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ISBB Flashcards

1
Q

Which cells are capable of further differentiation?
A. Lymphocytes
B. Monocytes
C. Neutrophils
D. Dendritic cells

A

B. Monocytes

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2
Q

What is the most significant agent formed in the phagolysosome for the killing of microorganisms?
a. Proteolytic enzymes
b. Hydroxyl radicals
c. Hydrogen peroxide
d. Superoxide

A

c. Hydrogen peroxide

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3
Q

Which cell is the most potent phagocytic cell in the tissue?
a. Neutrophil
b. Dendritic cell
c. Eosinophil
d. Basophil

A

b. Dendritic cell

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4
Q

Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ?
a. Lymph node
b. Spleen
c. Thymus
d. MALT

A

c. Thymus

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5
Q

Which of the following is found on the T cell subset known as helpers?
a. CD19
b. CD4
c. CD8
d. CD56

A

b. CD4 - T-helper MHC II

CD19 - B cells
CD8 - T - cytotoxic MHC I
CD56

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6
Q

HLA-A, HLA-B, HA-C belong to which MHC class?
a Class I
b. Class I|
c. Class III
d. Class IV

A

a Class I

CD8- T cytotoxic

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7
Q

HLA-DR, HLA-DQ, HLA-DP belong to which MHC class?
a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. Class IV

A

b. Class II

CD4 T helper cell

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8
Q

T lymphocyte are incapable of functioning as:
a. Cytotoxic cells
b. Helper cells
c.Phagocytic cells
d. Regulatory cells

A

c.Phagocytic cells

Cytotoxic- CD8
Helper- CD4
Regulatory cells- CD25

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9
Q

Antigen receptors on T lymphocyte bind HLA class Il molecules with the help of which accessory molecule?
a. CD2
b. CD3
c. CD4
d. CD8

A

c. CD4

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10
Q

From the following, identify a specific component of the adaptive immune system that is formed in response to antigenic stimulation:
a. Lysozyme
b. Complement
c. Commensal organism
d. Immunoglobulin or antibodies

A

d. Immunoglobulin or antibodies

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11
Q

Which immunoglobulin appears first in the primary immune response?
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgE

A

b. IgM

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12
Q

Not true about IgM
a. Highest in anamnestic response
b. Has five subunits
c. Predominant in primary immune response
d. Immediate response

A

a. Highest in anamnestic response -IgG

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13
Q

The key structural difference that distinguishe immunoglobulin subclasses:
a. Stereometry of the hypervariable region
b. Number of domains
c. Sequence of the constant regions
d. Covalent linkage of the light chains

A

c. Sequence of the constant regions

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14
Q

Which antibody best protects mucosal surfaces?
a. IgA
b. IgG

A

a. IgA

IgA1- monomer in serum
IgA2- dimer in secretion

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15
Q

The subclasses of IgG differ mainly in:
a. The type of L chain
b. The arrangement of disulfide bonds
c. The ability to act as opsonin
d. Molecular weight

A

b. The arrangement of disulfide bonds

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16
Q

Immunoglobulin that is the most efficient at crossing the placenta:
a IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD

A

a IgG

IgG1>3>4

IgG2 cant cross

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17
Q

Antibody idiotype is dictated by the:
a. Constant region of heavy chain
b. Constant region of light chain
c. Constant region of heavy and light chains
d. Variable regions of heavy and light chains

A

d. Variable regions of heavy and light chains

Vovo idiot

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18
Q

Antibody allotype is dictated by the:
a. Constant region of heavy chain
b. Constant region of light chain
c. Constant region of heavy and light chains
d. Variable regions of heavy and light chains

A

c. Constant region of heavy and light chains

Allotype

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19
Q

Unique amino acid sequence that is common to all immunoglobulin molecules of a given class in a given species:
a. Isotype
b. Allotype
c. Idiotype
d. None of the above

A

a. Isotype

Common to all

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20
Q

All antigen-antibody binding are:
a,Reversible
b. Irreversible
c. Reversible or irreversible
d. None of the above

