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CM Flashcards

1
Q

A mold is isolated in the laboratory that displays a velvety, gray-green colony morphology. On microscopic evaluation, flask-shaped conidiophores arranged in a brushlike formation are seen. The most likely organism is which of the following?
a. Penicillium sp.
b. Acremonium sp.
c. Paecilomyces sp.
d. Scopulariopsis sp.

A

a. Penicillium sp.

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2
Q

A KOH preparation of respiratory secretions of a
78- year-old man reveals large, spherical, thick-walled yeast cells 8 to 15 mm in diameter, usually with a single bud that is connected to the parent cell by a broad base. Which fungus will likely be isolated from the culture?
a. Coccidioides immitis
b. Blastomyces dermatitidis
c. Histoplasma capsulatum
d. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis

A

B. Blastomyces dermatitidis

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3
Q

The best way to break the chain of infection:
a. Hand sanitizing
b. PPE
b. Aerosol prevention
d. Decontamination

A

a. Hand sanitizing - 20sec

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4
Q

To operate the fire extinguisher which acronym can be used to remember the steps?
a. PASS
b. RACE
c. HAZE
d. AMEN

A

a. PASS

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5
Q

First morning urine, except:
a. Pregnancy test
b. Orthostatic proteinuria
c. Urine culture
d. Urobilinogen

A

d. Urobilinogen

2pm to 4pm

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6
Q

Which of the following would be least affected in a specimen that has remained unpreserved at room temperature for more than 2 hours?
a. Urobilinogen
b. Ketones
c. Protein
d. Nitrite

A

c. Protein

Decreased
⬇️Urobilinogen
⬇️Ketones
Increased
⬆️Nitrite

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7
Q

Which urine clarity is described as few particulates, print easily seen through the newsprint?
a. Very cloudy
b. Clear
c. Hazy
d. Cloudy

A

c. Hazy

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8
Q

A urine sample has a specific gravity of 1.005, what is the appropriate term for this condition?
a. Oligosthenuria
b. Hyposthenuria
c. Isosthenuria
d. Hypersthenuria

A

b. Hyposthenuria

Normal 1.015

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9
Q

Normal odor of urine:
a. Sweet
b. Ammoniacal
C. Fragrant
d. Fruity

A

C. Fragrant

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10
Q

Which preservative is ideal for drug testing?
a. Formalin
b. Fluoride
c. Phenol
d. Toluene

A

b. Fluoride

Drug test (urine)
32.6-37.7 C
4mins

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11
Q

Which of the following urine preservative can be used for urine culture transport?
a. Refrigeration
b. Boric acid
c. Formalin
d. Sodium fluoride

A

b. Boric acid

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12
Q

Which part of the microscope magnifies the image from high-powered objective lens?
a. Eye piece
b. Condenser
c. LPO
d. HPO
First lens

A

a. Eye piece

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13
Q

what is the routinely used microscope in the laboratory that the object is dark and the background is lighter?
A. Bright-field microscope
B. Phase contrast microscope
C. dark-field microscope
D. Interference-contrast microscope

A

A. Bright-field microscope

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14
Q

which part of a microscope is replaced to convert a bright field microscope?
A. Polarizing filter
B. A split aperture
C. iris diaphragm
D. Condenser

A

D. Condenser

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15
Q

the most sterile specimen collected is a
A. catheterized
B. Midstream clean-catch
C. Three-glass
D. Suprapubic aspiration

A

D. Suprapubic aspiration

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16
Q

Label for urine containers are
A. Attached to the container
B. Attached to the lid
C. Placed on the container prior to collection
D. Not detachable

A

A. Attached to the container

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17
Q

which of the tubules is impermeable to water?
A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Descending loop of Henle
C. Ascending loop of Henle
D. Distal convoluted tubule

A

C. Ascending loop of Henle

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18
Q

what is the effect of increase of blood pressure to the volume of urine?
A. Decrease
B. Increase
C. Normal
D. Nothing will happen.

