IO Psychology Flashcards
1
Q
Job analysis
A
- systematic procedure for identifying how a job is performed, conditions under which it is performed, and personal requirements it takes to do the job
2
Q
Functions of a job analysis
A
- obtaining info needed to write a job description
- develop or identify appropriate job performance and selection measures
- determine training needs
- Make decisions about job design and redesign
3
Q
Ways to get information for a job analysis
A
- observing employees perform job
- interviewing employees and supervisors about the job
- having employee supervisors and others familiar with the job. Complete questionnaires or surveys
- electronic performance monitoring
4
Q
Types of job analysis
A
- work oriented
- worker oriented
5
Q
Work oriented job analysis
A
- focuses on the task that must be accomplished to achieve the desired job outcomes
- example: task analysis
6
Q
Task analysis
A
- employees and supervisors develop a comprehensive list of job tasks, subject matter experts rate and identify task based on frequency and importance and tasks with the highest ratings are included in the job description
7
Q
Worker oriented job analysis
A
Focuses on the ksaos required to accomplish job tabs
(Knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics)
- example: position analysis questionnaire (PAQ)
8
Q
Position analysis questionnaire(PAQ)
A
- addresses six categories of work activity:
- Information input
- Mental processes
- Work output
- Relationships with others
- Job context
- Other characteristics
9
Q
Job evaluation
A
- first step is usually a job analysis
- conducted specifically to facilitate decisions related to compensation
- often used to establish comparable worth
- point system is commonly used
10
Q
Point system (job evaluation)
A
- determine monetary value of a job by assigning points to the jobs Compensable factors then sum up the points to determine the appropriate compensation for the job
11
Q
Compensable factors
A
- effort
- responsibility
- skill
- working conditions
12
Q
Comparable worth
A
- The principal that workers performing jobs that require the same skills and responsibilities or that are comparable in value to the employer should be paid the same
- has been applied primarily to the gender gap in wages
13
Q
Criterion measures
A
- measures of job performance
14
Q
Functions of criterion measures
A
- provided employees with feedback about their performance
- evaluating employee performance to obtain information needed to make decisions about races and promotions etc
15
Q
Objective measures
A
- provide quantitative information
- direct measures of productivity and number of errors, accidents, and absences
16
Q
Pros of objective measures
A
- can provide important information
17
Q
Cons of objective measures
A
- Don’t always provide complete information about employee performance
- not available for certain jobs
- can be affected by situational factors like inadequate resources or support
18
Q
Subjected measures
A
- Performance ratings
- most commonly used performance measures in organizations
19
Q
Pros of subjected measures
A
- they can provide info on aspects of performance that cannot be assessed by objective measures
- they allow raiders to take situational factors that affect performance into account
- they can provide info that is useful for giving employee feedback about their performance
20
Q
Cons of subjective measures
A
- they can be affected by rater bias and errors
21
Q
Subjective rating scales
A
- relative
-Absolute
22
Q
Relative rating scales
A
- rater evaluates an employee by comparing the employee to other employees
Ex) paired comparison, technique and forced distribution method
23
Q
Absolute rating scales
A
- rater evaluates an employee without considering performance of other employees
Ex) critical incident technique, graphic rating scales, and behavioral anchored rating scales
24
Q
Paired comparison technique
A
,- rater compares each employee to all other employees on dimensions of job performance, (work quality, job knowledge, communication) by indicating which employee is best
25
Q
Pros of paired comparison technique
A
- alleviate central tendency, leniency, and strictness rater biases
26
Q
Con of paired comparison technique
A
- can be very time consuming when there are many employees to rate
27
Q
Forced distribution method
A
- raters have to assign a certain percentage of employees to pre-specified performance categories for each dimension of performance
28
Q
Pro of force distribution method
A
- alleviates central tendency, leniency, and strictness rater biases
29
Q
Con of forced distribution method
A
- provides inaccurate information when the performance of readers doesn’t match the pre-specified categories
- example when all employees are performing at average or above average level
30
Q
Critical incident technique
A
- type of job analysis and performance assessment
- A list of critical incidences is used to evaluate performance of employees by checking those that apply. The list is created by observing employees or interviewing people familiar with the job to establish a list of exceptionally poor or exceptionally good performance.