A

a,Reversible

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21
Q

All of the following are immunologic functions of complement, except:
a.Induction of an antiviral state
b. Opsonization
c. Chemotaxis
d. Anaphylatoxin formation

A

a. Induction of an antiviral state
-Interferons

Opsonization - C3b, C4b
Chemotaxis - C5a
Anaphylatoxin formation - C3a, C5a

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22
Q

After the attachment of organism into the phagocyte, the pseudopodia surrounds the pathogen, after which the pseudopodia fuse to completely enclose the pathogen, forming a structure known as?
a. Lysosome
b. Phagolysosome
c. Phagosome
d. None of the above

A

C. Phagosome

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23
Q

Which of the following cytokine is also known as the T-cell growth factor?
a. IFN-gamma
b. IL-12
c. IL- 2
D. IL-10

A

c. IL- 2
T-cell growth factor

IL-1 acute phase response+fever
IL3-multi lineage

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24
Q

Which would be the best assay to measure a specific cytokine?
a. Blast formation
b. T-cell proliferation
c. Measurement of leukocyte chemotaxis
d. ELISA testing

A

d. ELISA testing

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25
Q
  1. The classical complement pathway is activated by:
    a. Most viruses
    B. most Antigen-antibody complexes
    c. Fungal cell walls
    d. Mannose in bacterial cell walls
A

B. most Antigen-antibody complexes- IgM> IgG

Lectin pathway
-Mannose in bacterial cell walls
Alternative pathway
- Microbes

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26
Q

Which would be most effective in measuring an individual complement component?
a. CH50 assay
b. Radial immunodiffusion
c. AH50 assay
d. Lytic assay with liposome

A

b. Radial immunodiffusion

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27
Q

Which best characterizes the secondary response?
a. Equal amounts of IgM and IgG are produced
b. There is an increase in IgM only
c. There is a large increase in IgG but not IgM
d. The lag phase is the same as in the primary response.

A

c. There is a large increase in IgG but not IgM

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28
Q

When soluble antigens diffuse in a gel that contains antibody, in which zone does OPTIMUM precipitation occur?
a Prozone
b. Zone of equivalence
c. Postzone
d. Prezone

A

Zone of equivalence

Prozone - antibody excess
Postzone - antigen excess

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29
Q

Which technique represents a single-diffusion reaction?
a. Radial immunodiffusion
b. Ouchterlony diffusion
c. Immunoelectrophoresis
d. immunofixation electrophoresis

A

a. Radial immunodiffusion

Ouchterlony diffusion- double diffusion

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30
Q

How much diluent needs to be added to 0.2 mL of serum to make a 1:20 dilution?
a. 19.8 mL
b. 4.0 mL
c. 3.8 mL
d. 10.0 mL

A

c. 3.8 mL

Total volume: 4.0 mL

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31
Q

Testing ANA have been helpful in:
a. SLE detection
b. RA detection
c. Leukemia detection
d. Hemolytic anemia detection

A

a. SLE detection

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32
Q

Which of the following would be considered an organ-specific autoimmune disease?
a. SLE
b. RA
c. GPA
d. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

A

d. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

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33
Q

Which of the following would support a diagnosis of drug-induced lupus?
A. Anthistone antibodies
B. Antibodies to Smith antigen
C. Presence of RF
D. Antibodies to SS-A and SS-B antigens

A

A. Anthistone antibodies

Antibodies to Smith antigen
-SLE
Presence of RF
-RA
most specific is Anti- CCP

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34
Q

A peripheral pattern of staining of the nucleus on
IIF is caused by which of the following antibodies?
a. Anti-Sm antibody
b. Anti-SSA/Ro antibody
c. Centromere antibody
d. Anti-dsDNA

A

d. Anti-dsDNA - peripheral pattern

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35
Q

Anti-CCP (cyclic citrullinated proteins) is specifically
associated with which autoimmune
disease?
a. RA
b. MG
c. Autoimmune hepatitis
d. Goodpasture’s syndrome

A

a. RA

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36
Q

Anti-glomerular basement antibody is most often associated with this condition:
a. Goodpasture disease
b. SLE
c. Celiac disease
d. Chronic active hepatitis

