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NBCE Part 1 > Epidemiology > Flashcards

Epidemiology Flashcards

1
Q

-monitor the trends of infectious disease and the interventions that protect the public
-incorporates info from science, medicine, sociology, stats, politics, and education to improve the health of an entire population

A

public health

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2
Q

study of the distribution (who, when, and where) and determinants of health related states or events in specified populations, and the applications of this study to control health problems

A

epidemiology

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3
Q

Who identifies, tracks, and stops outbreaks, collect info called surveillance data on health of a population on a regular basis, and ask questions about general trends of diseases?

A

epidemiologists

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4
Q

Outbreaks are classified into 3 main categories. What are they?

A

1) endemic
2) epidemic
3) pandemic

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5
Q

a disease that is always present/mainatained in the population (without the need for external inputs) in low levels in a given area

for example: chicken pox in the UK but malaria is not

A

endemic

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6
Q

rapid spread of infectious disease to a large number of people in a given population within a short period of time, usually 2 weeks or less

A

epidemic

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7
Q

an outbreak of infectious disease that has spread through human populations across a large region, for instance more then 2 continents, or even worldwide

A

pandemic

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8
Q

What are the 3 points of an epidemiological triangle?

A

host, agent, and environment

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9
Q

microbe that causes the disease (the what of the triangle)

A

agent

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10
Q

organisms harboring the disease (the who of the triangle)

A

host

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11
Q

external factors that cause or allow transmission (the where in the triangle)

A

environment

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12
Q

T/F: the mission of an epidemiologist is to break a least one of the sides of the triangle, disrupting the connection between the environment, the host, and the agent, and stopping the continuation of disease

A

true

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13
Q

What are the 3 types of epidemiological studies?

A

1) cohort (prospective)
2) case control (retrospective)
3) cross sectional or prevalence

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14
Q

Which study type is this?
-direct estimate of risk
-presence of exposure determined in sample of population
-entire sample followed and incidence of disease compared for those with and without exposure

A

cohort (prospective)

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15
Q

Which study type is this?
-indirect estimate of risk
-sample selected based on presence or absence of disease
-proportion of cases with history of exposure before onset on disease compared with controls

A

case control (retrospective)

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16
Q

Which study type is this?
-associations
-presence of disease determined in sample population
-proportion of cases with history of exposure compared with non-cases
-prevalence of disease compare for those with and without exposure

A

cross section/ prevalence

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17
Q

the number of people who are sick divided by the total population at risk

A

morbidity (sickness) rate

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18
Q

the number of deaths in a population divided by the total population

A

mortality/fatality rate

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19
Q

infant mortality is the death of an infant before their ______ birthday

A

1st

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20
Q

neonatal mortality is the death of a neonate before _____________

A

30 days of birth date

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21
Q

What are the 5 leading causes of infant death?

A

1) birth defects
2) preterm birth and low birth weight
3) sudden infant death syndrome
4) maternal pregnancy complications
5) injuries like suffocation

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22
Q

the number of new health related events or cases of a disease in a population exposed to that risk in a given time period divided by the total population at risk

