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CC Flashcards

1
Q

Which if of the following refers to the chylomicrons?
A. Cathode
B. Anode

A

A. Cathode

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2
Q

It is the main storage lipid in humans (found in adipose tissue); constitutes 95% stored fat:
A. Cholesterol
B. Phospholipid
C. Fatty acids
D. Triglycerides

A

D. Triglycerides

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3
Q

Which of the following apoproteins is responsible for the receptor binding for IDL and the Chylomicron remnant produced in fat transport?
A. Apo A1
B. Apo C
C. Apo E
D. Apo B

A

C. Apo E

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4
Q

Which of the following apoproteins is inversely related to risk for coronary heart disease and is a surrogate marker for HDL?
A. Apo A-1
B. Apo B48
C. Apo B100
D. Apo E

A

A. Apo A1

Apo B48- chylomicrons
Apo B100- LDL, VLDV
Apo E- IDL

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5
Q

Which of the following would be most adversely affected by non fasting sample?
A. HDL
B. LDL
C. Cholesterol
D. Triglycerides

A

D. Triglycerides

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6
Q

Which type of lipids are steroids derived from?
A. Glyceride
B. Nonglyceride
C. Fatty Acid
D. Complex

A

B. Nonglyceride

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7
Q

Which of the following blood samples would serve the best to assay lipoproteins because this anticoagulant preserve lipoproteins?
A. EDTA plasma sample
B. Heparin plasma sample
C. Citrate plasma sample
D. Fluoride plasma sample

A

A. EDTA plasma sample

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8
Q

Which of the following lipoproteins is considered the smallest of all lipoproteins and is composed of 50% protein?
A HDL
B. Chylomicrons
C. Triglycerides
D. LDL

A

A. HDL

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9
Q

Which of the following is a rare autosomal recessive disorder characterized by the absence of VLDL, LDL and chylomicrons?
A. Bassen-Kornzweig syndrome
B. Tangier Disease
C. Anderson’s disease
D. Sitosterolemia

A

A. Bassen-Koenzweig Synderome

ApoB is absent

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10
Q

Which of the following is a rare autosomal recessive disorder characterized by the absence of HDL?
A. Bassen-Kornzweig syndrome
B. Tangier Disease
C. Anderson’s disease
D. Sitosterolemia

A

B. Tangier disease

Apo A is absent

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11
Q

Which of the following is a rare autosomal recessive disorder characterized by the absence of chylomicrons?
A. Bassen-Kornzweig syndrome
B. Tangier Disease
C. Anderson’s disease
D. Sitosterolemia

A

C. Andersons disease

Apo B48 is absent

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12
Q

At what serum glucose concentration would glucose begin to appear in the urine?
A. 50 mg/dl
B. 75 mg/dl
C. 100 mg/dl
D. 170 mg/dl

A

D. 170 mg/dl

Renal threshold: 160-180 mg/dl

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13
Q

Sodium renal threshold?
A. 50 mmol/L
B. 75 mmol/L
C. 100 mmol/L
D. 120 mmol/L

A

D. 120 mmol/L

Renal threshold: 110-130 mmol/L

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14
Q

The Dubowski method for glucose utilizes:
A. Arsenomolybdic acid
B. Orthotoluidine
C. G6PD
D. Mutarotase

A

B. Orthotoluidine

(Condensation reaction)

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15
Q

Which of the following is the most specific enzymatic method for glucose determination (employing G6PD as a second coupling step)?
A. Glucose oxidase
B. Glucose dehydrogenase
C. Hexokinase
D. Pyruvate Kinase

A

C. Hexokinase

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16
Q

What form of sugar in the liver is converted to glucose?
A. Starch
B. Cellulose
C. Glycogen
D. Amylopectin

A

C. Glycogen

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17
Q

Type 1 DM
I. Detectable C-peptide
II. Undetectable C-peptide
III. Most common in childhood/teens
IV. Most common in advancing age

A. I and III
B. III and IV
C. II and III
D. II and IV

A

C. II and III

There is low/no insulin for C-peptide to be detectable.