A

a. Goodpasture disease

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37
Q

To determine if a patient is allergic to rye grass, the best to perform is the:
a. Total IgE
b. Skin prick test
c. DAT
d. Complement fixation

A

b. Skin prick test

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38
Q

Suppose a 30-year-old man was found to be a suitable donor for a kidney transplant to his younger sister. This transplant would be an example of a (an):
a. Autograft
b. Allograft
c. Isograft
d. Xenograft

A

b. Allograft

Autograft - myself
Isograft - Identical twin
Xenograft - different species

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39
Q

Which of the following is being described?
*One of the several types of cell surface molecules that regulate the activity of NK lymphocytes
*These alloreactive NK cells have been shown to mediate
GRAFT-VERSUS-LEUKEMIA (GVL)
reaction.
a. КО
b. MICA
c. KIRS
d. HLA

A

c. KIRS
Killer immonuglobulin-like reveptors

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40
Q

What clinical manifestation would be seen in a patient with myeloperoxidase deficiency?
a. Defective T-cell function
nentophils
b. Inability to produce IgG
c. Defective NK function
d. Defective neutrophil function

A

d. Defective neutrophil function

41
Q

Tumor markers found in the circulation are most frequently measure by:
a. Immunoassays
Б. TLC
c. HPLC
d. Colorimetry

A

a. Immunoassays

42
Q

What is the best specimen for detection of latent syphilis?
a. Blood
b. Serum
C.CSF
d. Bone marrow

A

C.CSF

43
Q

Which test is recommended for testing CSF for detection of neurosyphilis?
a. RPR
b. VDRL
c. FTA-ABS
d. Enzyme immunoassay

A

b. VDRL

44
Q

Which serum antibody response usually characterizes the primary (early) stage of syphilis?
a. Antibodies against syphilis are undetectable
b. Detected 1-3 weeks after appearance of the primary chancre
c. Detected in 50% of cases before the primary chancre disappears
d. Detected within 2 weeks after infection

A

b. Detected 1-3 weeks after appearance of the primary chancre

45
Q

Which CD4:CD8 ratio is most likely in a patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)?
a. 2:1
b. 3:1
c. 2:3
d. 1:2

A

d. 1:2

46
Q

Which tests are considered screening tests for HIV?
a.ELISA, 4th generation, and rapid antibody tests
b. Immunofluorescence, Western blot, radioimmuno-precipitation assay
c. Culture, antigen capture assay, DNA amplification
d. Reverse transcriptase and messenger RNA (mRNA) assay

A

a.ELISA, 4th generation, and rapid antibody tests

47
Q

Which is most likely a positive Western blot result for infection with HIV?
a. Band at p24
b. Band at gp60
c. Bands at p24 and p31
d. Bands at p24 and gp120

A

d. Bands at p24 and gp120

48
Q

Interpret the following results for HIV infection:
ELISA
POSITIVE
Repeat ELISA
NEGATIVE
Western blot
NO BANDS
a. Positive for HIV
b. Negative for HIV
c. Indeterminate
d. Further testing needed

A

b. Negative for HIV

49
Q

The method of choice for detecting VZV infection in immunocompromised hosts is:
Shingles
a. Serology to detect virus-specific IgM antibodies
b. Serology to detect virus-specific IgG antibodies
c. Viral culture
d. Real-time PCR

A

d. Real-time PCR

50
Q

Which tests are considered confirmatory tests for
HIV?
a. ELISA and rapid antibody tests
b. Western blot test, HIC-1,2 differentiation assays, and polymerase chain reaction
c. Culture, antigen capture assay, polymerase chain reaction
d. Reverse transcriptase and mRNA assay

A

b. Western blot test, HIC-1,2 differentiation assays, and polymerase chain reaction

51
Q

The serum of an individual who received all doses of the hepatitis B vaccine should contain:
a. anti-HBs
b. anti-HBe
c. anti-Bc
d. All of the above

