: brie

A

natural; soft cheese

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31
Q

cheeses are 40-50% moistureExample: gouda, Edam

A

natural; semi-hard cheese

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32
Q

moisture content is 30-40%Example: cheddar, swiss

A

natural; hard cheese

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33
Q

cheeses are aged the longest and have approximately 30% moisture content

A

natural; very hard cheese

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34
Q

coagulation of milk w/ an acid

A

lowers the pH causing the casein to become insoluble and precipitate readily into curd.

milk products coagulated w/ an acid are lower in calcium than those coagulated w/ an enzyme example: milk w/ lemon juice as a substitute for buttermilk

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35
Q

coagulation of milk w/ an enzyme

A

most commonly used is rennin, which is used in the production of cheese and ice cream.

rennin clots are firmer than acid clots and more stable

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36
Q

coagulation of milk w/ heat

A

when milk is heated to near the boiling point, the whey proteins become insoluble, mesh with the milk’s calcium phosphate and precipitate forming a film (can burn easily)

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37
Q

coagulation of milk w/ casein

A

will not coagulate w/ heat unless it is boiled for long periods of time

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38
Q

coagulation of milk w/ polyphenolic compounds

A

found in some fruits, vegetables, teas, and coffees when combined w/ milk will result in the precipitation of proteins
they also contribute to the curdling of milk when making scalloped potatoes, tomato or asparagus soup

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39
Q

coagulation of milk w/ salt

A

when used in combination w/ milk can cause milk to curdle to prevent curdling salt or salted foods should be added to the milk base instead of milk being added to salt or salted foods

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40
Q

function of milk solids in ice cream

A

protein; contributes body and smoothness

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41
Q

function of sweetners in ice cream

A

flavor; corn syrup reduces ice crystals making for a smoother product

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42
Q

function of eggs in ice cream

A

delicate flavor; increases thickness and improves body; increases whipping ability

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43
Q

function of cream in ice cream

A

gives richness and smooth texture (mouth feel); reduces ice crystals

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44
Q

what factors interfere w/ or help reduce ice crystal aggregation (formation) in ice cream allowing for a smoother product

A

protein: gelatin, egg whites, milk powder fat: chocolate corn syrup

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45
Q

what are some examples of imitation ice cream

A

mellorine = a frozen dessert similar to ice cream but the milk fat has been replaced w/ vegetable fat (made w/ filled milk)

parevine = a product that has not butterfat or milk solids (sorbet - nondairy)

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46
Q

emulsifiers are added to natural cheeses, making them softer and easier to cook with; reduces spoilage potential; water added

A

processed cheese

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47
Q

known changes in eggs during prolonged storage

A

air cell increases in size
pH increases as egg ages d/t vitamin C loss
yolk membrane weakens
white becomes thinner

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48
Q

composition of egg/50 g

A

whole egg = 6 g PRO/212 g cholesterol/1 g CHO/75% water

white only = 4.2 g PRO/no cholesterol (0 g)/trace amounts of CHO/88% water; rich in B vitamins

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49
Q

composition of yolk

A

fat, fat soluble vitamins, cholesterol, iron , natural emulsifier

naturally occurring oil in water emulsion
egg yolk yields a stiffer, more stable emulsion than egg white b/c it has more protein (by weight)

lecithin helps yolk act as an emulsifier
lipoproteins stabilize the emulsion by interacting at the surface of the oil droplets to form a layer

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50
Q

what is the nutritive value of eggs

A

80 calories, 6 grams PRO, 5 grams FAT, vitamins A, D, riboflavin

yolk is more concentrated than white: has more protein (by weight), fat, minerals, vitmains

% composition of protein: egg white 11%, egg yolk 17.5%

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51
Q

comparison of egg substitutes and whole eggs

A

egg substitutes are egg whites w/ coloring, salt, no cholesterol or fatmore firm b/c fat is removed

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52
Q

comparison of egg protein and wheat protein

A

coagulation temperatures lower in egg (143 - 158°F)
similar in elasticity
quality of protein lower in wheat (only partially complete)
egg has ability to act as a leavening agent

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53
Q

cooking tips

A

green egg yolk = overcooked or slow to cool offiron (bluish gray color) from yolk combines w/ sulfur (yellowish color) = ferrous sulfide
green scrambled egg = overcooked, high temp steam table (too hot), egg reacts w/ metal serving utensil

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54
Q

how do you increase egg white foam?

