Histo&MTLAWS Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is national reference laboratory for parasitology?
a. NKTI
b. LCP
c. RITM
d. EAMC

A

c. RITM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

National reference laboratories evaluate diagnostic kits and reagents for REGISTRATION with

a. DOH
b. FDA
c. PDEA
d. EAMC

A

b. FDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Qualifications of examiners (BOMT), except:
a. Filipino citizen
b. Good moral character
c. Qualified pathologist if for chairman
d. Qualified physician if for member

A

d. Qualified physician if for member

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

All of the following are major subjects in the medical technology board examination, except:
a. Clinical chemistry
b. Hematology
c. Clinical microscopy
d. Blood Banking and Serology

A

c. Clinical microscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Function of the Board to investigate violations of
RA 5527:
a. Administrative
b. Quasi-legislative
c. Quasi-judicial
d. None of these

A

c. Quasi-judicial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Attending seminar about total automation process is an example of:
a. Lifelong learning
b. Self-directed learning
c. Lifelong and self-directed learning
d. None of these

A

b. Self-directed learning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Generally, a maximum of ____ credit unit per hour of activity may be given
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four

A

a. One

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A tertiary clinical laboratory must have a minimum area of:
a. 20 sq. m.
b. 30 sq. m.
c. 60 sq. m.
d. 80 sq. m.

A

c. 60 sq. m.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

National Blood Services Act of 1994:
a RA 7719
b. RA 1517
c. RA 9288
d. RA 9165

A

a RA 7719

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

All of the following are performed in a blood collection unit, except:
a. Recruitment of voluntary blood donors
b. Selection of voluntary blood donors
c. Screening of voluntary blood donors
d.Direct Coombs Test

A

d.Direct Coombs Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In the Rapid HIV Diagnostic Algorithm (rHIVda), if the T1 result is reactive, then:
a. The specimen is reported as positive
b. The specimen is tested using rHIVda test 2
c. The specimen is tested using rH|Vda test 1
d. The specimen is reported as inconclusive

A

b. The specimen is tested using rHIVda test 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

All of the following can give consent for HIV testing, except:
a. 16-year-old student
b. Parent of a minor child
c. 13-year-old who is sexually active
d. Medical technologist on duty

A

d. Medical technologist on duty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Who can perform HIV test?
a. Medical technologist with HIV proficiency
b. Medical laboratory technicians and medical technologist with HIV proficiency
c. Nurses with HIV proficiency
d. Nurses and medical technologist with HIV proficiency

A

a. Medical technologist with HIV proficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

All of the following are allowed as an analyst in microbiology water testing laboratory, except:
a. Registered medical technologist
b. Certified microbiologist
c. Registered pharmacist
d. Registered food technologist

A

c. Registered pharmacist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

All of the following are mandatory parameters for water testing, except:
a. Lead
b. Potassium
c. Thermotolerant coliform
d. Arsenic

A

b. Potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

DOH secretary:
a. Maria Rosario Vergeire
b. Francisco Duque III
c. Teodoro Herbosa
d. Luella A. Vertucio

A

c. Teodoro Herbosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

PRC is attached to the:
a. Office of the president of the Philippines
b. Department of Labor and Employment (DOLE)
c. Commission on Higher Education (CHED)
d. Department of Education (DepEd)

A

b. Department of Labor and Employment (DOLE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

LTO of clinical laboratories validity:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 4 years

A

a. 1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

It is the set of surveillance procedures covering the entire blood transfusion chain, from the donation and processing of blood and its components, through to their provision and transfusion to patients, and including their follow-up:
a. Hemovigilance
b. Chain of transfusion
c. Hemosurveillance
d. None of the above

A

a. Hemovigilance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Generally defined as a collection of human biological
samples and associated information
organized in a systematic way for research purposes:
a. Biobank
b. Sperm bank
c. Cryobank
d. None of the above

A

a. Biobank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What should be first secured by the owner from the DOH to operate a laboratory?
a. Mayor’s permit
b. BIR permit
c. License to operate
d. Permit to construct and design

A

d. Permit to construct and design

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Individual facility can compare its results with those of its peers:
a. Delta checking
b. Benchmarking
c. Monitoring
d. None of these

A

b. Benchmarking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Required for operation of a hospital or other health facility. It is secured after construction and completion of a hospital or other health facility?
a. Mayor’s permit
b. BIR permit
c. License to operate
d. Permit to construct and design

A

c. License to operate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Doing good or providing be benefit
a. Autonomy
b. Beneficence
c. Nonmaleficence
d. Justice