A

a. anti-HBs

52
Q

An individual with hepatomegaly, jaundice, and elevated liver enzymes has the following laboratory results: IgM anti-HAV negative, HBsAg (positive), IgM anti-HBc (positive), and anti-HCV (negative). These findings support a diagnosis of:
a. Hepatitis A
b. Acute hepatitis B
c. Chronic hepatitis B
d. Hepatitis C

A

b. Acute hepatitis B

53
Q

Interpretation of Hepatitis B panel:
HBsAg negative
Anti-HBc positive
Anti-HBs positive
a. Acutely infected
b.Immune because of natural infection
c. Immune because of hepatitis
B vaccination
d. Might be susceptible to a false-positive anti-HBc

A

b.Immune because of natural infection

54
Q

In the streptozyme test, the RBCs of what organism are coated with streptolysin, streptokinase, hyaluronidase, DNase, and NADase?
a. Horse
b. Human
c. Sheep
d. Rabbit

A

C. Sheep

55
Q

In the RPR procedure, place the card on the rotator and rotate the card for:
a. 100 RPM, 8 minutes
b. 200 RPM, 8 minutes
c. 100 RPM, 4 minutes
d. 200 RPM, 4 minutes

A

a. 100 RPM, 8 minutes

56
Q

Current recommendation include the combined detection of mannan and anti-mannan antibodies for the specific identification of?
a. Aspergillus species
b. Candida species
c. Cryptococcus species
d. None of the above

A

b. Candida species

57
Q

The detection of galactomannan in serum by EIA has increased the ability to diagnose invasive:
a. Aspergillus species
b. Candida species
c. Cryptococcus species
d. None of the above

A

a. Aspergillus species

58
Q

In congenital toxoplasmosis, which class of antibodies is the most sensitive in detecting infection?
a. lgA
b. IgG
c. IgM
d. IgE

A

a. lgA

59
Q

Most the pathology associated with parasitic infections results form which of the following?
a. Symbiotic relationships with the host
b. Elaborate parasitic life cycles
c. Immune response to the offending organism
d. Innate defense mechanisms of the host

A

c. Immune response to the offending organism

60
Q

The chronic nature of parasitic infections is due to the host’s:
a.Inability to eliminate the infective agent
b. Type I hypersensitivity response to the infection
c. Ability to form granuloma around the parasite
d. Tendency to form circulating immune complexes.

A

a.Inability to eliminate the infective agent

61
Q

Which of the following techniques uses restriction enzymes, electrophoresis, and then transfer of DNA fragments onto a solid matrix, followed by probing with labeled probes?

a. Dot-blot
b.Southern blot
c. Westem blot

d. LCR

A

B. Southern blot- Dna

Northern blot- Rna
Western blot - Protein

62
Q

The most serious HRs are due to which incompatibility:
a. ABO
b. Rh
c. MN
d. Duffy

A

a. ABO

63
Q

What corrective action should be taken when rouleaux causes positive test results?
a. Perform a saline replacement technique
b.Perform an autoabsorption
c. Run a panel
d. Perform an elution

A

a. Perform a saline replacement technique

64
Q

A major crossmatch and screening cells are 2+ at IS, 1+ at 37°C, and negative at the IAT phase.
Identify the most likely problem.
a. Combination of antibodies
b. Cold alloantibody
c. Rouleaux
d. Test error

A

b. Cold alloantibody
- Positive for immediate spin (IS)

65
Q
  1. An antibody screen is reactive at IAT phase of testing using a three-cell screen and the autocontrol is negative. What is a possible explanation for these
    results?
    a. A cold alloantibody
    b High-frequency alloantibody or a mixture of alloantibodies
    c. A warm autoantibody
    d. A cold and warm alloantibody
A

b High-frequency alloantibody or a mixture of alloantibodies

66
Q

All of the following are routinely performed on a cord blood sample except:
a. Forward ABO typing
b. Antibody screen
c. Rh typing
d. DAT

A

b. Antibody screen

67
Q

What ABO types may donate to any other ABO type?
a. A negative, B negative, AB negative, O negative
b. O negative
c. A negative, B negative
d. AB negative, A negative, B negative

