Irene Gold Practice Questions Flashcards by Julia Gumirov

Which of the following disturbances in growth is most apt (closest) to lead to a change in cancer?
A) hyperplasia
B) metaplasia
C) dysplasia
D) hypertrophy

C) dysplasia

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following disturbances of growth is an increase in the number of cells?
A) hyperplasia
B) hypertrophy
C) dysplasia
D) anaplasia

A) hyperplasia

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which condition is present with Curshmann’s spirals and Charcot Leyden Crystals?
A) asthma
B) bronchitis
C) emphysema
D) Hirschprung’s

A) asthma

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following diseases affects the chloride channels in the body?
A) duchenne muscular dystrophy
B) cystic fibrosis
C) pulmonary fibrosis
D) emphysema

B) cystic fibrosis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which fungus is commonly seen among those living in the Mississippi and Ohio valleys?
A) histoplasmosis
B) blastomycosis
C) byssinosis
D) coccidioidomycosis

A) histoplasmosis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which disease is associated with alpha 1 anti-trypsin def?
A) emphysema
B) TB
C) pulmonary fibrosis
D) hemosiderosis

A) emphysema

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following conditions is known to produce large amounts of protein in the urine?
A) glomerulonephritis
B) pyelonephritis
C) nephrosis
D) cystitis

C) nephrosis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is an autoimmune disorder of the thyroid gland?
A) myxedema
B) grave’s disease
C) goiter
D) hashimoto’s thyroiditis

D) hashimoto’s thyroiditis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Term to describe benign smooth muscle tumor

leiomyoma

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A leiomyoma is a ________ tumor of the __________

benign, smooth muscle

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Projectile vomiting in an infant is most commonly due to which of the following?
A) pyloric stenosis
B) sliding hiatal hernia
C) volvulus
D) hirschsprung’s disease

A) pyloric stenosis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Telescoping of the intestine onto itself is referred to as

intussuception

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Polydipsia and polyuria with a low specific gravity of urine is likely to be caused by

diabetes insipidus

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Horner’s syndrome is caused by a lesion in which part of the lungs?

apex

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which is caused by affecting the apex of the lungs?
A) TB
B) pneumonia
C) emphysema
D) horner’s syndrome

D) horner’s syndrome

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is the most common benign cardiac tumor?
A) rhabdomyoma
B) xanthoma
C) papilloma
D) myxoma

D) myxoma

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following WBCs will be elevated in an acute infection?
A) neutrophils
B) lymphocytes
C) monocytes
D) eosinophils

A) neutrophils

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is associated with a T cell def at birth?
A) bruton’s agammaglobinemia
B) digeroge’s
C) caplan’s disease
D) hirschsprung’s disease

B) digeroge’s

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which organ is affected with Digeorge’s?

thymus

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which condition is associated with chromosome 22?
A) edward’s
B) turner’s
C) digeorge’s
D) hemophilia

C) digeorge’s

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following diseases presents with hypoplasia of the thymus?
A) bruton’s agammaglobinemia
B) digeorge’s
C) caplan’s disease
D) hirschsprung;s disease

B) digeorge’s

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The diphyllobothrium fish tapeworm is most likely to cause
A) hydatid cysts
B) cysticerosis
C) pernicious anemia
D) microcytic hypochromic anemia

C) pernicious anemia

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is characterized by tall stature, arachnodactyly, lens discoloration, and dissecting aortic aneurysm?
A) marfan’s
B) von gierke’s
C) osteogenesis imperfecta
D) edward’s

A) marfan’s

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Pseudohypertrophy of the calves is a common finding in which of the following?
A) MS
B) MG
C) duchenne’s muscular dystrophy
D) becker’s dystrophy

C) duchenne’s muscular dystrophy

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The most common primary malignant bone tumor?

multiple myeloma

Silver scales and pitted nails are common findings in which of the following forms of arthritis? A) RA B) AS C) psoriatic arthritis D) gouty arthritis

C) psoriatic arthritis

In which condition are you likely to find libman sachs endocarditis? A) RA B) reactive arthritis C) SLE D) still's disease

B) reactive arthritis

Antinuclear antibody test is best to determine if the patient has

SLE

The breakdown or death of bone due to lack of blood is termed

osteonecrosis

Reyes syndrome is most highly associated with which of the following? A) aspirin overdose B) aspirin use for viral aliments such as influenza C) aspirin use for bacterial aliments D) aspirin use for fungal aliments

B) aspirin use for viral aliments such as influenza

Farmers are predisposed to dust that cause which of the following lung problems? A) byssinosis B) extrinsic allergic alveolitis C) anthracosis D) bronchogenic carcinoma

