Introduction to Pathogens Flashcards

1
Q

microbiota

A

normal flora
part of the innate immunity

do not cause disease (do some good)

commensalists or mutualists

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2
Q

how much does normal flora weigh?

A

5-10 pounds

1/3 in feces

also lots on skin

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3
Q

commensalism

A

neither harm or benefit the carrying host

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4
Q

mutualism

A

symbioitic relationship between two organisms where both benefit

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5
Q

benefits of flora?

A

produce Vit K
absorb nutrients
secrete bacteriocins

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6
Q

bacteriocins

A

released by normal flora to kill other bacteria

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7
Q

harm of flora

A

can be come pathogenic outside of normal niche

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8
Q

penicillinase bacteria

A

can interfere with therapy

breaks down penicillin

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9
Q

opportunistic pathogens?

A

normal flora outside of normal location can cause problems

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10
Q

streptococcus viridans

A

in mouth

can get to heart during dental procedures and results in infections endocarditis

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11
Q

three types of microbiota?

A

resident, transient, colonzation

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12
Q

resident normal flora?

A

costant and well defined

role in interference
-compete for binding site, nutrients, and create metabolic/toxic products and bacteriocidins

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13
Q

transient normal flora?

A

from travel

exposure to abnormal environment

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14
Q

colonization?

A

establishment of microbial population

acquisition of a new organism

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15
Q

flora in utero?

A

we are sterile

develop flora through birth canal, breast feeding, bottle feeding

facultative flora - acquired from oral exposure to feces

strict anaerobes can colonize only after sufficient facultative organisms are established enough that oxygen concentration are maintained at reduced levels

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16
Q

two basic mechanisms of pathogens?

A

invasion of tissue

production of toxins

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17
Q

invasiveness

A

ability to invade host tissues

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18
Q

different ways to invade host tissue?

A

capsule
adaptations
extracellular enzymes that degrade host tissues

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19
Q

virulence

A

combination of invasiveness and toxigenicity

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20
Q

LD50

A

percent dead vs. dose

measure of virulence

dose to kill half populationID50

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21
Q

communicability

A

transmission of infectious disease

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22
Q

factors involved in the communicability of a disease?

A
source (both dormant and latent)
number of agents released by host
capability of surviving the transit (host to host)
percent of host susceptible to agent
ID50 - infected vs. dose
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23
Q

ID50

A

infected vs. dose

dose require to infect half population

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24
Q

toxigenicity

A

production of toxins

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25
Q

exotoxins

A

secreted protieins
are heat labile
found mostly in gram-positive

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26
Q

what is found in gram-positive cells?

A

exotoxins

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27
Q

endotoxins

A
complex polysaccharides (LPS) that are part of bacterial cell wall
-released when cell lysis occur

generally heat stable

in gram negative found

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28
Q

what is found in gram-negative cells?

A

endotoxins

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29
Q

pathogenic process?

A
adhere
evade local immunity
replicate
evade systemic immunity
must escape body for transmission to new host
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30
Q

intracellular pathogens produce?

A

chronic disease

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31
Q

extracellular pathogens produce?

A

acute disease

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32
Q

what are the stages of infection?

A
incubation
prodrome (non-specific symptoms)
specific-illness (have characteristic signs/symptoms)
recovery
latent
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33
Q

prodrome period

A

stage of infection

where you have non-specific illnesses

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34
Q

viruses

A

are parasites

obligate intracellular parasites

may be either DNA or RNA (single or double stranded)

surrounded by protein capsid

some viruses have envelope
-from host cell

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35
Q

virus replication

A

must attach to host cell

bunch of shit happens.

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36
Q

non-enveloped virus entry to cell?

A

pinocytosis

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37
Q

enveloped virus entry to cell?

A

fusion

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38
Q

abortive infections

A

virus infects a cell that doesn’t permit its replication

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39
Q

cytolytic infection

A

viral infection leading to cell lysis

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40
Q

persistent infections

A

viral infection that my be productive, latent, or transforming

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41
Q

rhinovirus

A

most common viral infective agent

-common cold

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42
Q

two modes of transmission for rhinovirus?

A

aerosol of respiratory droplets

contaminated surface

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43
Q

rhinovirus structure

A

single strand positive sense RNA and capsid

no envelope

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44
Q

viral proteins of rhinovirus?