31
Q
Pro of critical incident technique
A
- provides useful information for employee feedback because it focuses on observable behaviors
32
Q
Cons of critical incident technique
A
- can be time consuming to develop
- focuses on extreme rather than typical behavior
- Job specific
33
Q
Graphic rating scale
A
- rate employees on several performance dimensions on a Likert- type rating scale. (1poor to 5 excellent)
34
Q
Pro of graphic reading scale
A
- easy to construct
35
Q
Con of graphic rating scale
A
- vulnerable to rater biases
36
Q
Behaviorally anchored reading scales (BARS)
A
- graphic rating scale with each point on a scale anchored with a description of a specific behavior developed by job incumbents, supervisors, and other subject matter experts who identify essential dimensions of job performance and specific behaviors for each dimension associated with good average and poor performance
37
Q
Pros of BARS
A
- behavioral anchors help reduce rater biases
- provide information that is useful for employee feedback
38
Q
Cons of BARS
A
- Job specific
- Time consuming to develop
39
Q
Ultimate criterion
A
- ideal measure that assesses all the important contributors to job performance
40
Q
Actual criterion
A
- what a job performance measure actually measures
41
Q
What are the causes of a gap between ultimate and actual criterion?
A
- criterion deficiency and criterion contamination
42
Q
Criterion deficiency
A
- aspects of performance that are not assessed by the criterion
Ex) A job knowledge test for clinical psychologists would be deficient if it includes questions on psychopathology and clinical psychology but not ethics
43
Q
Criterion contamination
A
- when a criterion measure is affected by factors unrelated to job performance
Ex) supervisors ratings on criterion are affected by employees, gender or race or by the supervisor’s knowledge of how well the employee did on predictors that were used to hire them
44
Q
Distribution errors
A
- occur when a reader constantly uses only one part of the rating scale on all employees
- Central tendency bias
- leniency bias
-Strictness bias
45
Q
Central tendency bias
A
- rater consistently gives all employees average rating regardless of their actual performance
46
Q
Leniency bias
A
- raider consistently gives all employees high ratings regardless of actual performance
47
Q
Strictness bias
A
- gives all employees low ratings regardless of actual performance
48
Q
Halo error
A
- also known as the Halo effect and Halo bias
- can be positive or negative
- raiders rating of an employee on one dimension of job performance affects how they rate the employee on all other dimensions
49
Q
Example of positive Halo error
A
- supervisor highly values, cooperation, rates, all employees who are very cooperative high in all dimensions
50
Q
Example of negative Halo bias
A
- raider highly values, cooperation and rates. Uncooperative employees as low on all dimensions of performance
51
Q
Contrast error
A
- raiders ratings of an employee is affected by performance of a previously evaluated employee
52
Q
Example of contrast error
A
- rater gives an average employee below average ratings because they just rated an excellent employee immediately before rating the average employee
53
Q
Similarity bias
A
- raider gives high ratings to raters that yhey perceive to be similar to themselves
54
Q
Methods to reduce rater biases
A
- using relative rating scales
- anchoring points on an absolute rating scale with descriptions and specific job behaviors
- providing raiders with adequate training
55
Q
Using relative rather than absolute rating scales
A
- most useful for eliminating distribution errors since relative scales require raiders to give some employees higher lower ratings and they give other employees
56
Q
Anchoring points on absolute rating scales or descriptions of specific job behaviors
A
- help reduce distribution errors and other biases by clarifying the meaning of each point on a scale
57
Q
Providing adequate training
A
- Best way to reduce freighter biases as well as other factors that decrease rate or accuracy and relative and absolute rating scales
58
Q
A frame of reference training
A
- ensures that trainees understand the multi-dimensional nature of job performance and the organizations definition of successful and unsuccessful performance
- allows for the opportunity to practice assigning ratings and receive feedback on their rating accuracy
59
Q
Types of selection techniques
A
- predictors
- interviews
- general mental ability tests
- personality tests
- integrity test
- work samples
- Assessment centers
- biographical information
60
Q
Interviews
A
- can be structured or unstructured
- research has found that structured and unstructured interviews have the same average validity coefficient unstructured interviews have the same average validity coefficient (.58)
61
Q
Most valid predictors of job performance
A
- number one is general mental ability test and number two is structured and unstructured interviews
62
Q
Structured interviews
A
- interviewees are asked the same questions that may be derived from the results of a job analysis
- answers are scored using the standardized scoring key
63
Q
Unstructured interviews
A
- interviewers ask whatever questions they want and do not necessarily ask all applicants the same questions
64
Q
Types of structured interviews
A
- behavioral interviews
- situational interviews
65
Q