A

b. O negative

68
Q

What should be done when a woman who is 24 weeks pregnant has a positive antibody screen?
a. Perform an antibody identification panel; titer if necessary
b. No need to do anything until 30 weeks gestation
c. Administer Rh immune globulin (Rhig)
d. Adsorb the antibody onto antigen-positive cells

A

a. Perform an antibody identification panel; titer if necessary

69
Q

The k (Cellano) antigen is ahigh-frequency antigen and is found on most RBCs. How often would one expect to find the corresponding antibody?
a. Often
b. Rarely
c. Depends on the population
d. Impossible to determine

A

b. Rarely

70
Q

What is the most common parasitic complication of transfusion?
a. Babesia microti
b. Trypanosoma cruzi
c. Plasmodium species
d. Toxoplasma gondii

A

c. Plasmodium species

71
Q
  1. Blood serum of anti-A and anti-B is prepared from?
    a. AB- no atiboby
    b. O - Both anti A & B present
    c. AB
    d.B
A

b. O

72
Q

Mother with cancer gets blood from her daughter. What type of transfusion?
A. Direct
B. Apheresis
C. Plasmapheresis
D. Replacement

A

A. Direct

73
Q

Which of the following characteristically gives a refractile mixed-field appearance?
A. Anti-K
B. Anti-Di a
C. Anti- Sd a
D. Anti-s

A

C. Anti- Sd a

74
Q

Which of the following antigens has served useful tool in anthropologic studies of Mongolian ancestsry?
A. Di a
B. Lea
C. Xg
D. Do a

A

A. Di a

75
Q

The prevalence of this antigen in northern europeans is 1% but is higher in the Mennonite population
A. Sc1
B. Sc2
C. Xg

A

B. Sc2

76
Q

A donor bag is half filled during donation when the blood flow stops. Select the correct course of action.
a. Closely observe the bag for at least 3 minutes; if blood flow does not resume, withdraw the needle
b. Remove the needle immediately and discontinue the donation
C. Check and reposition the needle if necessary; if blood flow does not resume, withdraw the needle
d. Withdraw the needle and perform a second venipuncture in the other arm

A

C. Check and reposition the needle if necessary; if blood flow does not resume, withdraw the needle

77
Q

AHG control cells
A. Positive control for anti-C3 reagents
B. Only for IAT
C. Coated only with IgG antibody
D. Must be used to confirm all positive antiglobulin reaction

A

C. Coated only with IgG antibody

78
Q

An ElA screening test for HTLV I/II was performed on a whole-blood donor. The results of the ElA were repeatedly reactive but the confirmatory test was negative. On the next donation, the screening test was negative by two different ElA tests. The donor should be:
a. Accepted
b. Deferred
c. Told that only plasma can be made from his donation
d. Told to come back in 6 months

A

A. Accepted

79
Q

Cryoprecipitate
may be used to treat all of the
following, except:
a. von Willebrand’s disease
b. Hypofibrinogenemia
c. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
d. Factor XIll deficiency

A

c. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)

80
Q

A 10% red cell suspension in saline is used in a compatibility test. Which of the following would most likely occur?
a. False-positive due to antigen excess
b. False-positive due to prozone
c. False-negative due to prozone d. False-negative due to antigen excess

A

d. False-negative due to antigen excess

81
Q

What is the component of choice for a patient with chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)?
a. FFP
b. Granulocytes
c. Cryoprecipitate
d. RBCs

A

b. Granulocytes

82
Q

What does a minor crossmatch consist of?
a. Recipient plasma and recipient RBCs
b. Recipient plasma and donor RBCs
c. Recipient RBCs and donor plasma
d. Donor plasma and donor RBCs

A

c. Recipient RBCs and donor plasma

83
Q

SITUATION: A
cancer patient recently
developed
a severe infection. The patient’s
hemoglobin is 8 g/dL owing to chemotherapy with a drug known to cause bone marrow depression and immunodeficiency. Which blood products are indicated for this patient?
a. Liquid plasma and cryoprecipitate
b. Crossmatched platelets and washed RBCs
c. Factor IX concentrates and FFP
d. Irradiated RBCs, platelets, and granulocytes