A

use room temperature egg whites d/t LOWER surface tension

cream of tartar (acid) or an acid (lemon juice/vinegar) to denature protein (stiffens an egg white foam by tenderizing the protein and allowing it to expand more easily)

stabilize foam by adding sugar

*when an egg foam is heated, air expands, egg white stretchs and protein coagulates

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55
Q

what happens when you omit yolks in baking

A

egg yolk is a natural emulsifier (used to help stabilize foods and baked goods)
when removed, the properties of baked goods are changed

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56
Q

what has 0.4 g vs 0.1 g of an ordinary egg and how is done?

A

omega-3 eggs

achieved by feeding hens a diet of 10-20% flax seeds

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57
Q

what does the USDA inspection of meats mean and are they mandatory?

A

the animal was healthy at time of slaughter and sanitary conditions were used
inspection is mandatory

has nothing to do with the quality of meat 1997 regulation incorporates the HACCP guidelines along w/ mandatory E.coli testing

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58
Q

are USDA grading of meats mandatory or voluntary?

A

voluntary; paid by processor

purpose: for untrained consumer to buy quality

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59
Q

what are the grades of meat for each animal?

A

beef = prime, choice, selection, standard, commercial, utility, cutter, canner veal = prime, choice, good, standard, utility, culllamb = prime, choice, good, utility, cull pork = 1, 2, 3, 4, utility poultry & fish = A, B, C

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60
Q

__________ is chiefly responsible for the color of meat?

A

myoglobin; it is the iron-carrying compound in muscle

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61
Q

what red pigment in blood is removed during slaughter?

A

hemoglobin (hgb)

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62
Q

what is the oxygenated form of myoglobin that results in bright red color of meat?

A

oxymyoglobin

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63
Q

__________ is the brownish red form of myoglobin when ferrous iron is oxidized

A

metmyoglobin

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64
Q

what is the structure and composition of meat?

A

mainly comprised of muscle, connective tissue, fat and bone
muscle tissue is broken down by enzymes during aging process
connective tissues include = collagen, elastin, reticulin, and ground substance

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65
Q

what are extractives?

A

non-protein substances that help give meat its flavor; water-soluble

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66
Q

list dry heat cooking methods

A

broil, fry, roast, pan broil, grilling

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67
Q

why is frying considered a dry heat cooking method if it is being cooking in a liquid?

A

dry-heat cooking methods are those that utilize air or fat; fat is used in frying or deep frying

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68
Q

list moist heat cooking methods

A

stew, braise, poaching, steaming, simmering, en papillote

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69
Q

how does moist-heat cooking methods work?

A

uses water, liquid or steam to transfer heat to food

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70
Q

meat made from cuts that are inexpensive, made by cutting small particles, adding fat/and other ingredients and shaping into uniform portions

A

restructured meat

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71
Q

products made my pulverizing meats and adding fat and salts before heating and resulting mixture

A

comminuted meats

ex. hot dogs

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72
Q

list tender cuts of meat and the best method of cooking

A

rib cut, short loin cut, sirloin cut

rib cut = rib roast, rib steak, rib steak (boneless), rib eye (roast or steak)

short loin cut = top loin steak, t-bone steak, porterhouse steak, boneless top loin steak, tenderloin (filet mignon steak or roast - also from sirloin), new york strip steak

sirloin cut = pin bone sirloin, flat bone sirloin, wedge bone sirloin, boneless sirloin

*best method = dry heat; broil, panbroil, panfry, or roast (rib)

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73
Q

what % of fish is protein, its benefits and recommendation of consumption?

A

18-20%high quality protein, lower fat content (compared to meat), higher PUFA, and omega-3 fatty acids*recommendation = eat fish at least 2x/week

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74
Q

mollusks vs crustaceans

A 
mollusks = shellfish w/ a protective shell; scallops, oysters, clams
crustaceans = shellfish w/ a horny covering; shrimp, lobsters, crabs
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75
Q

what is the % of lean fish vs fatty fish? provide some examples

A

lean fish = < 5% fat fatty fish are > 5% fat, but not more than 10 g of fat
lean fish: bass, cod, flounder, haddock, halibut, pike, red snapper, sole, whiting
fatty fish: Butterfish, Herring, Lake Trout, Mackerel (Spanish, Atlantic), Ocean catfish, Salmon (king, Atlantic, sockeye, coho), Tuna, Whitefish

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76
Q

fish are usually _________. what % of collagen does fish have compared to average land animals?