Behavioral interviews
A
- based on the assumption that past behavior is the best predictor of future behavior
- ask questions about how an interviewee responded to specific job-related situations in the past
66
Q
Situational interviews
A
- Future oriented
- ask questions about how interviewees would respond in hypothetical situations
67
Q
Research on structured interviews
A
- situational questions were more valid. Predictors of job performance and behavioral questions
- intention is more predictive of future behavior behavior than past behavior
68
Q
General mental ability tests
A
,- aka general cognitive ability test or intelligence test
- most valid predictor of job performance across variety of jobs, performance, criterias, and organizations
69
Q
Disadvantage of general mental ability tests
A
- associated with greater risk for adverse impact on applicants belonging to some ethnic or racial minority groups
70
Q
Personality test
A
+ usually assess big five personality traits
- conscientiousness has been found to be the best predictor of job performance across jobs and different performance criteria
71
Q
Integrity test
A
- used to predict whether applicant is likely to engage in counterproductive behaviors
- overt
- personality based
72
Q
Overt integrity test
A
- asked directly about attitudes towards and previous history of dishonesty and theft
73
Q
Personality based integrity test
A
- assess aspects of personality that have been linked to dishonesty, disciplinary problems, sabotage, and other counterproductive behaviors
74
Q
Pros of integrity tests
A
- No adverse impact to racial or ethnic minorities
- Good predictors of counterproductive behavior (overt) and job performance (personality based)
75
Q
Most valid measures of selection methods
A
- general mental ability test
- interviews
- Job knowledge test
- integrity test
- combining general mental ability tests with integrity test is the greatest gain
76
Q
Work samples
A
- applicants perform on the job tasks or activities in realistic conditions
77
Q
Work samples versus general mental ability tests
A
- work samples have a slightly higher average validity coefficient then general mental ability test
- recent research found that work samples have a lower validity coefficient than for general mental ability, test, interviews, integrity test, and several other selection methods
- decrease in validity attributed to the fact that in the past work samples were used primarily as a selection method for manual skilled jobs, but are now increasingly used for jobs in the service sector and maybe less accurate for those jobs
78
Q
Trainability work sample tests
A
- useful for applicants who do not have previous work experience
- incorporate periods of training and evaluation and are useful determining if an inexperienced applicant is likely to benefit from training
79
Q
Realistic job preview
A
- involves informing job applicants about the positive and negative aspects of the job to reduce the risk of turnover after applicants are hired by ensuring they have realistic job expectations
80
Q
Assessment centers
A
- most often used to evaluate candidates for managerial level jobs
- involve having multiple raiders rate candidates on separate performance dimensions using multiple methods
- methods include personality and ability. Test, structured interviews, and simulations (work samples)
81
Q
Types of simulations used in assessment centers
A
- in basket exercise
- leaderless group discussion
82
Q
In basket exercise
A
- used to assess decision making skills
- applicants respond to memos, phone messages, and other communications that are similar to those they would encounter on the job
83
Q
Leaderless group discussion
A
- used to evaluate the leadership potential of participants
- requires small group of participants to work together without an assigned leader to solve job-related problem
84
Q
Biographical information
A
- items used because they predict job performance referred to as bio data form or biographical information blank
- improperly derived items that ask about an applicant’s education and work history, but also about family history, health history, interest, social relationships and other issues
- questions are presented in multiple choice format or other format that can be easily scored
85
Q
Validity of biodata
A
- Good predictor of performance for a variety of jobs ranging from unskilled to managerial and executive level jobs
86
Q
Disadvantage of biodata
A
- lac face validity so applicants may consider them to be irrelevant to job performance and invasion of their privacy and refuse to answer
87
Q
Combining selection techniques
A
- compensatory method
Non-Capensatory method
88
Q
Capensary methods
A
- appropriate when a high score on one or more predictor can compensate for low scores on another predictor
- clinical prediction
- multiple regression
89
Q
Clinical prediction
A
- realize I’m the subjective judgment of decision makers who use their familiarity with job requirements to determine if the applicants predictor score is qualify. The applicant for the job
90
Q
Disadvantage of clinical prediction
A
- susceptible to biases and errors
- statistical methods for combining scores are more accurate than clinical prediction for predicting job performance
91
Q
Multiple regression
A
- method for combining scores
- each predictor is weighted on the basis of its correlations with other predictors and with the criterion and weighted predictor scores combined to obtain an estimated criterion score