A

c. Nonmaleficence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
All of the following are allowed as an analyst in microbiology water testing laboratory, except: a. Registered medical technologist b. Certified microbiologist c. Registered pharmacist d. Registered food technologist
c. Registered pharmacist
26
Right to refuse treatment: a. Autonomy b. Beneficence c. Nonmaleficence d. Justice
a. Autonomy
27
Deliberate reuse of a syringe from an HIV patient to a normal patient is a violation of which of the following principles of ethics? a. Autonomy b.Beneficence c. Non-maleficence d. Justice
c. Non-maleficence
28
Customers in the clinical laboratory: (1) Physicians (2) Patients (3) Community a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3
d. 1, 2, and 3
29
Maximum faculty to student ratio during lectures: a. 1: 40 b. 1: 20 c. 1: 100 d. 1: 50
a. 1: 40
30
Professional course in the Medical Technology Curriculum, except: a. Clinical chemistry 1 b.Organic chemistry c. Hematology 2 d. Human histology
b.Organic chemistry
31
Not considered as a laboratory record: a. SOP b. Laboratory worksheet c. Logbook d. Laboratory results
a. SOP
32
Defining standards of performance, developing a report system, and taking corrective actions are part of: a. Planning b. Organizing c. Directing d. Controlling
d. Controlling
33
During handwashing procedure, rinse hands in a _____ position to prevent recontamination of hands and wrists. a. Upward b. Downward c. Twisting
b. Downward
34
PRC is three-man commission attached to: a. The Office of the President of the Philippines b. The Office of the Vice president of the Philippines c. Commission on Higher Education (CHED) d. Department of Labor and Employment (DOLE)
d. Department of Labor and Employment (DOLE)
35
Who appoints the PRC chairperson? a. Secretary of Department of Health b. Secretary of Department of Labor and Employment c. President of the Philippines d. Vice president of the Philippines
c. President of the Philippines
36
All of the following are learning activities accredited by the CPD council, except: a. Seminars b. Workshops c. Vlogs d. Modules
c. Vlogs
37
Blushing: a. Erythema b. Hyperemia c. Ischemia d. Rubor
b. Hyperemia
38
True about autopsy: a. Can be used for forensic investigation b. A specialized surgical procedure c. Both a and b d. None of these
c. Both a and b
39
Incision of the torso: a. X-axis b. Linear c. Vertical d. Y-axis
d. Y-axis
40
Which of the following degenerative changes is manifested by variation in size, shape, and orientation of cells? a. Metaplasia b. Dysplasia c. Anaplasia d. Neoplasia
b. Dysplasia
41
Denture-induced is a reactive lesion arising from excessive and chronical mechanical pressure: a. Hyperplasia b. Hypertrophy c. Metaplasia d. None of these
a. Hyperplasia
42
Which of the following changes occur in the bronchial epithelium of chronic smokers, often a prelude to development of lung cancer? a. Dysplasia b. Metaplasia c. Anaplasia d. None of the above
b. Metaplasia
43
Degenerative change in cases of Barrett esophagus: a. Metaplasia b. Dysplasia c. Anaplasia d. Neoplasia
a. Metaplasia
44
Closed wound: a. Abrasions b. Lacerations c. Hematoma d. Avulsion
c. Hematoma
45
Physiologic cell death: a. Necrosis b. Apoptosis c. Necrosis and apoptosis d. None of the above
b. Apoptosis
46
The law mandates the local civil registry to release copies of a death certificate. a. Two b. Three c. Four d. Five
c. Four
47
Hypoxic death of CNS (brain) manifests as: a. Coagulative necrosis b. Liquefactive necrosis c. Fat necrosis d. Caseous necrosis
b. Liquefactive necrosis
48
Embryonic tissue where all connective tissue originates: a. Ectoderm b. Endoderm c. Mesenchyme d. None of these
c. Mesenchyme
49
All of the following contains fibrocartilage, except: a. Ligaments b. External ear c. Invertebral discs d. Joint capsules
b. External ear
50
Which of the following muscular tissues contain branching cells joined by intercalated discs? a. Skeletal muscle b. Cardiac muscle c. Smooth muscle d. None of these
b. Cardiac muscle
51
Which of the following muscular tissue is found in the uterus? a. Skeletal muscle b. Cardiac muscle c. Smooth or visceral muscle d. None of these
C. Smooth or visceral muscle
52
Epidermis of the skin contains: a. Pseudostratified epithelium b. Transitional epithelium c. Simple columnar d Stratified squamous
d Stratified squamous
53
Cause of foul smell in cadaver: a. Hydrogen sulfide b. Skatole c. Cadaverine d. Trimethylamine
c. Cadaverine
54
Many tissues used in IHC are routinely fixed in: a. Mercury chloride fixative b. Ethanol C. Glutaraldehyde d. 10% Neutral buffered formalin
d. 10% Neutral buffered formalin
55
Most commonly used counterstain in IHC: a. Eosin b. Hematoxylin c.Congo red d. Orange G
b. Hematoxylin
56
Fixative of choice for cytology: a. Carnoy's fixative b. Ether-ethanol c. 95% ethanol d. Formaldehyde
c. 95% ethanol
57
Staining method of choice for exfoliative cytology: a. Papanicolau method b. Modified Papanicolau method c. H and E d. Periodic acid Schiff