A

tender fish have 3% collagen while an average land animal contains 15% collagen

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77
Q

the muscles of fish are not in long bundles but rather shorter and arranged in _________ layers of short fibers. they are also separated by thin sheets of connective tissue. what does this account for?

A

myotomes (segment or sheet of ms) flakiness of fish

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78
Q

describe fish muscles

A

gram for gram, fish have more muscle than any other vertebrate; a male salmon or tuna can be nearly 70% muscle, which is one reason why fish are so good to eat

each segment, or sheet, of muscles is called a myomere or myotome and is separated from its neighbor by a sheet of connective tissue

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79
Q

pigment of fish depends on?

A

whether the fish relied on quick or slow movements to survive

red or darker colored flesh fish had higher concentrations of “slow twitch fibers”

white flesh fish tend to have more “fast twitch fibers” = quick moving

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80
Q

list fish high in omega-3 fatty acids

A

more than 1 gram = Herring, Mackerel (Pacific, Jack, Spanish), Salmon (Atlantic, king, pink), Tuna (bluefin), Whitefish

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81
Q

defatted soy product about 70% protein and used to formulate vegetarian meat alternatives

A

soy protein concentrate

82
Q

defatted soy product up to 95% protein
used to make fibers and other process that can be made into substitute meat products (imitation bacon bits)
textured soy protein TSP or textured vegetable protein TVP

A

soy protein isolates

83
Q

coarsely ground soy flakes; can be ground to soy flour
protein content = 50%
used as an ingredient in some bakery products
must be used with wheat b/c it lacks gluten

A

soy grits

84
Q

when it forms a curd, a process similar to cheese, can produce a bland, slightly spongy product = tofu

A

soy milk

85
Q

cooked soybean product resembling cake popular in Asian cuisine

A

tempeh

86
Q

soybean fermented cooked product useful as a spread or in soup

A

natto

87
Q

paste made from fermenting a mold culture w/ soybeans, salt, and often rice to age for up to 3 years

A

miso

88
Q

describe GMOs

A

plants, animals or organisms that have had their genes altered through a genetic rDNA technology

89
Q

plant substances that are biologically active w/ functional benefits

A

phytonutrients

90
Q

non-digestible substances that may promote “good” bacteria in intestine

A
  • prebiotics
    sources: fruits (berries and bananas), veggies (garlic, artichokes, some greens, and onions), and grains (flax, legumes, rye, wheat, barley, and whole grains, like oatmeal).
91
Q

live bacteria that may promote balance of “good” bacteria in intestine

A
  • probiotics
    sources: yogurt w/ live cultures, buttermilk, kefir, cottage cheese, dairy spreads w/ added inulin, shoyu, tempeh, miso, breast milk
92
Q

what are phenols or phenolic compounds?

A

antioxidants
flavonoids (anthocyanins, anthoxanthins) = blue, blue-red and violet pigment plants
isoflavones

93
Q

(up-regulate enzymes involved in detoxification of carcinogens) cabbage family

A

thiols

94
Q

(anticancer and phytoestrogen properties) flax seed, wheat bran, oats, barley

A

*lignans

95
Q

what are some claims that food manufactures can use on labels to let consumers know of health benefits in foods (4)?

A

nutrient contain claims
structure/function claims
health claims
qualified health claims

*all 4 types of claims are allowed on functional food labels if the claim meets the defined criteria outlined for each category

96
Q

what are the 2 wheat flour proteins which are dough forming?

A

gliadins and glutenins

97
Q

what is the purpose of baking powder, baking soda, egg, air and steam in baking quick bread?

A

used as a leavening agent

98
Q

what is the purpose of fat in creating quick bread?

A

functions as a tenderizer, flavor and color enhancer, and cuts gluten strands

99
Q

sugars in bread making function as?

A

tenderizers, flavor enhancers and browning agents

100
Q

functions as a solvent for dry ingredients, hydration for gluten to develop, and a source of steam as leavening

A

fluids (usually some type of milk, buttermilk, or dry milk)

101
Q

what is the purpose of egg in baking bread?

A

contributes liquid, protein, structural integrity, reduces tenderness, enhances flavor and favors a fine texture

102
Q

what is the function of salt when making bread?