A

incidence rate

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23
Q

number of new cases in a population in a given time period

A

incidence of a disease

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24
Q

the total number of new and existing cases in a population at a particular time

A

prevalence of a disease

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25
any nonliving object or substance capable of carrying infectious organisms such as viruses or bacteria
fomite
26
What agency coordinates efforts to improve public health in the world?
WHO
27
What agency controls NIH, CDC, FDA, USPHS (US public health services)?
department of health and human services (HHS)
28
Which agency controls research?
NIH
29
Which agency conducts and supports health promotion, prevention, and preparedness activities in the US with the goal of improving overall public health and deals in *stats for epidemiological studies*?
CDC
30
Which agency regulates health products released to the public and regulates product misrepresentation in health promotion and advertising?
FDA
31
Which agency helps farmers with price support subsides and inspect food like milk, milk products and meat to ensure safety in US?
US department of agriculture (USDA)
32
an infectious disease transmissible (as from person to person) by direct contact with an affected individual or the individuals discharges or by indirect means (as by a vector)
communicable disease
33
Which agency protects and promotes health of people living around hazardous waste sites?
state public health assessment
34
Which diseases must be reported by phone?
rubeola (measles) and pertussis (whooping cough)
35
What disease is caused by neisseria gonorrhoeae (gonococcus)?
gonorrhea/ gonococcal urethritis
36
Is neisseria gonorrhoeae gram neg or pos?
gram neg
37
What are some complications of neisseria gonorrhoeae infection?
-pelvic inflammatory disease -can become sterile -can cause ectopic pregnancies -ophthalmia neonatorum (neonatal conjunctivitis)
38
What medium is used to diagnose neisseria gonorrhoeae infection?
thayer martin medium and nucleic acid amplification test
39
What disease is caused by treponema pallidum pallidum?
syphilis
40
Which stage of syphilis is this? -characterized by a lesion called a chancre, which is painless, circular, purple ulcer with a small raised margin and hard edges
primary syphilis
41
Which stage of syphilis is this? -occurs several weeks after chancre lesion has healed -fever, flu like illness -skin rash may be mistaken for measles, rubella, or chicken pox (great imitator) -skin rash is reddish brown spots on the palms, soles, face, and scalp
secondary syphilis
42
Which stage of syphilis is this? -organism can no longer be found -hallmark is the gumma, a soft painless noninfectious granular lesion -gumma weakens blood vessels and nervous system
tertiary syphilis
43
What stages of syphilis are treatable?
primary and secondary are treatable, but tertiary is too far gone
44
What disease is caused by haemophilus ducreyi?
chancroid (soft chancre (STD))
45
Which bacteria is this? -typically grows on the male genitals and causes a painful shallow soft ulcer at site of infection
haemophilus ducreyi
46
What is the smallest and most primitive of bacterial organisms?
chlamydia species
47
What disease is caused by chlamydia trachomatis (serovars D-K)?
STD, inclusion conjunctivitis, infant pneumonitis
48
What is the most common STD in US?
chlamydia trachomatis (serovars D-K)
49
What are some complications of chlamydia trachomatis (serovars D-K)?
-pelvic inflammatory disease -women can become sterile -most cases are asymptomatic -can cause ectopic pregnancy
50
What is the most common cause of non-gonococcal urethritis?
chlamydia trachomatis (serovars D-K)
51
What are the differences between males and females with chlamydia trachomatis (serovars D-K)?
males= less severe females= urethritis and cervicitis
52
What disease is caused by chlamydia trachomatis (serovars L1-L3)?
lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), an STD
53
Which STD is this? -stage 1= incubation 1-3 weeks, rapidly healing, painless genital papule or pustule -stage 2= painful inguinal lymphadenopathy stage 3= years later, proctocolitis, rectal fibrosis, elephantiasis of genitals in men
chlamydia trachomatis (serovars L1-L3), aka lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)
54
What is the diagnostic test for chlamydia trachomatis (serovars L1-L3), aka lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)?
frei test
55
Which STD is this? -excessive growth of bacteria such as gardnerella vaginalis and prevotella -increased white/gray vaginal discharge -smells fishy
bacterial vaginosis (BV)
56
What is the only STD that can be prevented with a vaccine?
hep B
57
What diseases are caused by S. aureus?
1) toxic shock syndrome 2) gastroenteritis (FBI) 3) scalded skin syndrome 4) skin infections 5) osteomyelitis
58
What bacteria is gold?
s. aureus
59
Which bacteria produces coagulase (an enzyme which enhances its virulence)?
s. aureus
60
Where is s. aureus normally found?
skin
61
What is the toxin associated with toxic shock syndrome caused by s. aureus?
exotoxin
62
What food born illness is caused by s. aureus?
gastroenteritis, which this specific FBI is a TRUE food posioning/toxemia
63