B) extrinsic allergic alveolitis

A fungal infection known to live in the soil in the southwestern US A) histoplasmosis B) coccidioidomycosis C) mononucleosis D) influenza

B) coccidioidomycosis

___________ is a benign tumor of the adrenal medulla

pheochromocytoma

Which is the most common cancer in women? A) ovarian B) hepatic C) cervical D) pancreatic

C) cervical

Which of the following produces basophilic stippling of RBCs? A) microcytic anemia B) leukemia C) bronchogenic carcinoma D) thalasemia

D) thalasemia

Which type of arthritis produces deposits of urate crystals in the knee?

gout

Blue sclera and brittle bones are the hallmark of which condition?

osteogenesis imperfecta

Philadelphia chromosome is linked to which form of leukemia?

chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)

Occurs only in men A) kleinfelder's syndrome B) turners syndrome C) atherosclerosis D) horner's syndrome

A) kleinfelder's syndrome

Produces bilateral fusion of the SI joints

Which is most commonly associated with a gibbus deformity? A) AS B) RA C) OA D) TB

D) TB

Ollier's disease is a form of?

enchondroma

Which of the following best describes Ollier's disease? A) hereditary multiple exotosis B) multiple enchondromas C) multiple osteomas D) multiple osteochondromas

B) multiple enchondromas

What is the lesion traditionally found in a patient with gouty arthritis?

tophi

Which of the following is deficient in alcoholics? A) B1 B) B2 C) B9 D) B12

A) B1

Which vitamin is deficient in a patient that has macrocytic anemia?

B9 or B12

Cafe au lait spots are found in? A) osteoid osteoma B) neurofibromatosis C) osteosarcoma D) paget's disease

B) neurofibromatosis

Mesothelioma is caused directly by? A) asbestosis B) silicosis C) cystic fibrosis D) anthracosis

A) asbestosis

What would be seen if someone has been diagnosed with nephritis syndrome? A) decreased TGs B) decreased CHO C) hyperalbuminemia D) proteinuria

D) proteinuria

A 3 month old has been throwing up after nursing. Which of the following is a possibility? A) hypersensitive pyloric stenosis B) hyposensitive esophageal sphincter C) hypersensitive esophageal sphincter D) hyposensitive pyloric stenosis

A) hypersensitive pyloric stenosis

What is the most common cause of esophageal cancer?

barrett's esophagus

A person diagnosed with polio would most likely die from which of the following? A) pulmonary paralysis B) MI C) stroke D) CHF

A) pulmonary paralysis

Which is the most common association with osteomyelitis? A) strep pyogenes B) staph intermedius C) alpha hemolytic strep D) staph aureus

D) staph aureus

Which leads to an absence of an organ? A) atrophy B) aplasia C) hypoplasia D) agenesis

D) agenesis

An infection in the vagina is most commonly caused by A) staph B) chlamydia C) strep D) protozoa

B) chlamydia

A person with diabetes insipidus would have A) increased ADH B) decreased ADH C) increased ACTH D) decreased ACTH

B) decreased ADH

A person diagnosed with neurofibromatosis would have A) maculopapular rash B) zone of sclerosis C) deformed bone D) cafe au lait spots

D) cafe au lait spots

Which is the most common tumor of hepatic system? A) hepatoblastoma B) intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma C) hepatocellular carcinoma D) adenocarcinoma

C) hepatocellular carcinoma

The appendicular skeleton is derived from which of the following? A) endoderm B) mesoderm C) ectoderm D) neural crest

B) mesoderm

The most common location for osteosarcoma is near the _____________ and the most common sex is _________

metaphysis, male

Which cells when infected would lead to permanent degeneration? A) brain B) spleen C) liver D) stomach

A) brain

Aspirin would have its greatest effect on A) bradykinin B) substance P C) prostaglandins D) histamine

C) prostaglandins

Which of the following would lead to avascular necrosis of the hip? A) keinboch's disease B) scleroderma C) legg calve perthes D) osteochondritis dissecans

C) legg calve perthes

If fingers fail to separate what condition would you be diagnosed with?

syndactyly

Which of the following leads to progressive diffuse systemic inflammation and leads to synovitis? A) scleroderma B) RA C) DJD D) AS

B) RA

Which autoimmune condition has an extreme photosensitivity? A) AS B) RA C) SLE D) psoriatic arthritis

C) SLE

Which would cause the eyelids to change to an iliac color? A) lambert eaton myasthenic syndrome B) MG C) MS D) dermatomyositis