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18
Q

What is the Critical Value for hyperglycemia?
A. >200 mg/dl
B.>300mg/dl
C. >400mg/dl
D. > 500mg/dl

A

D.> 500mg/dl

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19
Q

A fasting blood sugar result of equal or greater then ____ is diagnostic for diabetes mellitus
A. 90mg/dl
B. 126mg/dl
C. 110mg/dl

A

B. 126mg/dl

90mg/dl- normal
110 mg/dl— impared

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20
Q

Which of the following methods is used as the primary reference method in the determination of HBA1c?
A. HPLC
B. Affinity chromatography
C. Ion-exchange chromatography
D. Immunoassay

A

A.HPLC

Preferred method(routine)- Affinity chromatography

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21
Q

Where does TCA(Kreb’s cycle) happens?
A. Mitochondria
B. Deoxyribonucleic acid
C. Ribonucleic acid
D. Golgi aparatus

A

A. Mitochondria

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22
Q

Abnormality of the hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl transferase indicate problems with ___ metabolism
A. Purines
B. Pyrimidines
C. Myscle
D. Amino acid

A

A. Purines

Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome(Uric Acid)

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23
Q

End color of phosphotungstic acid (Caraway method) for uric acid?
A. Red
B. Orange
C. Blue
D. Yellow

A

C. Blue

Orange-Jaffe(Creatinine)
Yellow—Fearon’s(Urea)

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24
Q

Creatinine is formed in the
A. Liver
B. Muscles
C. Brain
D. Kidney

A

B. Muscles

Muscled metabolism- Creatinine
Protein metabolism- Urea
Purine metabolism- Uric Acid
Amino Acid Deamination- Ammonia

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25
Q

Dont stop

A

Padayun

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26
Q

In the direct Jaffe method for creatinine, a____ tauter of creatinine picrate is formed when creatinine is mixed with alkaline picrate reagent.
A. Yellow-green
B. Blue- green
C.Mauve lavender
D. Red-Orange

A

D. Red-Orange

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27
Q

Creatinine is expressed in
A. Umol/L
B. mL/s
C. mmol/L
D.mL/min

A

A. umol/L

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28
Q

Neurotoxic product of amino acid deamination:
A. Ammonia
B. Urea
C. Uric Acid
D. Creatinine

A

A. Ammonia

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29
Q

Albumin level in ascites:(Kwashiorkur)
A. Increase
B. Decrease

A

B. Decrease

Decrease: Albumin, protein, calorie

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30
Q

Most specific myocardial infraction:
A. Troponin I
B. Myoglobin
C. AST
D. CK-MB

A

A. Troponin I

Rise: 3-6hrs
Peak- 12-18hrs
Back to normal: 5-10days

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31
Q

True about CRP
I. Elevated in bacterial infection
II. It may be used as cardiac marker
III. It is an acute inflammatory marker
IV. It is a chronic inflammatory marker
A. I and III
B. I, II and III
C. All of these

A

B. I, II and III

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32
Q

Which test is used as an indicator of congestive heart failure
A. CRP
B. BNP
C. BTP
D. CTX

A

B. BNP

BTP- CSF leakage, perilymphatic fistulas
CTX- bone resobtion

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33
Q

Which of the following tests is a good marker of nutritional value?
A. Immunoglobulin M
B. Prealbumin
C. Ceruloplasmin
D. Lp(a)

A

B. Prealbumin

Ceruloplasmin- Wilson’s (copper)
Lp(a)- risk of congenital heart disease

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34
Q

Which of the following formula refers to globin?
A. Total protein+ Albumin
B. Total protein - Albumin
C. Total protein x Albumin
D. Total protein / Albumin

A

B. Total protein - albumin

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35
Q

What protein fraction migrates the farthest TOWARDS the anode?
A. Albumin
B. Alpha globulins
C. Beta globulins
D. Gamma globulins

A

A. Albumin

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36
Q

The last step in enzymatic measurement for cholesterol involves which reaction?
A. Trinder reaction
B. Caraway reaction
C. Diazo reaction
D. Fearow’s reaction

A

A. Trinder reaction

Caraway reaction- Uric Acid(Blue)
Diazo reaction- Bilirubin
Fearow’s reaction-Urea(Yellow)
Jaffe- Creatinine
Berthelot’s- ammonia

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37
Q

How is tolburamide administered in tolbutamide tolerance test?
A. Intramuscularly
B. Intravenously
C. Subcutaneously
D. Percutaneouslt

A

B. Intravenously

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38
Q

Conjugated bilirubin
1. Cannot appear in Urine
2. Can appear in Urine
3. Direct Bilirubin
4. Indirect Bilirubin