What is the toxin associated with gastroenteritis caused by s. aureus? Where is it found?
enterotoxin (exotoxin) found on starchy foods
64
Which bacteria has a heat stable exotoxin (not readily destroyed by heat)?
s. aureus
65
What is the most common hospital acquired/nosocomial wound infection?
s. aureus
66
What are the 2 diagnostic tests for s. aureus?
coagulase test and mannitol salt agar
67
What disease is caused by clostridium botulinum?
botulism (FBI)
68
T/F: clostridium botulinum is a true food poisoning
true, its a toxemia
69
What toxin is associated with clostridium botulinum?
exotoxin (neurotoxin)
70
Which bacteria secretes an exotoxin/neurotoxin under anaerobic conditions like home canned foods?
clostridium botulinum
71
Which bacteria produces a toxin that blocks the release of the neurotransmitter ACh and causes flaccid paralysis of the involuntary muscles?
clostridium botulinum
72
How do people die from clostridium botulinum?
respiratory paralysis or cardiac arrest
73
honey is the most frequent cause of infection for what?
clostridium botulinum (spores in honey, bad for baby)
74
Which bacteria produces a toxin that is heat liable (can be destroyed with heat)?
clostridium botulinum
75
What disease is caused by campylobacter jejuni?
gastroenteritis
76
What is the #1 FBI in US?
campylobacter jejuni causes gastroenteritis
77
Which bacteria is this? -fecal oral route especially with poultry -susceptible to gastric acid -associated with guillian barre syndrome (ascending paralytic disease)
campylobacter jejuni causes gastroenteritis
78
What disease is caused by salmonella enteritidis?
salmonella gastroenteritis
79
How is salmonella enteritidis transmitted?
anal oral route from contaminated foods like meat, eggs, milk, water, ice cream especially poultry
80
Which bacteria starts out as a FBI and then develops into an endotoxin?
salmonella enteritidis
81
What toxin is associated with salmonella enteritidis?
endotoxin
82
What is another name for E. coli O157:H7?
enterohemorrhagic e. coli (EHEC)
83
What is the most pathogenic strain of e.coli?
enterohemorrhagic e. coli (EHEC) also known as e. coli O157:H7
84
Which bacterial infection is caused by undercooked ground beef?
enterohemorrhagic e. coli (EHEC) also known as e. coli O157:H7
85
What bacteria has a complication of hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) which results in kidney failure?
enterohemorrhagic e. coli (EHEC) also known as e. coli O157:H7
86
What disease is caused by shigella sp.?
shigellosis (bacillary dysentery)
87
What is the transmission route for shigella sp.?
fecal oral route
88
Which bacteria is this? -inflammation and necrosis of large intestine -constant desire to evacuate the bowels (tenesmus) -diarrhea containing blood, mucus and pus
shigella sp.
89
What is the most severe shigella strain because it produces an enterotoxin AND neurotoxin?
shigella dysenteriae
90
What disease is caused by vibrio parahaemolyticus?
acute gastroenteritis (FBI)
91
Which bacteria is this? -acute gastroenteritis after ingestion of contaminated seafood such a raw fish or shellfish
vibrio parahaemolyticus
92
What disease is caused by listeria monocytogenes?
listeriosis
93
What bacteria is this? -food contaminated by fecal matter, especially deli meats and soft cheeses -diarrheal disease -complication= meningoencephalitis and infection of uterus can cause miscarriage
listeria monocytogenes
94
What bacteria is this? -eating unpasteurized dairy or undercooked pork -invasive gastroenteritis
yersinia enterocolitica
95
Zika and west nile virus is a part of what family?
flaviviridae
96
What is the vector for Zika?
aedes mosquitos
97
What are the 3 tick vector diseases?
1) colorado tick fever (virus) 2) rocky mountain spotted fever (bacteria) 3) lyme disease (bacteria)
98
What is another name for avian flu?
H5N1 or bird flu
99
What are the 5 leading causes of death in adults in the US?
1) heart disease 2) cancer 3) stroke 4) respiratory infection 5) accidents
100
What are the 2 leading causes of death worldwide?
TB and malaria
101
Newborns are most commonly infected with which strep causing menigitis?
group B strep
102
Babies and children are most commonly infected with which strep causing menigitis?
streptococcus pneumoniae
103
Teens/young adults are most commonly infected with which strep causing meningitis?
neisseria meningitidis
104
Older adults are most commonly infected with which strep causing meningitis?
streptococcus pneumoniae
105
What is the most lethal meningitis?
naegleria fowleri causes primary amoebic meningoencephalitis
106
What diseases must be reported in writing?
gonorrhea and salmonella
107
Which agency reviews reports of public health assessment before info is disclosed to public?
agency for toxic substances and disease registry
108
Which agency is in charge of chiro licenses, health related issues, infected meat, and food product recall?
state department of health
109
Which agency makes rules concerning occupational toxicity levels of hazardous material and is responsible for health services administration?
OSHA
110
Which agency monitors soil, air, and water quality and was created for the purpose of protecting human health and the environment by writing and enforcing regulation based on laws passed by congress?
environmental protection agency (EPA)

NBCE Part 1 (22 decks)

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