92
Q
Non-Compensatory methods
A
- used when low scores on one predictor cannot be compensated by a high score and another predictor
- multiple cut off
- multiple hurdle
93
Q
Multiple cut off
A
- All predictors are administered to all applicants and applicants must obtain a score that is above the cutoff score on each predictor to be considered for the job
94
Q
Multiple hurdles
A
- predictors are administered in a pre-specified order in the applicant must obtain scores above the cutoff on each predictor in order to move to the next predictor
Preferred when it’s too costly to administer all predictors to all applicants
95
Q
Multiple cut off and multiple hurdles
A
- can be combined with multiple regression by using multiple regression to predict the criterion scores of applicants who score above the cutoff scores on all predictors
96
Q
Reliability
A
- The degree to which a predictor is free from the effects of measurement( random) error and as a result provides consistent scores
97
Q
Evaluated reliability
A
- assesses consistency of score across time, different forms or items, different scorers and usually produces a reliability coefficient
98
Q
Reliability coefficient
A
- ranges from 0 to 1.0
- The closer to 1.0 the less effects of measurement error in the greater the consistency of scores
99
Q
Validity
A
- used to assess if the predictor actually measures what it was designed to
- for predictor s used to make selection or employment decisions, more than one type of validity is evaluated
100
Q
Content validity
A
- The extent to which a predictor adequately samples the knowledge or skills it’s intended to measure
- basing a predictor ‘s content on the results of a job analysis and having subject matter experts review
101
Q
Construct validity
A
- The extent to which predictor measures the construct (hypothetical trait) it was designed to measure
- correlating scores on the predictor with scores on valid measures of the same, similar, and different constructs
- Intelligence and personality test should have adequate construct for Liberty
102
Q
Criterion related validity
A
– The degree to which scores on the predictor correlate with scores on the criterion.. - It’s evaluated by correlating predictor and criterion scores obtained by individuals in a tryout sample to obtain a criterion-related validity
- when you’re trying to use applicant scores on a predictor to estimate or predict their scores on a criterion to facilitate hiring decisions, you would need to assess the predictor’s criterion related validity coefficient
103
Q
Criterion related validity coefficient
A
- ranges from -1.0 to positive 1.0 and the closer it is to zero the lower the predictor’s criterion related validity
104
Q
Incremental validity
A
- The increase in decision making accuracy that occurs by adding a new selection technique( predictor) to an existing selection procedure
- You’re most likely to see an increase in decision making accuracy when the validity coefficient is large, predictor’s validity coefficient is low to moderate but selection ratio is low and base rate is moderate
105
Q
Selection ratio
A
- The percentage of job applicants the company plans to hire
- calculated by dividing the number of applicants that will be hired by the total number of applicants
106
Q
Low selection ratio
A
- is best because it means the company has more applicants to choose from
107
Q
Base rate
A
- percentage of employees who were hired using the current selection procedure and are successful
- moderate base rate (around 50) is associated with the greatest increase in decision-making accuracy
108
Q
Taylor Russell tables
A
- used to obtain an estimate of a predictor’s incremental validity for various combinations of criterion related validity, coefficients, base rates, and selection ratios
-
109
Q
Adverse impact
A
- particular personnel selection methods have a negative effect on protected group members compared to majority members
110
Q
Causes of an adverse impact
A
- test unfairness
- differential validity
111
Q
Test unfairness
A
- Members of one group consistently obtain lower scores on a selection test or other employment procedure, but the score difference is not reflected in difference of scores on a measurement of job performance
112
Q
Differential validity
A
- on a selection test or other employment procedure there is significantly different validity coefficients for members of different groups
113
Q
80% rule
A
- used to assess if there is an adverse impact
- If legally protected group is less than 80% in adverse impact is occurring
- multiply the percentage rate of white applicants by 80% to establish how many minorities need to be hired
114
Q
Needs analysis
A
- first step in developing a training program
- results are used to identify training goals and best methods for achieving these goals
- conducted to identify training needs
- consists of four analyses: organization analysis, task analysis, person analysis, and demographic analysis
115
Q
Organizational analysis
A
- identifies or goals and determines if an employee’s performance problems are due to lack of training, inadequate selection procedures, or other factors
116
Q
Task (job) analysis
A
- identifies the task required to perform the job and the ksaos required to successfully perform each task
117
Q
Person analysis
A
- identifies which employees need training?