A

used to weaken gluten to prevent toughness

103
Q

list the types of flour and their gluten strength

A

*more protein = higher gluten strength = firmer bread

gluten flour = 41.0% protein
hard wheat = 11.8% protein (bread flour)
all-purpose = 10.5% protein
pastry flour = 9.7% protein
self-rising = 9.3% protein (1.5 tsp baking powder, 1/2 tsp salt per cup flour)
cake flour =7.5% protein

104
Q

name the different starches (3)

A
  1. wheat flour = amylose (not appropriate for cook chill system)
  2. cornstarch = amylopectin
  3. tapioca = amylopectin
105
Q

weeping or drainage of liquid from a gel; aka gelatinization or gel-forming

A

syneresis = the increase in volume, viscosity and translucency of starch granules when they are heated in liquid

106
Q

how can gel be weakened?

A

by stirring in an acid, sugar, fat, or protein

107
Q

what are the causes of syneresis or gelatinization?

A

over-stirring, too much sugar, or dehydration

108
Q

the breaking of some of the H+ bonds holding the gel together in a continuous network and the reformation of other H+ bonds by the amylose molecules w/in the gel. what is the result?

A

retrogradations resulting in pudding w/ a gritty texture; bread becomes stale

109
Q

how can retrogradation be prevented?

A

pudding - use heat or modified starch (cross-linked)

bread - heating the break to break the H+ bonds

110
Q

the breakdown of starch molecules to smaller, sweeter tasting dextrin molecules in the presence of dry heat

A

dextrinization

111
Q

describe the maillard reaction

A

non-enzyme involved browning

browning rxn involving a combination of an amino group from a protein and an aldehyde group from a reducing sugar = formation of many complex substances. ex: browning of evaporated milk, dried egg whites, browning of cakes and cookies, and bread crust

112
Q

what sugars are reducing sugars?

A

all sugars are reducing sugars EXCEPT for sucrose

113
Q

describe the baking process in detail

A

baking a flour mixture (doughs or batters) expands the gasses (steam, CO2, and air), which stretches the gluten network and causes the baked product to rise.

during this time, fat melts, starches gelatinize, proteins coagulate (from flour, egg, and milk proteins) and outer surfaces brown by caramelization of sugars, and other maillard rxn.

114
Q

what ultimately sets the structure of baked products?

A

heat

115
Q

what is the reason(s) foam cakes result in poor volume?

A

oil on pan or utensils
cake not inverted after baking
use cold egg whites
use of all-purpose flour instead of cake flour

116
Q

what would cause some errors in a successful chiffon cake?

A

egg whites not beaten enough (not enough air is created)

requires a firmer foam than sponge or angel food (add sugar/acid for firmer foam)

117
Q

why would shortened cakes have a fallen center?

A

too much sugar added
baked at a low temperature
oven door opened to soon

118
Q

what causes yellowing on a cake?

A

alkaline batter - too much baking soda added

119
Q

provide some reason(s) a cake would result in a dry crumb?

A

too much flour, egg, or over-mixing
too little fat or sugar
over-baking

120
Q

what causes a dark crust?

A

over-baking

too much sugar

121
Q

troubleshoot a gummy cake

A

reduce sugar added to batter (too much sugar = gummy cake)

122
Q

what is the cause of pastry toughness?

A

over-mixing

not cutting the fat into coarse particles (cubed butter distributed throughout flour mixture)

123
Q

what are some tests used to determine the degree of saturation of fats? describe them

A

winterization = chilling the oil to remove saturated fat to assure high percent of unsaturated oil ; used to ensure liquid consistency used in salad dressings

smoke point temperature = temperature at which a fat begins to smoke

  • the more saturated the fat, the lower the smoke point temperature
  • vegetable oils = higher smoke point
124
Q

what is the difference between a cis and trans configuration?

A

cis configuation = natural form of a fat

trans configuration = forms in hydrogenation (adding a hydrogen to a double bond to make an unsaturated fatty - MUFA/PUFA —–> saturated fatty acid); intended to extend shelf life and stabilize intended food flavor profiles

125
Q

describe different types of rancidity

A

enzymatic = lipase splits fat molecule to FFA = altered aroma and flavor

hydrolytic = same as enzymatic

oxidative = uptake of O2 and formation of peroxides, free radicals = off flavor and aroma

126
Q

list some antioxidants that can combat the effects of free radicals?