D) dermatomyositis

Beta amyloid are located in which of the following? A) liver B) kidney C) brain D) lung

C) brain

Which of the following cells form mast cells? A) NK cells B) basophils C) eosinophils D) lymphocytes

B) basophils

Which is most likely cause of death for AIDS patient with cancer? A) pneumocystis carinii B) toxoplasmosis gondi C) kaposi sarcoma D) giardia lamblia

C) kaposi sarcoma

Hemoglobin is broken down by the body to form

bilirubin

Which of the following conditions is known to produce a brownish discoloration on the face and lips? A) addisons disease B) myzedema C) cushings disease D) graves disease

A) addisons disease

Sandblasting is associated with which pneumoconiosis? A) silicosis B) siderosis C) mesothelioma D) anthracosis

A) silicosis

Which of the following is a characteristic of plummer vinson syndrome? A) dysphagia, iron def, pre malignant B) anemia, congenital, premalignant C) malignant, polycythemia, achalasia D) pre malignant, esophageal webbing, polycythemia

A) dysphagia, iron def, pre malignant

Which of the following diseases is caused by the administration of a vaccine? A) gullian barre B) MS C) influenza D) rubeola

A) gullian barre

What is the most common location of a berry aneurysm in a female?

posterior communicating artery

Poliomyelitis affects the ________ horn of the spinal cord and produces a ___________ motor neuron lesion

anterior, lower

Aspirin is known to affect bodily activities by suppressing the production of A) bradykinin B) intrinsic factor C) vit K D) prostaglandins

C) vit K

If the patient is taking vit K, it is not advised that they also take _________

aspirin

Which of the following is a dark line seen in cardiac muscle? A) intercalated discs B) multinucleated muscle fibers C) troponin D) tropomyosin

A) intercalated discs

Which of the following conditions is associated with pannus formation? A) SLE B) forestier's disease C) systemic sclerosis D) RA

D) RA

Which of the following WBCs elevates in a case of listeria monocytogenes? A) monocytes B) lymphocytes C) eosinophils D) neutrophils

D) neutrophils

Which is responsible for the breakdown of bone? A) osteoclast B) osteoblast C) osteocytes D) osteoporosis

A) osteoclast

Which of the following is responsible for aged bone reabsorption? A) osteoma B) osteoblast C) osteoclast D) antimyeloma

C) osteoclast

An obese 7 year old presents with limb and right hip pain. He reports an injury to that hip 2 months ago. What is the most likely cause of his hip problem? A) synovitis B) slipped capital femoral epiphysis C) legg calve perthes D) congenital hip dislocation

C) legg calve perthes

A condition in which there is enlargement of the head, hands, and feet which occurs after ossification is termed

acromegaly

Which of the following conditions is caused by exposure to iron dust? a) TB B) hemosiderosis C) emphysema D) hydronephrosis

B) hemosiderosis

Neurofibrillary tangles are indicating which condition? A) alzheimer's B) MS C) posterolateral sclerosis D) ALS

A) alzheimer's

Which of the following is associated with sequestrum? A) RA B) dermoid cyst C) osteosarcoma D) osteomyelitis

D) osteomyelitis

Which cells are responsible for destroying cancer? A) CD4 B) CD8 C) mast cells D) basophils

B) CD8

Which cell type best describes iron def anemia? A) microcytic hypochromic B) microcytic normochromic C) macrocytic hypochromic D) macrocytic normochromic

A) microcytic hypochromic

Salmonella typhi has an effect on which of the following? A) brunner's glands B) hepatic parenchyma C) alveolar tissue D) splenic pulp

A) brunner's glands

Which presents with an inability to breakdown copper? A) wilson's disease B) tay sachs C) alzheimer's D) sjogrens

A) wilson's disease

Which is commonly associated with a pancoast tumor? A) horner's syndrome B) sjogren's C) osteoporosis D) osteoarthritis

A) horner's syndrome

After a person contracts mononucleosis, what organ is most concern?

spleen

A subacute encephalitis can lead to an obstruction of which of the following? A) lymphatics B) circle of wilis C) venous system D) arterial system

A) lymphatics

What is the term used to describe the alteration of one cell into another cell type?

metaplasia

Patient with cystic fibrosis will have increase amount of ________ in bloodstream

chloride

The loss of elasticity within the lungs is a factor of

emphysema

Addisons is due to A) hypercortisolism B) hypocortisolism C) DM D) thyroid function

B) hypocortisolism

Which of the following is caused by gram neg diplococcus? A) syphilis B) chancroid C) gonorrhea D) lymphogranuloma inguinale