118
Q
Demographic analysis
A
- determines the training needs of specific groups of workers
119
Q
Training methods
A
- on the job
- off the job
120
Q
On the job methods
A
– inexperienced employees observe and learn about a job from supervisor or experienced employees
- apprenticeship
- internship
- coaching
- mentoring
- Job rotation
- Cross training
121
Q
Job rotation
A
- rotate through a predetermined set of jobs with an organization
- often used to train managers
122
Q
Cross training
A
- teach employees how to perform the essential tasks performed by other employees
- used to train members of a team or other work unit who are performing similar or related jobs
123
Q
Pros of on-the-job training
A
- less costly
- alleviates problems related to transfer of training
124
Q
Cons of on-the-job training
A
- potential for errors
- safety problems
- slow down or disruption of productivity
125
Q
Off the job methods
A
- occur on a side away from the work site
- classroom lectures
- Technology-Based learning
- behavior modeling
- simulation training
126
Q
Behavior modeling
A
- based on bandura’s social learning theory
- trainees observe a model performing desired behaviors and are giving feedback and reinforcement while they practice the model behaviors
127
Q
Simulation training
A
- occurs in the environment similar to the work environment
- useful when on-the-job training would be too costly or dangerous
128
Q
Vestibule training
A
- type of simulation training
- allows trainees to acquired skills using the actual machinery or equipment they’ll use on the job
129
Q
Advantages of off-the-job training
A
- provides greater control over the training environment
- can train a large number of employees at the same time
- permits the use of multiple training methods
130
Q
Disadvantages of off the job training
A
- May cost more than on-the-job training
- May not allow for adequate transfer training
131
Q
Mentoring
A
- A mentor provides support and guidance to assist with professional development
- career functions equal behaviors that prepare mentees for career advancement within the organization
- psychosocial functions equal role modeling, advice, giving, providing support, and engaging in other behaviors that promote mentees personal and professional growth and feelings of self-confidence and efficacy
132
Q
Coaching
A
- encouraging employees to accept responsibility for their own performance, enable them to achieve and sustain Superior performance, and to treat them as partners in working towards organizational goals and effectiveness
- coaching analysis equals identifying the conditions that could contribute to employee satisfactory and unsatisfactory performance
- coaching discussions equal direct communications between coach and employee that are aimed at helping the employee achieve and maintain optimal Performance
133
Q
Coaching versus mentoring
A
- coaching focuses on the performance, is more formal, structured, and has regular scheduled meetings, specific tasks and measurable goals, shorter duration and addresses both the needs of the employee and organization
- mentoring
134
Q
Full scope evaluation model
A
- four types of evaluation
- formative
- summative
- confirmative
- Meta evaluation
135
Q
Formative evaluation
A
- conducted during the development of a training program to determine what changes are needed within the program to achieve goals
- having experts review the content of each component of the program to determine if it adequately addresses, goals and administering measures of attitudes and learnings to sample trainees after the component is delivered
136
Q
Summative evaluation
A
- conducted soon after the entire training program has been delivered to determine immediate effects
- administer measures that assess trainees reactions to training in the effectiveness of training for meeting It’s goals
137
Q
Confirmative evaluation
A
- conducted at a later time to evaluate the long-term effects of training
- administer measures similar to those administered as part of the summative evaluation
138
Q
Meta evaluation
A
- ongoing process conducted during and after the formative, summative, and confirmative evaluations for the purpose of assessing their reliability and validity
139
Q
Kirkpatrick’s evaluation model
A
- four levels of training program evaluation arranging order from least to most informative
- reaction criteria
- learning criteria
- behavior criteria
- results criteria
140
Q
Reaction criteria
A
- assesses the trainees impressions of training
141
Q
Learning criteria
A
- assesses how well trainees acquired the information and skills presented during training
142
Q
Behavior criteria
A
- evaluate the degree to which trainees job performance improved as a result of training
143
Q
Results criteria
A
- assesses the effects of training on a return on investment, customer satisfaction, and other organizational outcomes
- The most useful but difficult to assess because it’s not often possible to determine whether to change is in outcomes are due to training or other factors
144
Q
Simmative evaluation report
A
- economic evaluation, impact evaluation, outcome evaluation
145
Q
Evaluability evaluation
A
- part of a formative evaluation
146
Q
Super’s life space, lifespan career theory
A
- there’s five stages of career development
- growth (birth to 14)
- exploration (15 to 24)
- Establishment (25 to 44)
- maintenance (45 to 64)
- disengagement (65 plus)
- each stage involves a different set of development tasks
147
Q
Career maturity
A
- career adaptability for adults
- according to super is the person’s ability to successfully complete the task of their stage
148
Q
Life-Space
A
- super
- The various roles a person assumes at different times and different contexts
- each person has a unique life space due to differences in needs, interest, values, and other personal factors and in family, cultural and situational factors
149
Q
Life-Career rainbow
A
Super
- illustrations that help assist with career counseling
- depicts relationship between a person’s life stages and major life roles over their lifetime
150
Q
Self-Concept
A
- Central to super’s theory
- how people perceive themselves and their situations
+ Develops over the lifespan and is a result of interactions between internal and external factors
- influences and is influenced by the person’s career development process and major determinant for a person’s career decisions
151
Q
Dawis &Lofquist’s theory of work adjustment
A
- congruence between certain characteristics of employee and their work environment predict a person’s job tenure
152
Q
Job tenure
A
- primary indicator of work adjustment
- result of two factors, satisfaction and satisfactoriness
153
Q
Satisfaction
A
D&L
- employee satisfaction with the job
- affected by the match between the employees needs and the reinforcers provided by the job
- determines whether or not the person stays on the job or quits
154
Q
Satisfactoriness
A
D and L
employer satisfaction with the employee.