A

BHT, BHA, vitamin E, vitamin C, selenium

127
Q

a synthetic antioxidant that is used to prevent fats in foods from going rancid and as a defoaming agent for yeast

A

BHA

128
Q

stabilizes fats and is used to retain food smell, color and flavor

A

BHT

129
Q

food additives amendment for the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1983 amended in 1958 and is still effect as

A

the delaney clause

130
Q

the use of food additives is sanctioned by the

A

FDA

131
Q

FDA approves (sanctions) a food additive only if they meet all of the following

A
  • performs a useful function
  • does not deceive the customer by obscuring use of low-quality ingredients or poor manufacturing
  • does not reduce nutritive value
  • does not merely accomplish the same result that improved manufacturing techniques would
  • can be measured in the product by recognized method of analysis
132
Q

list the nutrients added to flour, breads, and cereals to enrich foods; also added to fruit juices, drinks and dehydrated potatoes

A

thiamine, riboflavin, niacin, Vitamin C, iron

133
Q

butylated hydroxyanisole (BHA), butylated hydroxtoluene (BHT), tertiary butylated hydroxyquinone (TBHQ), ascorbic acid (Vitamin C)

A

antioxidants

134
Q

BHA, BHT, TBHQ, Vitamin C are the antioxidants in are additives in what types of foods and for what purposes?

A

animal fats, such as lard, ready-to-eat cereals, crackers, and potato chips to retard rancidity

added to frozen peaches and apples to prevent browning

135
Q

what are propionates and benzoates used for?

A

antimicrobial agents

136
Q

what types of foods are priopionates and benzoates used in?

A

bread to retard molding & development of “rope”

carbonated drinks, fruit drinks and margarine

137
Q

name some coloring agents added to foods such as margarine, butter and cheese

A

beta-carotene, certified colors: citrus red no.2, red no.3, green no.3, & yellow no. 6, annato

138
Q

what are some additional foods/items that coloring agents are added to?

A

margarine, butter, cheese (beta-carotene)
limited use on skins of oranges (certified colors: citrus red no.2)
candles, cereals, soft drinks, and bakery goods (red no.3, green no.3, & yellow no. 6)
cheese (annato)

139
Q

name some flavoring agents and what foods are they added in?

A

benzaldehyde, vanilla, monosodium glutamate (MSG)

almond flavoring (benzaldehyde)
ice cream, baked goods, and candles (vanilla)
soups, chinese foods as a flavor enhancer (MSG)

140
Q

what is the main purpose of mono- & diglycerides and lecithin? what foods are they used in?

A

used as an emulsifier/stabilizer
margarine and shortenings (mono- & diglycerides)
bakery products, chocolate, and frozen desserts (lecithin)

141
Q

where is lecithin naturally found?

A

naturally occurring fatty substance found in several foods including soybeans, whole grains and egg yolks

142
Q

list stabilizers and thickeners

A

alginates, carrageenan (seaweed), pectin, modified starches

143
Q

what foods are stabilizers and thickeners found?

A

ice cream (alginates)
evaporated milk, sour cream, and cheese foods (carrageenan)
fruit jellies, confections, and sherbets (pectin)
pudding and pie fillings (modified starches)

144
Q

what are sequestrants? where are they found and provide an example?

A

a type of preservative used to improve the quality and stability of foods; can prevent the oxidation of the fats in the food

found in wine & cider

ethylenediamine tetraacetic acid (EDTA)

145
Q

gylcerine and sorbitol are what type of food additives? where are they found?

A

humectants

marshmallows, flaked coconut, cake icings

146
Q

what is the purpose of a humectant?

A

used primarily in foods to help retain moisture; they are able to absorb ambient water = collect water from humidity in air (hygroscopic)

147
Q

what are some anti-caking agents are where can they be found?

A

calcium silicate, magnesium carbonate

table salt, powered sugar, and baking powder

148
Q

name some bleaching and maturating agents. include the foods they are used in

A

chlorine = cake flour

chlorine dioxide/benzoyl peroxide (bleaches only) = all-purpose flour

149
Q 
what do the following items have in common? 
citric acid &amp; salts (soft drinks) 
acetic acid (processed cheese) 
sodium bicarbonate (baking powders) 
sodium hydroxide (dutch processed cocoa, pretzels - glazing)
A

they are food additives known as acids, alkalies, and buffers found

150
Q

what are some alternative sweeteners and where are they used?

A

aspartame & saccharin = lemonade/cocoa mixes, ready-to-eat cereals, coca cola
sucalose & stevia = carbonated drinks, baked goods, confections, frozen desserts, etc
acesulfame-K = dry beverage mixes & chewing gum

151
Q

sucrose polyester (as olestra), microparticulated protein (as simplesse), hydrocolloids such as gums & starch are examples of

A

fat replacers

152
Q

what is a bulking agent in baked goods, confections, puddings, and other foods?