C) gonorrhea

Which is the most common primary immunology disease at birth? A) bruton's B) digeorge's C) caplan's D) hirschsprung's

A) bruton's

Which of the following increases with acute inflammation? A) neutrophils B) eosinophils C) basophils D) lymphocytes

A) neutrophils

Reed sternberg cell is significant in diagnosis of

hodgkin lymphoma

Most kidney stones are derived from

oxalate

The occlusion of hepatic veins causing abdominal pain, ascites, and hepatomegaly A) budd chiari B) arnold chiari C) portal HTN D) mallory weiss syndrome

A) budd chiari

Which is not seen in patients with DM? A) peripheral neuropathy B) nephropathy C) spastic paralysis D) retinopathy

C) spastic paralysis

Which WBCs increase with influenza?

lymphocytes

Which tumor is described as a lesion on tendon?

fibrosarcoma

A bony lesion found in PIP of hands

borchard's nodes

Term used to describe twisting of bowel

volvulus

Which condition begins with ascending paralysis? A) poliomyelitis B) MS C) gullian barre D) MG

C) gullian barre

Which part of the brain is malfunctioning in parkinsons?

substantia nigra

Hematemesis is associated with which of the following? A) kwashiorkor B) mallory weiss C) marasmus D) duodenal ulcer

B) mallory weiss

Gullian barre occurs secondary to which of the following? A) insect bite B) immunization/flu C) measles D) trauma

B) immunization/flu

Which vitamin is essential in conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin?

An allergic reaction in which IgE is released? A) eosinophils B) neutrophils C) monocytes D) lymphocytes

A) eosinophils

Which leukemia is most common in adults?

CLL

Russell bodies are formed in people who have?

multiple myeloma

Hypertrophic synovial joints is the hallmark of what arthritis?

What is the major cause of 2nd hyperparathyroidism?

kidney failure

Morton's neuroma is located in which bone?

foot

Which is the initial location of pulmonary embolism? A) DV lower leg B) DV upper leg C) alveoli of lung D) superficial veins in the leg

A) DV lower leg

An enlarged respiratory defect, connective tissue involvement, and vascular changes all describe which condition? A) marfan's B) acromegaly C) pituitary tumor D) gigantism

A) marfan's

Which of the following is the last stage of paget's disease? A) osteoclastic B) osteosarcoma C) osteoblastic D) mixed osteoclastic

B) osteosarcoma

Which form of arthritis usually affects large joints? A) psoriatic B) RA C) OA D) hemophilia

C) OA

Which occurs due to excessive amount of iron? A) kayser fleshier rings B) pitting edema C) hemosiderosis D) gray turner

C) hemosiderosis

Which of the following is the most common tumor in the hand? A) osteoid osteoma B) osteoma C) chondroma D) enchondroma

D) enchondroma

Which of the following produces a sunburst periosteal reaction? A) osteoblastoma B) ewing's sarcoma C) osteosarcoma D) chondrosarcoma

C) osteosarcoma

A tumor consisting of 3 layers of embryological tissue is termed?

teratoma

Which of the following increases the risk of ectopic pregnancy? A) endometriosis B) PCOS C) obesity D) prior pregnancy

A) endometriosis

Which of the following diseases primarily affect the anterior horn of spinal cord? A) MS B) MG C) poliomyelitis D) ALS

C) poliomyelitis

Which of the following muscles is responsible for flexion of the neck? A) splenius cervices B) splenius capitus C) longus coli D) traps

C) longus coli

Which of the following muscles is attached to the mandible at the condyloid process? A) temporalis B) masseter C) medial pterygoid D) lateral pterygoid

D) lateral pterygoid

Which of the following is considered a secondary ossification in the spine? A) lamina B) pedicle C) IVD D) SP or TP

D) SP or TP

The cerebellum is derived from which of the following embryological structures? A) metencephalon and rhombencephalon B) myelencephalon and rhombencephalon C) telencephalon and prosencephalon D) mesencephalon

A) metencephalon and rhombencephalon

Which of the following tracts is associated with pain and temp? A) ventral spinothalamic B) lateral spinothalamic C) dorsal column D) corticospinal

B) lateral spinothalamic

A problem in broca's area could lead to which of the following? A) sensory aphasia B) motor aphasia C) visual loss D) loss of light touch

B) motor aphasia

The confluence of sinus is located at the bottom of which bone?

occiput

Which of the following arteries extend from the basilar artery? A) posterior communicating B) posterior cerebral C) anterior communicating D) anterior cerebral

B) posterior cerebral

The cribriform plate occupies which of the following bones? A) ethmoid B) sphenoid C) frontal D) parietal

A) ethmoid

What connects the head of rib to the body of vertebra?

radiate ligament

Which of the following is not one of the boundries of the IVF? A) pedicle B) lamina C) vertebral body D) zygopophyseal joint

B) lamina

What innervates the rhomboids?

dorsal scapular n.