A. 1 3
B 1 4
C 2 3
D 2 4

A
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39
Q

In which of the following disease states would you see an elevation in total bilirubin and conjugated bilirubin only?
A. Biliary obstruction
B. Hemolytic anemia
C. Neonatal jaundice
D. Hepatitis

A

A. Biliary obstruction

Hemolytic anemia- ⬆️B1
Hepatitis-⬆️B1 ⬆️B2

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40
Q

Hepatocelluar damage may be best assessed by which of the following parameter?
A. Serum AST and ALT
B. Serum GGT, ALP
C. Bilirubin, GGT and ALP
D. Ammonia and Urea

A

A. Serum AST and ALT

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41
Q

Which test might be used to assess a person who is disoriented or confused?
A. Cholesterol
B. Ammonia
C. CRPs
D. Iron

A

B. Ammonia

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42
Q

Measurements of bilirubin in chemistry analyzers are based on
A. Nephelometry
B. Turbidimetry
C. Photometry

A

C. Photometry

Evelyn-Malloy-Methanol
Jendrassik-Grof- Caffiene

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43
Q

Which test might be ordered on a patient with abdominal pain to test for possible pancreatitis?
A. Amylase and lipase
B. Sodium and potassium
C. Cholesterol and triglyceride
D. C3 and C4

A

A. Amylase and lipase

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44
Q

Which of the following enzymes is the best indicator of pancreatic function?
A. AST
B. ALT
C. Amylase
D. Lipase

A

D. Lipase

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45
Q

Kinetic enzyme assays are best performed during which phase of an enzymatic reaction?
A. Linear phase
B. Lag Phase
C. Plateau phase
D. Any phase as long as temp and pH are constant

A

A. Linear phase

46
Q

A farmer that is working in the field accidentally had a pesticide poisoning. Cholinesterase activity is tested, which of the following is the expected result?
A. Increased
B. Decreased
C variable result
D. Normal

A

D. Decreased cholinesterase

47
Q

A patient sample is assayed for fasting triglycerides and a triglyceride value of 1036mg/dL. This value is of immediate concern because of its association with which of the following conditions?
A. Coronary heart disease
B. Diabetes
C. Pancreatitis
D. Gout

A

C. Pancreatitis

48
Q

Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the conversion if p-nitrophenyl phosphate to a colored p-niyrophen product?
A. AST
B. ALT
C. ALP
D. GGT

A

C. ALP

Bowers McComb
-PNPP

Paget’s syndrome
-Highest ALP

49
Q

Which of the following buffers is used in the IFCC recommended method for ALP?
A. Acetic Acid
B. Tris-EDTA
C. 2-Amino-2methyl-1propanol(AMP)
D. Bicarbonate

A

C. AMP

50
Q

An electrophoretic separation of lactate dehydrogenase isoenzymes that demonstrates an elevation in LD-1 and LD-2 in a flipped pattern is consistent with?
A. Myocardial infraction
B. Viral hepatitis
C. Pancreatitis
D. Renal failure

A

A. Myocardial infraction

51
Q

The enzyme which exist chiefly in skeletal muscle, heart, and brain, is grossly elevated in active muscular dystrophy and rises early in myocardial infraction is:
A. Lipase
B. Aspartate transaminase
C. Lactate dehydrogenase
D. Creatinine kinase

A

D. Creatinine kinase

CkMM- cathodal
CkBB- anodal

52
Q

Which of the following clinical disorders is associated with the greatest elevation of lactate dehydrogenase?
A. Pneumonia
B. Glomerulonephritis
C. Pancreatitis
D. Pernicious anemia

A

D. Pernicious anemia

53
Q

What is both an enzyme and a hormone?
A. Acetylcholinesterase
B. Renin
C. Corrisol

A

B. Renin

54
Q

Chief plasma cation whose main function is maintaining osmotic pressure
A. Chloride
B. Calcium
C. Sodium
D. Potassium

A

C. Sodium (CATION)

55
Q

Sample of choice for potassium measurement
A. Whole blood
B. Plasma
C. Urine
D. Serum

A

B. Plasma (heparin anticoagulant)

56
Q

What is the most common cause of pseudohyperkalemia?
A. In vitro phenomenon
B. Diarrhea
C. Starvation
D. Blood transfusion

A

A. In vitro phenomenon

Due to hemolysis. Potassium gets to the plasma resulting to paeudohyperkalemia

57
Q

What is the most common cause of pseudohyperkalemia?
A. In vitro phenomenon
B. Diarrhea
C. Starvation
D. Blood transfusion