A

polydextrose

153
Q

what fat has the greatest shortening power?

A

lard; shortening power is the ability to shorten gluten strands = causes flakiness in pastries

154
Q

describe solanine alkaloid production

A

green tissue formed under the skin of potatoes d/t storage in the sunlight or under florescent lighting = causes bitter taste and burning sensation

solanine poisoning is possible when consuming green potatoes

to prevent greening of potato skin, cover potatoes when storing or keep them in a brown paper bag

155
Q

what precipitates CASEIN?

A

an ACID

*precipitate = creation of a solid from a solution; ex. curd produced when milk is heated and an acid is added to separate solids (casein - curd) from liquid (whey)

156
Q

what precipitates WHEY?

A

HEAT

157
Q

describe the fat content of heavy whipping cream, light whipping cream, half & half, whole milk, and low-fat milk

A 
heavy whipping cream = 35% fat 
light whipping cream = 30% fat 
half &amp; half = 10% fat (whole milk + light cream)
whole milk = 3-5% fat 
low-fat milk = 2% fat (2% milk)
158
Q

describe the USDA

A

responsible for red meat, poultry and eggs

the US Dept of Commerce regulates grading standards of fish and fish products

FDA regulates all other meats

159
Q

name the function of glycerol monosterate

A

dough conditioner/emulsifier

160
Q

describe the difference btw elastin and collagen

A

elastin fibers stretch and are resistant to heat; yellow in appearance

collagen fibers DO NOT STRETCH and will soften and break down w/ heat; pearl white appearance

161
Q

name the common feature that PRO, FAT, CHO catabolism have in common

A

acetyl co-A produced during catabolism (breakdown) of all three macronutrients

162
Q

name the function of nitrites

A

antimicrobial action, kills Clostridium botulinum (botulism)

163
Q

name the minimum cooking temperature for meat and poultry

A

Meat = 160°F

Poultry = 165°F (175-180°F is preferred)

164
Q

describe the food chemical codex

A

guide for use and control of food additives

regulated by the FDA
an international directory of food additives
the US data base that lists more than 3000 additives called EAFUS (everything added to food in the US) under FDA

165
Q

describe the FDA

A

food & drug administration
responsible for regulating all foods (EXCEPT red meat, poultry, and eggs = USDA)

involved in nutrition labeling and accuracy of ingredients listed on food labels

166
Q

what are functional foods

A

foods defined as whole foods along w/ fortified, enriched, or enhanced foods that have a potentially beneficial effect on health when consumed as part of a varied diet on a regular basis at effective levels

167
Q

nutrient claims are regulated by

A

FDA

168
Q

define nutrient content claims of calories

A

Free = < 5 calories
Low = 40 calories or less
Reduced/Less = at least 25% few calories compared to original
Comments: “light’ or “lite” = reduced at lease 1/3 per

169
Q

define nutrient content claims of total fat

A

Free = < 0.5 g
Low = 3 g or less
Reduced/Less = at least 25% less
Comments: “___% fat free” = may be used. “light” reduced by 50%

170
Q

define nutrient content claims of saturated fat

A

Free = < 0.5 g
Low = 1 g or less
Reduced/Less = at least 25% less
Comments: next to all saturated fat claims, must declare the amount of cholesterol if 2 mg or more

171
Q

define nutrient claims of cholesterol

A

Free = < 2 mg
Low = 20 mg or less
Reduced/Less = at least 25% less
Comments: cholesterol claims only allowed when food contains 2 g or less saturated fat

172
Q

define nutrient claims of sodium

A

Free = < 5 mg
Low = 140 mg or less
Reduced/Less = at least 25% less
Comments: “light” is reduced by at least 50%

173
Q

define nutrient claims of sugars

A

Free = < 0.5 g sugars
Low = not defined
Reduced/Less = at least 25% less sugars
Comments: “no added sugars” and “without added sugars” are allowed if no sugar or sugar containing ingredient is added during processing

does not include sugar alcohols

174
Q

what group(s) is the most at-risk for foodborne illness?

A

very young, elderly, pregnant/lactating women, immunocompromised (cancer)

175
Q

common agents of contamination

A

bacteria, viruses, chemicals, and parasites

176
Q

what conditions do bacteria need to grow?

A

food (sugar), pH 4.6 or higher, temperature of 41 - 140°F, at least 4 hours, oxygen, and moisture

FAT TOM = food, acid, temperature, time, oxygen, moisture

177
Q

which bacteria can produce spores?