The spinal cord ends at what vertebra?

Where does the conus medullaris end?

L1/L2

Which cranial nerve is responsible if the eye remains in adduction?

CN VI

Which muscle extends from C2 to occiput? A) oblique capitis superior B) oblique capitis inferior C) RCP major D) RCP minor

C) RCP major

C1/C2 is considered what type of joint?

trichoid/pivot

Which of the following is involved in the drainage of the nose? A) deviated septum B) superior nasal concha C) superior nasal meatus D) frontal sinus

C) superior nasal meatus

Which is responsible for fine motor movement? A) parietal lobe B) premotor cortex C) temporal lobe D) broadman's area 17

B) premotor cortex

What passes through the optic canal of the sphenoid bone?

ophthalmic artery

The stapes contacts the _____________ to produce the sound

oval window

Which of the following is responsible for sound? A) utricle B) saccule C) ossicles D) cochlea

D) cochlea

Sound is mostly transmitted through which of the following? A) round window B) oval window C) ear ossicles D) cochlea

B) oval window

Which cranial nerve is responsible for mastication?

CN V

Which lobe of the brain is responsible for mastication?

frontal lobe

The outer fibrous layer of the eye that covers nearly the entire eyeball is called the

sclera

What forms the outer ciliary portion of the eye?

sclera

Which ligament is a continuation of PLL?

tectorial membrane

Which of the following limits rotation of C2? A) alar B) transverse C) cruciate D) apical dental

A) alar

Which of the following muscles is responsible for rotation of C1? A) oblique capitus inferior B) RCP minor C) semispinalis capitus D) RCP major

A) oblique capitus inferior

Which suboccipital muscle is attached to the spinous of C2 and is responsible for rotation of the neck?

oblique capitus inferior

Which thoracic vertebra has both a full and demi facet?

Which part of the NS is responsible for sweat?

sympathetic

Which part of the NS is responsible for dilation of pupil?

sympathetic

What connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx?

eustachian tubes

What is the name of the connection between the middle ear and the nasopharynx?

auditory tube

The shape of the body of the thoracic vertebrae is

heart

Which lobe of the brain is the post central gyrus located?

parietal

Which of the following connects the right and left lobes of the brain? A) commissural B) rostrum C) copula D) tubular cinerum

A) commissural

CSF will flow into the interventricular system through

foramen of monroe

CSF flows from the lateral ventricle to the 3rd ventricle through the

foramen of monroe

Which of the following tracts is responsible for the majority of conscious motor stimulation? A) lateral spinothalamic B) lateral corticospinal C) rubrospinal D) vestibulospinal

B) lateral corticospinal

Which is a voluntary tract? A) rubrospinal B) tectospinal C) vestibulospinal D) olivospinal

A) rubrospinal

The posterior columns are responsible for which of the following? A) pain B) vibration C) crude touch D) stretch

B) vibration

Damage to the posterior columns can result in alteration of which of the following? A) unconscious proprioception and vibration B) deep touch and crude touch C) pain and temp D) conscious proprioception and vibration

D) conscious proprioception and vibration

When light enters the eye what is the 1st receptor (1st to refract light)?

cornea

Which of the following is responsible for head rotation when you see something familar? A) medial geniculate B) VPL C) inferior colliculus D) superior colliculus

D) superior colliculus

Which of the following is responsible for head rotation when you hear a loud sound? A) lateral geniculate B) VPL C) inferior colliculus D) superior colliculus

C) inferior colliculus

Which tract carries unconscious proprioception?

ventral spinocerebellar

Which of the following will transmit light into vibration to the optic disc? A) retina B) lens C) rods and cones D) CN II

C) rods and cones

Where are hair cells located?

organ of corti

Which of the following is a secondary curve? A) lordosis B) kyphosis C) sacral D) thoracic

A) lordosis

Which is a primary curve? A) lordosis B) kyphosis C) lumbar D) cervical

B) kyphosis

The nasopharynx drains into the

throat

If an infarction takes place, which blood vessel is most likely affected?

lafter anterior descending artery

Which organ has both endocrine and exocrine functions? A) spleen B) kidney C) pancreas D) duodenum

C) pancreas

Where does fertilization normally occur?

ampulla