a. Papanicolau method
58
Papanicolau stain include/s: a. Harris hematoxylin b. OG 6 stain c. EA50 stain d. All of the above
d. All of the above
59
Third stain in the Papanicolau method? a. Harris hematoxylin b. OG 6 stain c. EA 50 stain d. None of the above
c. EA 50 stain
60
First counterstain in the Papanicolau method: a. Harris hematoxylin b. OG 6 stain c. EA 50 stain d. None of the above
b. OG 6 stain
61
Second counterstain in the Papanicolau method: a. Harris hematoxylin b. OG 6 stain c. EA 50 stain d. None of the above
a. Harris hematoxylin
62
Both OG6 and EA counterstain uses PHOSPHOTUNGSTIC ACID as a ____ a. Counterstain b. Fixative c. Mordant d. Ripening agent
c. Mordant
63
Decalcification should be done after_____ and before ____to ensure and facilitate normal cutting of before bony tissues. a. Fixation, sectioning b. Fixation, impregnation c. Fixation, trimming d. None of these
b. Fixation, impregnation
64
Automatic tissue processor processes tissue for about a. 10 hrs b. 12 hrs c. 16 hrs d. None of these
c. 16 hrs
65
Ascending grades of alcohol: a. Rehydration b. Dehydration c. Rehydration and dehydration d. None of the above
b. Dehydration | startsat 70%
66
In automatic tissue processors, of the tissue into reagent containers provided the agitation needed for the processing of the tissue. a. Vertical oscillation b. Horizontal oscillation c. Diagonal oscillation
a. Vertical oscillation
67
Fixative to tissue ratio: a 10-20:1 b. 5-10:1 с. 20-30:1 d. 25-25:1
a 10-20:1
68
Most common fixative: a. Bouin's solution b. Mercury fixatives c. 10% NBF d. Carnoy's fixative
c. 10% NBF
69
Which of the following is considered as 100% formalin: a. 37-40% formalin b. 50% formalin с. 10% formalin d. 30-35% formalin
a. 37-40% formalin
70
The usual 10% formalin used in fixation of tissues is a 10% solution of formalin, containing about weight to volume of formaldehyde. a. 2% b. 4% c. 8% d. 12%
b. 4%
71
pH of neutral buffered formalin a. 6 b. 5 c. 7 d. 8
c. 7
72
Composition of neutral buffered formalin: (1) Sodium dihydrogen phosphate (Il) Disodium hydrogen phosphate (III) Distilled water (IV) 40% formaldehyde a. I, I, and IV b. Ill and IV c. II, III, and IV d. I, II, III and IV
d. I, II, III and IV
73
All of the following are cross-linking fixatives, except: a. Osmium tetroxide b. Formaldehyde c. Mercuric chloride fixatives d. Acetone
d. Acetone
74
Microtome for cutting celloidin sections? a. Rocking b. Rotary c. Sliding d. Ultrathin e. Freezing
c. Sliding
75
Which of the following instruments is used by the histotechnologist for QC of slides? a. Cytocentrifuge b. Microtome c. Microscope d. None of these
c. Microscope
76
Which of the following is used as a fixative for electron microscopy specimens? a. Glutaraldehyde b. Carnoy's fluid c. Mercuric chloride fixatives d. Lead fixative
a. Glutaraldehyde
77
What is the function of acid-alcohol solution in the routine H and E: a. Decolorizer b. Color developer c. Mordant d. Blueing agent
b. Color developer
78
All of the following are blueing agents, except: a. Ammonium hydroxide b. Scott's solution c. Saturated lithium carbonate d. Magnesium carbonate
79
Stain for Helicobacter pylori: a. Dieterle method b. Orcein c. Toluidine blue d. Grocott methenamine silver stain
c. Toluidine blue
80
Acronym to remember in case of fire? a. PASS b. AMEN c. RACE d. FACE
c. RACE
81
To determine the chemical characteristics of sodium azide, an employee would consult the: a. Chemical hygiene plan b. Merck manual c. SDS d. NRC guidelines
c. SDS
82
Which of the following is the most effective control measure: a. Elimination b. Substitution c. Engineering controls d. PPE
a. Elimination
83
Empty can of Lysol is disposed in a: a. Red container b. Orange container c. Green container d. Black container
a. Red container
84
Which of the following forms of ethanol is unfit for human consumption? a. Denatured alcohol b. Isopropyl alcohol c. Acetone d. None of the above
a. Denatured alcohol
85
In the basic units of the SI system, what is the unit name of mass? a. Meter b. Second c. Kilogram d. Candela
c. Kilogram
86
Which of the following contributes to global warming? a. Argon b. Xenon c. Carbon dioxide d. Oxygen
c. Carbon dioxide
87
Airholes found on tissue during trimming: a. Incomplete fixation b. Incomplete dehydration c. Incomplete clearing d. Incomplete impregnation
d. Incomplete impregnation
88
A copper phthalocyanine dye that is used for MYELIN STAINING of paraffin processed tissue: a. Perl's Prussian blue b. Luxol fast blue c. Gmelin technique d. Sodium alizarin S
b. Luxol fast blue
89
In Situ dissection: a.Technique of R. Virchow b. Technique of Rokitansky c. Technique of Ghon d. Technique of M. Letulle
b. Technique of Rokitansky
90
Ribbon is curved, crooked or uneven instead of straight: a. The temperature of the laboratory is elevated b. The paraffin is sticky c. The knife is dull or blunt d. None of the above
c. The knife is dull or blunt