A

B. Increase

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19
Q

which of the following should be used to reduce light intensity in bright-field microscopy?
A. Centering screws
B. Aperture Diaphragm
C. Rheostat
D. Condenser

A

C. Rheostat

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20
Q

The concentration of a normal urine specimen can be estimated by which of the following?
A. Color
B. Clarity
C. Foam
D. Odor

A

A. Color

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21
Q

the normal yellow color of urine is produced by
A. Bilirubin
B. Hemoglobin
C. Urobilinogen
D. urochrome

A

D. Urochrome

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22
Q

A specimen with a specific gravity of 1.001 would be considered
A. Hyposthenuric
B. Not urine
C. Hypersthenuric
D. Isosthenuric

A

B. Not urine

Normal: 1.015

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22
Q

protein grading of 2+ in reagent strip?
A. 30 mg/dl
B. 100 mg/dl
C. 300 mg/dl
D. 1000 mg/dl

A

B. 100 mg/dl

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22
Q

A patient that produces urine that appears orange in alkaline urine but colorless in acid urine has possibility of taking what drug?
A. Nitrofurantoin
B. Methofarbamol
C. Phenazopyridine
D. Phenindione

A

D. Phenindione

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23
Q

The only protein produced by the kidney is
A. Albumin
B. Urobilin
C. Globulin
D. Uromodulin

A

D. Uromodulin

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24
Q

Which of the following has higher sensitivity and specificity for albumin?
A. DIDNTB
B. TMB
C. DAB

A

D. Uromodulin

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25
Q

Copper sulfate test the _____ ability of glucose
A. Reducing
B. Oxidizing
C. Reducing and oxidizing

A

A. Reducing

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26
Q

Copper sulfate was used to test sugar in urine. Which colors indicates glycosuria?
A. Blue, green and yellow
B. Green, yellow and orange
C. Orange and red
D. Blue and green

A

C. Orange and red

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27
Q

the principle of the reagent strip for glucose is
A. Peroxidase activity of glucose
B. Glucose oxidase reaction
C. Double sequential enzyme reaction
D. Dye- binding of glucose and chromogen

A

C. Double sequential enzyme reaction

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28
Q

Parent ketone
A. Acetone
B. Acetoacetic acid
C. B-Hydroxybutyrate

A

B. Acetoacetic acid

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29
Q

all of the following are components of the acetest tablet, except?
A. Glycine
B. Glucose oxidase
C. Sodium nitroprusside
D. Lactose

A

B. Glucose oxidase

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30
Q

bilirubin detectable in Urine
A. Conjugated Bilirubin
B. Unconjugated bilirubin
C. biliverdin
D. All forms of bilirubin

A

A. conjugated bilirubin

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30
Q

positive color for Ictotest:
A. Yellow
B. Red
C. Blue
D. Pink

A

C. Blue

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31
Q

Which of the following forms of bilirubin is detectable in urine?
A. Conjugated bilirubin
B. Unconjugated bilirubin
C. Biliverdin
D. All forms of bilirubin

A

A. Conjugated bilirubin

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31
Q

a speckled pattern on the blood pad of the reagent strip indicates:
A. Hematuria
B. Hemoglobinuria
C. Myoglobinuria
D. All of these

A

A. Hematuria

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31
Q

After a 12 hour boxing game, the boxer’s urine was red in color, other than blood, what could be the cause of this color?
A. Urobilinogen
B. myoglobin
C. haptoglobin
D. Bilirubin

A

B. myoglobin

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32
Q

To ensures against run-over, blotting the edge of the strip on absorbent paper and holding the strip_____ while comparing it with the color chart is recommended.
A. Spirally
B. Diagonally
C. Vertically
D. Horizontally

A

D. Horizontally

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33
Q

Vegetarian diet:
A. Acid urine
B. Alkaline urine
C. Neutral urine
D. None of the above

A

B. Alkaline urine

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34
Q

Total magnification for grading casts:
A. 40x
B. 100x
C. 400x
D. 1000x

A

B. 100x

LPO

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35
Q

In manual, routine urinalysis, how are squamous epithelial cells reported?
A. Average number per HPF
B. Rare, few, moderate, many per LPF
C. Rare, few, moderate, many per HPF
D. Average per LPF

A

B. Rare, few, moderate, many per LPF

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36
Q

What cell is most associated with vaginal contamination?
A. White
B. Transitional
C. Squamous
D. Glitter