A

A. In vitro phenomenon

Due to hemolysis. Potassium gets to the plasma resulting to paeudohyperkalemia

58
Q

What is the sample of choice for measuring blood osmolality?
A. Serum
B. Plasma
C. Whole blood
D. Urine

A

A. Serum (freezing point)

59
Q

Osmolality can be defined as a measure of the concentration of a solution based on:
A. The number of particles present
B. The number of size of particles present
C. The density of particles present
D. The isoelectric point of a particle

A

A. The number of the particles present

60
Q

The most method for electrolyte testing involves
A. Turbidimetry
B. Nephelometry
C. Potentiometry
D. Fluorometry

A

C. Potentiometry

Electrolyte testing= ISE
K+- valinomycin Gel
Na+ & pH- Glass
Nh4+- monactin, monnactin
pO2- Clark
pCo2- severynhaus

61
Q

To maintain electrical neutrality in the red blood cell, bicarbonate leaves the ted blood cell and enters the plasma through an exchange mechanism with the which following
A. TCO2
B. Sodium
C. Chloride
D. Phosphate

A

C. Chloride

62
Q

Which of the following is the correct collection and handling for the analysis of blood gases?
A. Plastic syringe, dry heparin, store on ice, assay within 1hr
B. Glass syringe, liquid heparin, store on ice, assay within 15 mins
C. Glass syringe, no additive, store on ice, assay within 15mins
D. Plastic syringe, dry heparin, store at room temperature, assay within 15 minutes

A

D. Plastic syringe, dry heparin, store at room temperature, assay within 15 minutes.

Blood gasses

63
Q

What is the main reason that causes the following blood gas values
pH= 7.25
pCO2- 36mmHg
HCO3- 19mEq/L

A. Hypoventilation
B. Bicarbonate retention
C. Hyperventilation
D. Bicarbonate loss

A

D. Bicarbonate loss

64
Q

Used to calibrate pH electrode
A. Distilled water
B. Tap water
C. Hyperventilation
D. Bicarbonate loss

A

Metabolic Acidosis

D. Bicarbonate loss

65
Q

Used to calibrate pH electrode
A. Distilled water
B. Tap water
C. Buffers

A

C. Buffers

66
Q

Uncompensated metabolic acidosis
A. pH 7.25, HCO3 15mmol/L, PCO2 37mmHg
B. pH 7.30. HCO3 16mmol/L, PCO2 30 mmHg
A. pH 7.45 , HCO3 22mmol/L, PCO2 40mmHg
A. pH 7.45, HCO3 25mmol/L, PCO2 40mmHg

A

A. pH 7.25, HCO3 15mmol/L, PCO2 37mmHg

67
Q

Which is a sign of primary adrenal insufficiency
A. Acidosis
B. Hypertension
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypercortisolism

A

A. Acidosis

Primary adrenal insufficiency
⬇️ALD, Cortisol, Na, BP, K+

68
Q

What is the least sensitive marker for the diagnosis of pheochromacytoma?
A. Plasma metanephrine
B. Plasma catecholamines
C. Urine metaphrine
D. Vanillylmandelic acid

A

D. Vanillylmandelic acid

69
Q

If a screening TSK is high, which test is likely to be ordered next?
A. Cholesterol
B. Free T4
C. Ferritin
D. Glucose

A

B. Free T4

70
Q

Of the following, which will most likely interfere with quantification of thyroglobulin?
A. Antithyrogolobulin autoantibodies
B. Thyroid-stimulating antibodies
C. TSH receptor antibody
D. Thyroid peroxidase antibodies

A

A. Antithyroglobulin autoantibodies

71
Q

The center of thyroid hormone production
A. Follicle
B. Parafollicle
C. Anterior pituitary gland
D. Posterior pituitary gland

A

A. Follicle

Parafollicle- calcitonin

72
Q

GO GO GO PADAYUN

A
73
Q

The pituitary gland is located in a small cavity in the ____ of the skull called sella turnica or turkish saddle
A. Lacrimal bone
B. Ethmoid bone
C. Sphenoid bone
D. External acoustic measure

A

C. Sphenoid bone

74
Q

Ca concentration in the serum is regulated by
A. Insulin
B. Parathyroid hormone
C. Thyroxine
D. Vitamin C