Affected by how well the employee’s skills match the skill requirements for the job.
Determines whether or not the employer retains their right to employee
155
Q
Tiedmen’s career decision
A
- vocational identity is an ongoing decision-making process linked to ericsson’s psychosocial stages of ego development
Two phases: initial anticipation phase and implementation phase
- career decision is not always a single linear process. Instead stages May repeat, skip or occur in different order
156
Q
Initial anticipation phase
A
T
- person becomes familiar with different jobs, makes a tentative job choice, and proposed to implement that choice
- includes exploration, crystallization, choice, and clarification phases
157
Q
Implementation phase
A
T
- person begins chosen job, becomes proficient addict, and achieves balance between their needs and the organizations demands
- includes induction, Reformation, and integration stages
158
Q
Holland’s theory of career choice
A
- there are six personality and work environments arranged around a hexagon which types next to each other are the most similar and those farthest from each other the most dissimilar
- We are the most productive and satisfied at work when there is a high degree of congrance between our personality and the characteristics of our work environment
- realistic
- investigative
- artistic
- social
- enterprising
- conventional
159
Q
Krumblotz’s social learning theory of career decision making
A
- combines classic behaviorism, bandura social learning theory, and CBT
- identifies four factors that contribute to career decisions
- Genetic endowment and special abilities.
- Environmental conditions and events
- Instrumental and associative learning experiences
- Task approach skills
- interactions between these four contribute to two types of generalizations that guide career decisions and behaviors: self-observation generalizations and worldview generalizations
160
Q
Genetic endowment and special abilities
A
K
- either enable or limit someone’s career choice
161
Q
Environmental conditions and events
A
K
- maybe beyond a person’s control
162
Q
Task approach skills
A
K
- are a result of interactions among the other three factors?
163
Q
Self-observation generalizations
A
-k
beliefs that people have about their own attitudes, values, interest, and skills
164
Q
Worldview generalizations
A
K
- believes people have about the world and are used to predict future events
165
Q
Career development according to Krumblotz
A
- individuals must have opportunities to be exposed to the wildest array of learning experiences in order to promote their career development
166
Q
Driver & Brousseau’s career concept model
A
- there are four career concepts that differ in terms of key motives, direction of career movement, and frequency of change
- Linear career concept
- Expert career concept
- Spiral career concept
- Transitory career concept
- situations favorable to traditional linear and expert concepts are being replaced with those more consistent with spiral and transitory concepts
- organizations are recommended to adopt a pluralistic approach that provides opportunities to diverse career experiences and allows orgs to meet the changing business conditions more effectively
167
Q
Linear career concept
A
D&b
- motivated by primary desire for power and achievement
- view careers as involving upward movement with infrequent career changes
168
Q
Expert career concept
A
D&B
- motivated by a desire to have job security
- develop expertise and view careers as involving a lifelong commitment with the mastery of skills more important than upward advancement
169
Q
Spiral career concept
A
D&b
- motivated by a need for personal growth and opportunities to be creative
- view careers as involving lateral movements across similar occupations every 5 to 10 years
170
Q
Transitory career concept
A
D&B
- motivated by a desire for variety and independent
- view careers as involving lateral movements across different occupations every 2 to 4 years!