A

d. Irradiated RBCs, platelets, and granulocytes

84
Q

You CANNOT take aspirin for
before you
donate platelets, because aspirin reduces the potency and performance of your platelets.
a. 24 hours
b. 48 hours
c. 14 days
d. 21 days

A

b. 48 hours

85
Q

Cryoprecipitate must be transfused within what period of time following thawing and pooling?
a. 4 hours
b. 8 hours
c. 12 hours
d. 24 hours

A

a. 4 hours

Pool

86
Q

Which drug can cause PERMANENT DEFERRAL?
a. Soriatane
b. Avodart
с. Propecia
d. Tegison

A

d. Tegison

87
Q

Which of the following is not a requirement for the electronic crossmatch?
a. The computer system contains logic to prevent assignment and release of ABO incompatible blood
b. There are concordant results of at least two determinations of the recipient’s ABO type on record, one of which is from the current sample
c. Critical elements of the system have been validated on site

d. There are concordant results of at least one determination of the recipient’s ABO type on file

A

d. There are concordant results of at least one determination of the recipient’s ABO type on file

88
Q

Reagent used to detect Rh antibodies except:
a. IgM anti-D
b. Anti-D
c. IgE anti-D
d. IgG anti-D

A

c. IgE anti-D

89
Q

If a patient has a positive direct antiglobulin test, should you perform a weak D test on the cells?
a. No, the cells are already coated with antibody
b. No, the cells are Rhnull
c. Yes, the immunoglobulin will not interfere with the test
d. Yes, Rh reagents are enhanced in protein media

A

a. No, the cells are already coated with antibody

90
Q

All of the following are reasons for performing an adsorption, except:
a. Separation of mixtures of antibodies
b. Removal of interfering substances
c. Confirmation of weak antigens on RBCs
d.Identification of antibodies causing a positive DAT

A

d.Identification of antibodies causing a positive DAT

Elution

91
Q

Which blood group has the least amount of H- antigen?
A. A1B
В. Аг
С. В
D. A1

A

A. A1B

92
Q

What can be done if HDFN is caused by maternal anti-K?
a. Give Kell immune globulin
b. Monitor the mother’s antibody level
c. Prevent formation of K-positive cells in the fetus
d. Not a problem; anti-K not known to cause HDFN.

A

b. Monitor the mother’s antibody level

93
Q

ISBT number 30:
a. John Milton Hagen
b. Globoside
c. Gill
d. Rh-associated glycoprotein (RhAG)

A

d. Rh-associated glycoprotein (RhAG)

94
Q

How is an individual with genotype Dce/dce, classified?
a. Rh positive
b. Rh negative
c. Rhnull
d. Total Rh

A

a. Rh positive

Capital D

95
Q

Which situation is not a cause of indefinite deferral of a donor?
a. History of Creutzfeld-Jacob disease
b. Male currently on dutasteride
c. Donor tested reactive for HBV by nucleic acid testing (NAT)
d. Accidental needlestick 1 year ago; negative for infectious disease.

A

d. Accidental needlestick 1 year ago; negative for infectious disease.

96
Q

Which vaccination does not need a deferral?
A. HPV
B. Varicella
C. Measeles
D. Small pox

A

A. HPV

97
Q

Deferral for MMR
A. 4weeks
B. 2weeks
C. 8weeks
D. 16weeks

A

C. 8 weeks

98
Q

CPDA-1 prolongs shelf life by
A. 21 days
B. 35 days
C. 42 days
D. 2 days

A

B. 35 days

99
Q

Who is the best candidate for a predeposit autologous donation? a. A 45-year-old man who is having elective surgery in 2 weeks; he has alloanti-k
b. A 23-year-old female leukemia patient with a hemoglobin of 10 g/dL
c. A 12-year-old boy who has hemophilia
d. A 53-year-old woman who has septicemia

A

a. A 45-year-old man who is having elective surgery in 2 weeks; he has alloanti-k

59 (6 decks)

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