A

Bacillus cereus, Clostridium perfringens, Clostridium botulinum

178
Q

why are spore producing bacteria bad news?

A

although they cannot grow, reproduce, or produce toxins, they allow cells to survive in stressful environments

179
Q

what are some viruses associated w/ read-to-eat foods?

A

Norovirus, Hepatitis A, Rotavirus

180
Q

provide foodborne illness classifications and describe them

A

foodborne infection = eating food that contain a living disease, containing microorganisms

intoxication = a living organism multiplying in or on a food resulting in production of a toxin or chemical waste
ex. Clostridium botulinum and Staphylococcus aureus

toxin-mediated infection = a living organism is consumed w/ food producing a toxin in the body which causes an illness
ex. Clostridium perfringens

181
Q

describe Trichinosis poisoning

A

a PARASITE found in PORK and wild game; caused by eating foods raw or undercooked

onset: 1-2 days (maturation of worms)
duration: variable
signs/symptoms: abdominal discomfort, nausea, diarrhea, vomiting, fatigue, and fever

182
Q

*describe listeria poisoning

A

AEROBIC microorganism surviving in low temperatures; found in seafood, soft cheese, unpasteurized milk, hot dogs, luncheon meats, cold cuts
*grows btw 34-113°F (lower than other bacteria); on neutral or slightly alkaline pH; resists heat, freezing, drying; grows easily in refrigerator

onset: 9-48H (intestinal symptoms); 2-6 weeks (invasive disease)
duration: 3-70 days
signs/symptoms: fever, muscle aches, nausea, diarrhea.
*pregnant women may have mild flu-like symptoms and infection = premature delivery or stillbirth (high fatality rate); may harm fetus; cause encephalitis, meningitis

183
Q

ANAEROBIC bacteria found in improperly cooked or reheated foods, cooled slowly and reheated foods, meat, soups, gravies, stews, casseroles, and poultry
Known as the “lunchroom bacteria”.

onset: 8-16H
duration: usually 24H
signs/symptoms: n/v, intense abdominal cramps, watery diarrhea

A

clostridium perfringens poisoning

184
Q

ANAEROBIC microorganism, resistant to heat, found in low acid canned foods such as vegetables and soup, meat, fish, soil grown veggies (potatoes)

onset: 12-72H
duration: variable
signs/symptoms: vomiting, diarrhea, blurred vision, double vision, difficulty swallowing, muscle weakness.

A

clostridium botulinum poisoning

185
Q

describe salmonella poisoning

A

AEROBIC bacteria found in poultry, eggs, meat, cross-contaminated raw f/v and pasta.

onset: 6-48H
duration 4-7 days
signs/symptoms: diarrhea, FEVER, abdominal cramps, vomiting

186
Q

which foodborne illness is the most common in the United States?

A

salmonella poisoning

187
Q

AEROBIC bacteria, resistant to heat; produced when food is left out too long at room temperature, unrefrigerated or improperly refrigerated
sources: high proteins, cream pies, custards, gravies, meat pies

onset: 1-7H
duration: 24-48H
signs/symptoms: sudden onset of severe n/v/d, cramps, NO FEVER

A

staphylococcus aureus poisoning
*remember: short staph; short incubation time

may be contracted by a cut finger

188
Q

describe E.coli poisoning

A

AEROBIC bacteria, found in undercooked, contaminated meat d/t fecal contamination, poor hygiene, improper handwashing, water contaminated w/ human feces

onset: 1-8 days depending on severity
duration: 3-10 days
signs/symptoms: watery diarrhea, cramps (12-72H), vomiting, severe bloody diarrhea; can lead to kidney failure

*can survive freezing, high acidity; can grow in refrigerator temperatures

189
Q

forms spores; found in soil, dust, cereal crops
source: rice products (fried rice), starchy foods, puddings, pastries, meats, milk, veggies, fish (diarrheal)

onset: 30 min - 6 hours (emetic); 6-15 H (diarrheal)
duration: 24 hours
sign/symptoms: emetic (n/v); diarrheal (watery diarrhea, cramps)

A

bacillus cereus

190
Q

describe campylobacter jejuni poisoning

A

one of the more common causes of gastroenteritis
found in days, not hours

onset: 3-5 days
duration 2-10 days
signs/symptoms: raw, undercooked meat or poultry, raw milk, raw veggies

191
Q

found in raw or undercooked seafood (shellfish, oysters); causes FEVER, d/v, cramps

onset: 4-96 H

A

vibrio parahaemolyticus, vibrio vulnificus

192
Q

found in feces and transmitted by flies
sources: cold mixed salads (chicken, tuna, potato), raw veggies, watermelon

onset: 12-50 H
signs/symptoms: bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain

A

shigella poisoning

193
Q

which foodborne microorganisms are anaerobic?