A

C. Squamous

37
Q

Clue cells are clinically significant SECs studded with bacilli of which organism?
A. E. coli
B. C. albicans
C. G. vaginalis
D. P. aeruginosa

A

C. G. vaginalis

38
Q

To distinguish WBCs from RTE cells, the nuclear detail can be enhanced by which of the following?
A. Prussian blue
B. Toluidine blue
C. Acetic acid
D. B and C

A

D. B and C

39
Q

The granules are highly refractive spheres, usually with a dimpled center. They resemble fat droplets when polarized, producing a maltese cross formation:
A. Oil droplets
B. Pollen grains
C. Starch granules
D. Hair and fibers

A

C. Starch granules

40
Q

Which of the following ova may indicate fecal contamination of urine?
A. E. vermicularis ova
B. S. haematobium ova
C. P. westermani oca
D. None of the above

A

A. E. vermicularis ova

41
Q

Which of the following area of the renal tubules is the source of the largest RTE cells?
A. Collecting duct
B. Distal convoluted tubule
C. Proximal convoluted tubule
D. None

A

C. Proximal convoluted tubule

42
Q

Which of the following area of the renal tubules is the source of RTE cells that are Cuboidal and are never round?
A. Collecting duct
B. Distal convoluted tubule
C. Proximal convoluted tubule
D. None

A

A. Collecting duct

43
Q

Which of the following area of the renal tubules is the source of RTE cells that are round and oval?
A. Collecting duct
B. Distal convoluted tubules
C. Proximal convoluted tubules
D. None

A

B. Distal convoluted tubules

44
Q

Only elements found in the urinary sediment that are unique to the kidney
A. Crystals
B. Casts
C. Mucus
D. Sperm

A

B. Casts

45
Q

Cast disintegration is based on:
A. Alkalinity of urine
B. Acidity of urine
C. Specific gravity of urine
D. Osmolality

A

A. Alkalinity of urine

46
Q

Which of the following produces effervescence from acetic acid?
A. Tripple phosphate
B. Calcium phosphate
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Amorphous phosphate

A

C. Calcium carbonate

47
Q

Cystine crystals are soluble in:
A. Ammonia
B. Dilute HCl
C. Chloroform
D. Both A and B

A

D. Both A and B

48
Q

How to remove pink precipitation in the urine after refrigeration?
A. Acetic acid
B. Vortex the urine
C. Centrifuge the urine
D. Warm the urine

A

D. Warm the urine

49
Q

How to remove pink precipitation in the urine after refrigeration?
A. Acetic acid
B. Vortex the urine
C. Centrifuge the urine
D. Warm the urine

A

D. Warm the urine

50
Q

Liver disease crystals
A. Bilirubin crystal
B. Leucine crystal
C. Tyrosine crystal
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

Liver=BLT

51
Q

Identify the correct match between inborn error of metabolism and its associated test:
A. Cystinuria: Silver nitroprusside test
B. Phenylketonuria: Guthrie test
C. Melituria: CTAB
D. Cystinuria: 2,4 -DNPH

A

B. Phenylketonuria: Guthrie test

52
Q

The highest levels of proteinuria are seen with
A. Alport syndrome
B. Diabetic nephropathy
C. IgA nephropathy
D. Nephrotic syndrome

A

D. Nephrotic syndrome

53
Q

Which of the following characterizes nephrotic syndrome?
1 proteinuria
2 edema
3 hypoalbuminemia
4 hyperlipidemia

A. 1 2
B. 3 4
C. 1 2 3
D. 1 2 3 4

A

D. 1 2 3 4

54
Q

Studies have shown that the major variable in urinalysis testing is the:
a. Principle of machine used in the laboratory
b. Timing and interpretation of color reaction
c. Manner of reporting between laboratory
d. Variation in the technique between medtech

A

b. Timing and interpretation of color reaction

55
Q

When semi-automated
urine chemistry
analyzers are used, the color that develops on the reaction pads is measured by:
a. Spectrophotometry
b. Reflectance photometry
c. Fluorescence photometry
d. Comparing reaction pads with color charts

A

b. Reflectance photometry

56
Q

Reflectance photometry uses the principle that light reflection from the test pads
in proportion
to the intensity of color produced by the concentration of the test substance.
a. Increases
b. Decreases