A

B. Parathyroid Hormone

VitD ⬆️ Calcium
Calcitonin ⬇️Calcium

75
Q

The majority of thyroxine (T4) is converted into the more biologically active hormone
A. Thyroglobulin
B. Thyroid-Stimulating hormone
C. Triiodothyronine (T3)
D. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone

A

C. Triiodothyronine (T3)

76
Q

Which of the following is secreted by the placenta and used for the early detection of pregnancy?
A. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
B. Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)
C. Luteinizing hormone
D. Progresterone

A

B. Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)

77
Q

During pregnancy, the form of estrogen measures in urine is mostly
A. Estradiol
B. Estriol
C. Estrone
D. Pregnanediol

A

B. Estriol E3

78
Q

The biologically most active, naturally occurring androgen is
A. Androstenedione
B. Cortisol
C. Epiandeosterone
D. Testosterone

A

D. Testosterone

79
Q

Plasma cortisol determinations were collected at 7am, after waking the patient and at 10PM that evening. The cortisol level of the morning sample was higher than the evening sample. This is consistent with
A. Normal
B. Cushing syndrome
C. Addison disease
D

A

A. Normal finding ⬆️AM⬇️PM

Cushing syndrome ⬆️AM⬆️PM
Addison disease ⬇️AM⬇️PM
Hypopituitarism ⬇️AM ⬇️PM

80
Q

What common substrate is used in the biosynthesis of adrenal steroids, including androgens and estrogens

A. Cortisol
B. Catecholamines
C. Progesterone
D. Cholesterol

A

D. Cholesterol

81
Q
  1. Which of the following statements best describes the predominant feedback system associated with endocrinology?
    A. Decreased levels of circulating hormones directly result in the production of hormone from the target organ
    B. Increased circulating levels of hormones directly result in the production of releasing factor from the hypothalamus
    C. Increased circulating levels of hormones directly result in the production of inhibiting factor from the hypothalamus
    D. Normal levels of circulating hormones directly result in the production of hormone from the target organ
A

C. Increased circulating levels of hormones directly result in the production of inhibiting factor from the hypothalamus

82
Q

Thyroid hormones are derived from
A. Histidine
B. Cholesterol
C. Tyrosine
D. Phenylalanine

A

C. Tyrosine

83
Q

Trophic hormones are produced by the _____, and releasing factors are produced by the ____
A. Hypothalamus ; pituitary
B. Pituitary; hypothalamus
C. Specific endocrine glands ; hypothalamus
D. Pituitary; target gland

A

B. Pituitary; hypothalamus

84
Q

Lead toxicity is acquired via
1 Skin contact
2 animal bites
3 inhalation
4 Ingestion

A

1,2,4

85
Q

Which of the following does not contain alcohol?
A. Soju
B. Wine
C. Brandy
D. Root beer

A

D. Root beer

86
Q

How is ethanol formed
A. Fermentation of sugar
B. Oxidation of fats
C. Breakdown of purines

A

A. Fermentation of sugar

Oxidation of fats- ketones
Breakdown if purines- uric acid

87
Q

Cocaine is metabolized to
A. Carbamazepine
B. Codeine
C. Hydrocodone
D. Benzoylecgonine

A

D. Benzoylecgonine

88
Q

A drug that relaxes the smooth muscles of the bronchial passage
A. Acetaminophen
B. Lithium
C. Phenytoin
D. Theophyline

A

D. Theophyline & theobromine -anti asthmatic

89
Q

Which of these drug levels would be considered toxic?
A. Alcohol at 80 mg/dL
B. Valporic acid at 50 ug/dl
C. Acetaminophen at 250 ug/dL
D. Salicylate at 27 mg/dL

A

C. Acetaminophen at 250 ug/dL

=Paracetamol >200 ug/dL

90
Q

Which specimen is the sample of choice for lead screening?
A. Whole blood
B. Hair
C. Serum
D. Urine

A

A. Whole blood

Tan EDTA

91
Q

Which of the following anticoagulants is generally suitable for most drug analyses (TDM)?
A. Heparin
B. EDTA
C. Citrate
D. Oxalate

A

A. Heparin

EDTA is for
-cyclosporine
-tacrolimus

92
Q

Of the following, which will most likely interfere with quantification of thyroglobulin?
A. Antithyroglobulin autoantibodies
B. Thyroid-stimulating antibodies
C. TSH receptor antibodies
D. Thyroid peroxidase antibodies