A

clostridium perfringens and clostridium botulinum

194
Q

which foodborne bacteria are aerobic?

A

staphylococcus aureus, E. coli, listeria, salmonella

195
Q

list some label regulations?

A

low cholesterol = < 20 mg of cholesterol/serving
low calories = no more than 40 calories/serving
low fat = 3 grams or less per serving
very low sodium = no more than 35 mg/serving
low sodium = no more than 140 mg/serving
low saturated fat = 1 gram or less per serving

196
Q

Based on the following information, answer these questions:

1) would this qualify as low sodium? low calorie? low fat?
2) how many carbohydrate exchanges are provided

Nutrition Facts 
Serving size: 1 box (40 g) 
Calories 140; Calories from fat 20
Total fat 2 g
Saturated fat 0 g
Trans fat 0 g
Cholesterol 0 mg 
Sodium 100 mg 
Total CHO 31 g
Fiber 5 g 
Sugars 7 g
Protein 5 g
A

low sodium = yes! it is no more than 140 mg (100 mg)
low calorie = no! it is > 40 calories/serving (140 calories)
low fat = yes! it is no more than 3 g (2 g)

CHO exchanges = 2 exchanges (31 g/15 per exchange)

197
Q

what is the difference between GLUCAGON and GLYCOGEN?

A

GLUCAGON is a hormone made by the pancreas in response to low blood sugar levels; the purpose of glucagon is to stimulate liver cells to break down glycogen and release glucose into the bloodstream to maintain steady blood glucose levels.

GLYCOGEN is the storage form of glucose (stored in the liver)

198
Q

what are the differences between diffusion, facilitated diffusion and osmosis?

A

Diffusion is a means of passage for small nutrients flowing from the outside of the cell to the inside, or vise-versa. NO CARRIER or energy source are REQUIRED for this process.

Facilitated diffusion REQUIRES A CARRIER for nutrients to pass, and active transport needs a carrier and also energy to move larger nutrients across the membrane.

Osmosis is the movement of water (type of diffusion) thru a semi-permeable membrane like a cell membrane

  • a type of passive transport that DOES NOT REQUIRE ENERGY
  • water will move towards a higher solute concentration
199
Q

what is simple diffusion/passive transport vs active transport?

A

Simple diffusion allows small molecules such as water and small lipids to pass WITHOUT THE USE OF A CARRIER or ENERGY.

For molecules such as fructose, facilitated diffusion is utilized (use of a carrier without the need for energy); fructose is slightly too big to move through simple diffusion

Active transport is the method of moving more complex objects, like amino acids, and REQUIRES A CARRIER plus ENERGY to move the nutrient.

200
Q

which of the following best describes a type 1 error in statistics?

A

you say there was a difference when there is none

in statistics, a type 1 error occurs when you say there was a difference when really there is none. In other words, you reject the null hypothesis when it is actually true. A type 1 error is a false positive. If the probability is set at p<0.05, we are willing to be wrong 5 times out of 100 in rejecting the null hypothesis. If we are wrong, we have a type 1 error

201
Q

“subjects weight (kg) = 81.9 +/- 11.3”. what does this mean?

A

all the subjects’ weights fell into the range of 70.6 to 93.2 kg

researchers often give a range that all the data falls between. in research articles you read, or research you do on your own, you may see something like this:
“Subjects’ weight (kg) = 81.9 +/- 11.3”

all this simply means is a range of the research participants’ body weights in kilograms.

  • The 81.9 is the midpoint of the range of their weights
  • The “+/- 11.3” means you will add and subtract from this midpoint 11.3 kg to find the full range of 70.6 kg to 93.2 kg

In this case, all the subjects weighed between 70.6 and 93.2 kg.

202
Q

Out of the following choices, who needs the most protein per day?

A

160 pound (73 kg) patient with two stage 2 pressure injuries

With the exception of the renal patient, all other individuals requires a high amount of protein each day.

Nondialysis patients require only about 0.5-0.8 grams of protein per kg of bodyweight per day.

Dialysis patients need about 1-2 g/kg/d. This nondialysis patient’s daily protein needs are about 42-67 grams of protein per day.

RD Study Guide 2017 (5 decks)

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