171
Q
Taylor scientific Management
A
- workers are motivated primarily by the desire for economic gain and advocated for linking financial incentives to productivity
- proposes that in order to maximize organizational efficiency and productivities managers must do the following:
- Use scientific methods to identify the best way to do a job
- Make sure that workers are scientifically selected and trained by determining the skills required to do each job and selecting and training workers so their skills match those requirements
- Have equal division of labor with managers. Responsible for planning and organizing work and workers responsible for implementing those plans
- Cooperate rather than course workers to ensure that all work is done in a way consistent with scientific principles
172
Q
Weber’s bureaucracy
A
- Just grabbed bureaucracy as an impersonal rational way to ensure that an organization’s operations are orderly inefficient
- The essential elements of a bureaucratic organization include division of labor, well-defined hierarchy of authority, former rules and procedures, employment decisions based on competence in merit, written records of decisions and actions, and separation of ownership and management
173
Q
Mayo’s human relations approach
A
- The Hawthorne effect: increased productivity was due to the attention workers received as research participants
- productivity was affected by informal work group norms and workers were sanctioned by co-workers for violating these norms
- social factors are more important than physical work conditions for work motivation and productivity
174
Q
Mcgregor’s theory x/ theory y
A
- focuses on the interactions between supervisors and subordinates
- supervisors beliefs about subordinates have a self-fulfilling prophecy
- theory x supervisors
- theory y supervisors
175
Q
Theory x supervisors
A
- Believe that subordinates are inherently lazy, dislike responsibility, resist change, and are only concerned about themselves
- supervisors must be directive and controlling to ensure that workers meet organization goals
176
Q
Theory y supervisors
A
- Believe that subordinates enjoy work, are internally motivated, and are self-directed, seek responsibility
- supervisors roles are to provide subordinates with conditions that allow them to fulfill their own goals by achieving organization goals
+ This produces the best outcomes for orgs and workers
177
Q
Katz and Kahn’s Open systems theory
A
- orgs are open systems that have characteristics of open systems: undergo cycles of events, act in ways to maintain homeostasis, avoid negative endotropy by acquiring new resources, and function according to the principles of equal finality and multifinality
- orgs are characterized by input throughput output cycles
178
Q
Principle of equal finality
A
- A system can achieve the same goal or outcome in multiple ways
179
Q
Principle of multifinality
A
- A system can achieve dissimilar goals or outcomes from the same initial conditions
180
Q
Fidler’s contingency model
A
- The most effective leadership style depends on the favorableness of the situation
- Leaders are either task oriented or person oriented
- leadership style is stable and to be effective, the leader must change the situation to fit their style
181
Q
Low LPC leaders
A
- task oriented
- describe their least preferred coworker in negative terms because they focus on task performance
- most favorable in extreme situations, very unfavorable or very favorable situations
182
Q
High LPC leaders
A
- person oriented
- Just grab their least preferred coworker in positive terms because it can separate their coworkers interpersonal characteristics from task performance
- most effective and moderately favorable situations
183
Q
Favorableness of the situation
A
-FCM
- The degree of influence a leader has over subordinates
- It’s affected by leader member relations (Good or poor), task structure (structured or unstructured), and position power (Strong or weak)
184
Q
Hershey and blanchards situational leadership theory
A
- optimal leadership style depends on subordinates job maturity (motivation &ability to perform job )
- four leadership styles that combine level of task and relationship orientation
- employees change and willingness and ability over time which requires leaders to become less directive and More participative
- telling leader
- selling leader
- participating leader
- delegating leader
185
Q
Telling leader
A
- h&B.
- High task, low relationship
- Best for subordinates low in both willingness and ability
186
Q
Selling leader
A
- h&B
- Hi Task, high relationship
- Best for subordinates who are high in willingness and low in ability
187
Q
Participating leader
A
-h&b
low task, high relationship
- Best for subordinates low and willingness and high in ability
188
Q
Delegating leader
A
H&B
- low task, low relationship
+ Best for high in both willingness and ability
189
Q
House’s Path-Goal theory
A
- effective leaders act as facilitators who help subordinates achieve their own
- Best style depends on certain characteristics of subordinate and subordinates tasks
- four leadership styles:
- Directive
- Achievement- oriented
- Supportive
- Participative
190
Q
Directive style
A
House’s path goal theory
- most effective when subordinates are dogmatic or authoritarian and the task is ambiguous and complex
191
Q
Supportive style
A
- houses path goal theory
- Best when subordinates have a high need for affiliation and low job satisfaction And the task is mundane and unchallenging
192
Q
Vroom-yetton-jago contingency model
A
- leadership is a decision-making process
- original: decision tree
- New: decision matrices to help determine optimal leadership strategy for a given set of conditions
- use of matrix requires leader to consider several factors: own level of expertise, employees, level of expertise, & importance of employees commitment to chosen course of action
- strategies range from highly autocratic (make the decision alone) to highly Democratic (let the group members make the decision)
193
Q
Rational model
A
- aka classical model or rational economic model
- decision makers choose the optimal alternative after identifying and evaluating all possible alternatives in an objective, deliberate, and orderly way
194
Q
Bounded rationality model
A
- decision making is limited by organizational and individual factors like time restriction, limited access to information, and cognitive abilities to the decision maker
- people often satisfy when making decisions by considering alternatives only until a minimally acceptable alternative is found
195
Q
Organizational process model
A
- decisions often follow and depend on small incremental choices made in a response to short-term conditions
196
Q
Group think
A
- group reaches a consensus without careful evaluation or consideration of alternatives or risks
- More likely to occur in groups with high level of cohesiveness, strong directive leader, isolated from outside opinions, and must make an important decision quickly
197
Q
Symptoms of group think
A
- illusions of invulnerability and Superior morality
- use of collective rationalization
- excessive stereotyping
- Self-Censorship
- presence of self-appointed “ Mind guards’” whose shield from contradicting information?