A

A. Antithyroglobulin autoantibodies

93
Q

A gaussian distribution is usually
A. Bell shaped
B. Rectangular
C. Bimodal
D. Skewed

A

A. Bell shaped

94
Q

Which of the following set of values for repeat analyses of a QC sample (Target value: 50) reflects the best precision?
A. 50, 51, 52
B. 50, 52, 56
C. 48, 50, 52
D. 44, 50, 53

A

A. 50, 51, 52

95
Q

Which of the following sets of values for repeat analyses of a sample (Target value: 100) shows the least bias?
A. 100, 105, 110
B. 95,100,105
C. 90,95,100
D. 90,100,105

A

B. 95,100,105

96
Q

How should a laboratory verify the reference range it uses for a particular test?
a. Call another laboratory
b. Use the numbers form a textbook
c. Test samples from healthy people
d. Look on a medical internet site

A

c. Test samples from healthy people

Establishing reference interval
- 120-700
Verifying a reference interval
- 40

97
Q

First step in analytical phase
A. Test order
B. Patient preparation
C. Specimen collection
D. Specimen handling

A

A. Test order

98
Q

Which are considered in pre-analytical quality assurance in relation to specimen management?
1 correctly separated or centrifuged
2 test done within specified timeframes
3 intact and seal
4 stored properly

A

1,2,4

Intact and seal- Transport

99
Q

Which are considered in post-analytical quality assurance in relation to timeliness?
a. Turnaround times recorded and analyzed
b. Including laboratory care in patient surveys
c. Specimen collection explained to the patient
d. Results are accurately transcribed into the system

A

a. Turnaround times recorded and analyzed

100
Q

Electrode that is constant
A. Glass electrode
B. Clarke electrode
C. Severinghaus electrode
D. Reference electrode

A

D. Reference electrode

101
Q

Which type of blank is used to zero solutions before the test?
A. Reagent
B. Sample
C. Calibration
D. Procedural

A

A. Reagent blank

Sample blank- during the test

102
Q

When a serum sample has intrinsic color that absorbs at the same wavelength used to detect the reaction product, what technique could help distinguish the color produced by the analyte from the intrinsic color of the sample?
A. Blanking
B. Immunoturbidimetry
C. Ion selective electrode
D. PETINIA

A

A. Blanking

103
Q

Which of the following analyses would best be done using photometric rate reaction?
A. Measurement if lipase activity
B. Determination of albumin with the dye bromocresol green
C. Determination of potassium in the presence of excess sodium

A

A. Measurement of lipase activity

104
Q

Pretreatment is designed to do which of the following?
A. Ensure the concentration of analyte is in the measurable range
B. Remove substances that could be erroneously measured as analyte
C. Adjust the wavelength of light used for analysis
D. Introduce a flourophore

A

B. Remove substances that could be erroneously measured as analyte

105
Q

Which of the following would not be a typical methodology for a clinical chemistry test?
A. Immunoturbidimetry
B. Microscopy
C. EMIT
D. ISE

A

B. Microscopy

106
Q

What does method traceability mean?
A. The calibration of a method is linear
B. The method meets the required error budget
C. The method’s accuracy is linked to a certified method and/or material
D. The method does not show matrix effects

A

C. The method’s accuracy is linked to a certified method and/or material

107
Q

Which of the following is an example if a preanalytical error?
A. Test method incorrectly calibrated
B. Collection of blood in wrong kind of tube
C. Presence of interfering substances
D. Delay in sending the report to the provider

A

B. Collection of blood in wrong kind of tube

108
Q

Which type of analytical error can be prevented by a good quality control program?
a. Instrument not properly calibrated
b. Presence of interfering substance in the sample
c. Presence of bubbles in the light path of a photometric method
d. Analyte concentration so high it depletes the active reagent

A

a. Instrument not properly calibrated

109
Q

Not a physical hazard:
a. Freezing temperature
b. Noise
c. Non-ionizing radiation
d. Infectious aerosols

A

d. Infectious aerosols

110
Q

Measurement technique to quantify hirsutism:
a. Tanner staging system
b. Ferriman-Gallwey score
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above

A

b. Ferriman-Gallwey score

111
Q

Effects includes thickening of the cervical mucus, reduction of uterine contractions, and thermogenic effect, in which basal body temperature rises after ovulation.
a. Estrogen
b. Progesterone
c. Testosterone
d. None of the above

A

b. Progesterone

59 (6 decks)

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