A

b. Decreases

57
Q

Which of the following is not autoclassified by iQ200?
a. Unclassified casts
b. Nonsquamous epithelial cells
c. Uric acid
d. Bacteria

A

c. Uric acid

58
Q

Which of the following refers to the collection of ascites?

a. Thoracentesis
b. Lumbar puncture
c. Pericardiocentesis
d. Paracentesis

A

c. Pericardiocentesis

Ascites= Peritonal fluid

59
Q

CSF collection:
a. 3rd, 4th, 5th lumbar
b. 5th, 6th, 7th lumbar
a. 3rd, 4th, 5th cervical
b. 5th, 6th, 7th cervical

A

a. 3rd, 4th, 5th lumbar

60
Q

What to do with excess CSF after examination?
a. Disinfect
b. Discard to sink
c. Discard to biohazard waste (yellow container)
d. Keep it frozen until no further use

A

d. Keep it frozen until no further use

61
Q

A CSF total count is diluted with:
a. Distilled water
b. Normal saline
c. Acetic acid
d. Hypotonic saline

A

b. Normal saline

62
Q

A web-like pellicle in a refrigerated CSF
specimen indicates:
a. Tubercular meningitis
b. Multiple sclerosis
c. Primary CNS malignancy
d. Viral meningitis

A

a. Tubercular meningitis

63
Q

How do you distinguish a bloody CSF due to a traumatic tap?
a. Even distribution of blood in all three tubes
b. Uneven distribution of blood in all three tubes
c. Absence of clot
d. Presence of D-dimer

A

b. Uneven distribution of blood in all three tubes

64
Q

In cytocentrifugation, a daily control slide for bacteria should also be prepared using?
a. 0.2 mL saline
b. Two drops of the 30% albumin
c. 0.2 mL saline and two drops of the 30% albumin
d. None of the above

A

c. 0.2 mL saline and two drops of the 30% albumin

65
Q

One of the following is a diluent for CSF WBC count:
a. 3% acetic acid
b. HABA
c. 0.1 HCI
d. 10% Sulfuric acid

A

a. 3% acetic acid

66
Q

Which reagent is necessary cytocentrifugation of CSF to increase cell yield?
a. LISS
b. 10% albumin
c. 30% albumin
d. None of the above

A

c. 30% albumin

67
Q

Pleural fluid among patients with aspergillus
a. Black
b. Viscous
c. Brown

A

a. Black

68
Q

Chylous pericardial fluid will appear as:
a. Grossly bloody
b. Milky

A

b. Milky

69
Q

Green peritoneal fluid:
a. Microbial infection
b. Malignancy
c. Pancreatic disease
d. Tuberculosis

A

c. Pancreatic disease

70
Q

Dark green amniotic fluid:
a. Normal
b. Fetal death
c. HDFN
d. Meconium

A

d. Meconium

71
Q

A significant rise in the OD of amniotic fluid of
450 nm indicates which type of analyte?
a. Oxyhemoglobin
b. Bilirubin
c. Lecithin
d. Sphingomyelin

A

b. Bilirubin-450

OD410 Oxyhemoglobin
OD650 Lamellar Bodies

72
Q

True about amniotic fluid:
a. Amniotic fluid a metabolically inert fluid surrounding the fetus.
b. Oligohydramnios describes amniotic fluid volume greater than 1200 mL.
c. Paracentesis is the aspiration technique used to obtain amniotic fluid samples.
d Amniotic fluid is a product of fetal metabolism

A

d Amniotic fluid is a product of fetal metabolism

73
Q

Non-invasive procedure for gastric analysis:
a.Urea breath test
b. Endoscopy
c. Conventional gastric aspiration test
d. None of the above

A

a.Urea breath test - Helicobater pylori

74
Q

What is the principle of pregnancy test kit?
a. Immunofluorescence
b. Biological test
c. Immunochromatography
d. Nucleic acid amplification testing

A

c. Immunochromatography

75
Q

Which of the following values is an abnormal result in semen analysis?
a. Sperm count of 10 million per ejaculate
b. 500,000 round cells per mL
c. Sperm concentration of 30 million per mL
d. Volume of 4 mL