198
Q
Ways to reduce groupthink
A
- remaining neutral in the beginning of a discussion
- encourage members to express their opinion
- appointing a member to play The devil’s advocate
- bringing in outside opinions
199
Q
Group polarization
A
- The tendency of groups to make more extreme (risky or cautious ) decisions than individual group members would make alone
-
200
Q
P research on group polarization
A
– It occurs after group discussions have provided opportunities for social comparison and exposure to persuasive arguments
201
Q
The risky shift
A
- tendency of groups to make more risky decisions
202
Q
Maslow’s need hierarchy theory
A
- people have five basic needs that emerge in hierarchical order
- lowest unfulfilled need is the strongest motivator and once satisfied behaviors motivated by the next need in the hierarchy except for self-actualization because it’s never completely satisfied
- Physiological
- Safety
- Social
- Esteem
- Self-Actualization
203
Q
Herzberg’s two-factor theory
A
– theory of satisfaction and motivation
- satisfaction and dissatisfaction are independent States affected by different factors
- Hygiene factors
- Motivator factors
204
Q
Hygiene factors
A
Herzberg’s Two-Factor theory
- fulfill lower order needs
- are job context factors
- pay, benefits and working conditions
- when these are not adequate, a worker is dissatisfied, but availability of these does not contribute to satisfaction or motivation
205
Q
Motivator factors
A
Herzberg’s two-factor theory
- Job content factors
- fulfill higher order needs
- Opportunities for responsibility
- Challenge and advancement
- when adequate, a worker is satisfied and motivated but the absence of motivational factors doesn’t cause dissatisfaction
206
Q
Job enrichment
A
Herzberg
- method of designing jobs so that they provide motivator factors
- can be applied to different types of jobs but depends on certain worker characteristics
- most positive outcomes for younger and well-educated workers and workers with the high need for achievement
207
Q
Equity theory
A
- workers level of motivation is attributed to social comparison
- workers compare their own inputs and outcomes to the inputs and outcomes of other workers doing the same or similar jobs
- renew ratios are similar. There is a sense of equity and workers are motivated to maintain their current job performance
- there’s two types of inequity
- Underpayment inequity
- Overpayment inequity
208
Q
Overpayment inequity
A
Equity theory
- worker perceives that they work less for more pay
- this motivates them to increase their work quality or quantity
209
Q
Underpayment in equity
A
- worker perceives that they work more for less pay
- motivates the worker to decrease their work quality and or quantity or attempt to obtain better outcomes
- this has the stronger impact on work, motivation and performance
210
Q
Expectancy theory
A
- aka VIE theory
- JOB MOTIVATION IS A RESULT OF THREE FACTORS
- Expectancy
- Instrumentality
- Valance
- motivation will be high only when all three factors are positive
211
Q
Expectancy
A
- expectancy theory
workers believe that their effort will lead to successful performance
212
Q
Instrumentality
A
- expectancy theory
- belief that successful performance will result in certain outcomes
213
Q
Valence
A
- expectancy theory
- value of those outcomes for the worker
214
Q
Goal setting theory
A
- assumes that the most important contributor to a work er’s motivation to achieve their goals is the acceptance and commitment to those goals
-
215
Q
Research on goal setting theory
A
- goal acceptance and goal commitment are maximized when goals are specific and moderately difficult and when workers provide are provided with immediate feedback about the accomplishments of their goals
- participation in goal setting is not necessary for goal commitment in certain circumstances I.E the worker has a high need for achievement or is not likely to accept assigned goals
- when workers participate in setting their own goals, the goals tend to be more difficult than the goals That’s the supervisor would set alone
- And group goals result in better performance than individual goals when the accomplishment of tasks require a high degree of worker interdependence and in this situation, group goals alone are likely to be as effective as group goals plus individual goals