A

a. Sperm count of 10 million per ejaculate

Sperm count= >40m

76
Q

What is the normal sperm count per ejaculate?
a. >10 M per ejaculate
b. >20 M per ejaculate
c. >30 M per ejaculate
d. >40 M per ejaculate

A

d. >40 M per ejaculate

77
Q

Measurement of a-glucosidase is performed to detect a disorder of which part?
a. Seminiferous tubules
b. Epididymis
c. Prostate gland
d. Bulbourethral gland

A

b. Epididymis

78
Q

The purpose of the acrosomal cap is to:
a. Penetrate the ovum
b. Protect the nucleus
c. Create energy for tail movement
d. Protect the neckpiece

A

a. Penetrate the ovum

79
Q

Round cells that are of concern and may be included in sperm counts and morphology analysis:
a. Leukocytes and erythrocytes b. Leukocytes and spermatids
c. Spermatids and erythrocytes
d. Leukocytes, erythrocytes, and spermatids

A

b. Leukocytes and spermatids

80
Q

If 5 round cells per 100 sperm are counted in a sperm morphology smear and the sperm concentration is 30 million, the concentration of round cells is:
a. 150,000
b. 1.5 million
с. 300,000
d. 15 million

A

b. 1.5 million

81
Q

Sperm with tail that is 10 um long:
a. Fertile
b. Infertile
c. Variable
d. None of the above

A

b. Infertile

normal: 45-50

82
Q

Sperm motility should be assessed using a well-mixed, liquefied semen specimen within 1 hour of specimen collection. Sperms exhibiting no forward progression are graded as
a. 0
b. 1.0
c. 2.0
d. 3.0

A

b. 1.0

83
Q

Semen is screened for
resorcinol test that produces an orange color:
a. Zinc
b. Carnitine
c. Fructose
d. None of these

A

c. Fructose

84
Q

A viscosity report of 0 indicates semen that is?
a. Watery
b. Gel-like
c. Mucus-like
d. Formed

A

a. Watery

85
Q

The presence of erythrocytes in BAL indicates hemorrhage?
an acute
a. Alveolar
b. Cerebral
c. Gastrointestinal
d. Hepatic

A

a. Alveolar

86
Q

Struvite in urine is formed by these organisms, except?
a. Escherichia coli
b. Proteus mirabilis
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. Klebsiella pneumoniae

A

a. Escherichia coli

87
Q

Which of the following refers to the failure of the stomach acidity to fall lower than 6.0 in stimulation test?

a. Hypochlorhydria
b. Anacidity
c. Achlorhydria
d. All of the above

A

b. Anacidity

88
Q

Which of the following anticoagulants does not have the potential to precipitate out in crystalline form when used for synovial fluid specimens?
a. Sodium citrate
b. Lithium heparin
c. Sodium heparin
d. Potassium oxalate

A

c. Sodium heparin

89
Q

Which of the following synovial fluid crystal can be found in cases of pseudogout?
a. Monosodium urate
b. Calcium pyrophosphate
c. Apatite
d. None of the above

A

b. Calcium pyrophosphate

90
Q

Normal stool pH:
a. 5-6
b. 6-7
c. 7-8
d. 8-9

A

c. 7-8

91
Q

All of the following are normal stool constituents,. except:
a. Bacteria
b. Electrolytes
c. Red blood cells
d. Water

A

c. Red blood cells

92
Q

The normal brown color of the feces is produced by:
a. Cellulose
b. Pancreatic enzymes
c. Undigested foodstuffs
d. Urobilin

A

d. Urobilin

93
Q

A black tarry stool is indicative of:
a. Upper GI bleeding
b. Lower GI bleeding
c. Excess fat
d. Excess carbohydrates

A

a. Upper GI bleeding

94
Q

IN NFPA diamond, which of the following are the designated fire hazard flash points grading?
a. 0to 4
b. A to D
c. X to XXXX
d.! to !!!!

A

a. 0 to 4

95
Q

What is the acronym to remember in case a fire is discovered?
a. RACE
b. FACE
c. HAZE
d. MACE

A

A. RACE

96
Q

In handwashing procedure, rinse the hand:
a. In an upward position
b. In a downward position
c. In a spiraling motion
d. In a jerky motion

A

b. In a downward position

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