A

proteins transcribed as single, long polypeptide and cleaved into structural and nonstructural viral proteins

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45
Q

bacteria

A

unicellular prokaryote microorganisms

46
Q

bacterial cell wall

A

basis for classifaction

47
Q

gram positive bacteria

A

thick layer of peptidoglycan on surface

also have lipotechoic acids (only gram +)

48
Q

peptidoglycan

A

polymer of N-acetylmuramic acid and N-acetylglucosamine

49
Q

gram-negative bacteria

A

thin peptidoglycan located between cytoplasmic and second outer membrane (periplasmic space)

have lipopolysaccharide in outer membrane

also have lipid A

50
Q

gram-negative staining?

A

appear red

51
Q

cocci

A

spherical bacteria

52
Q

bacilli

A

rod-like bacteria

53
Q

spirochetes

A

corkscrew bacteria

54
Q

flagella

A

bacterial structure allowing for motility

-composed of flagellins that are also immunogenic

55
Q

monotrichous

A

single polar flagella

56
Q

lophotrichous

A

several polar flagella

57
Q

amphitrichous

A

several flagella at each end

58
Q

peritrichous

A

flagella cover entire surface

59
Q

pili

A

bacterial appendage that are sort

sex pili and common pili

60
Q

sex pili

A

involved in conjugation and transfer of genetic information from one cell to another

61
Q

common pili

A

provides means for attachment to host cells and often play an important role in colonization

62
Q

bacteria transmission

A

many require human to human

some can survive in environment

63
Q

endospore

A

resistant to heat, radiation, drying

dormancy for hundreds of years WOWZA

64
Q

capsules

A

bacterial structure with high MW polysaccharide

65
Q

capsule

A

strongly adhered to cell wall

genetically and phenotypically controlled

66
Q

slime layer

A

loosely associated with bacteria

67
Q

aerobic bacteria

A

require oxygen

68
Q

anaerobic bacteria

A

energy from fermentation

oxygen can be poisonous to these bacteria

69
Q

facultative anaerobes

A

grow under aerobic conditions and can also ferment

70
Q

clostridium difficile

A

gram positive, rod-shaped, spore former
obligate anaerobe
part of normal flora

has toxin A - enterotoxin - fluid accumulation
also toxin B - cytopathic agent

patient secretes large number of spores

can’t compete with normal intestinal flora

71
Q

toxin A in c. dificile?

A

fluid accumulation - diarrhea

72
Q

toxin B in c. dificile?

A

cytopathic agent

73
Q

fungi

A

either yeast or mold

74
Q

yeast

A

single cell fungi (oval or round)

75
Q

mold

A

long filamentous fungi

forms a mat (mycelium)

76
Q

thermally dimorphic fungi

A

change from mold to yeast depending on temperature

ambient temperature - mold
in host tissues - yeast

77
Q

candida

A

yeast at ambient temp and mold in host tissue

**exception to most thermally dimorphic fungi

78
Q

fungi metabolism?

A

most are aerobes

some facultative anaerobes

**no strict anaerobes

requires carbon source

79
Q

cell wall of fungi?

A

has chitin

also ergosterol and zymosterol

80
Q

ergosterol and zymosterol

A

in cell membrane of fungi

81
Q

chitin

A

in cell wall of fungi

82
Q

superficial mycoses

A

dead layers of skin/hair - mostly cosmetic

not major harm

83
Q

subQ mycoses

A

get into deeper layers

can often remember trauma
single location
from environment

84
Q

cutaueous mycoses

A

epidermis, hair, nails

not doing lots of harm

85
Q

systemic or deep mycoses

A

internal organs

immunocompromised host
-not a good prognosis
no human-human transmission
dependent on geographic niche

most are sub-clinical

86
Q

mycoses

A

fungal infection

87
Q

candida albicans

A

part of natural flora
fungi

both yeast and mold

opportunistic in immunocompromised individuals

88
Q

thrush and vaginitis?

A

candida albicans superficially

89
Q

candidemia

A

aka fungemia

systemic fungal infection of candida albicans

90
Q

parasite

A

one organism harms the other

91
Q

protozoan

A

single cell parasite with membrane bound nucleus

92
Q

metazoans

A

multicellular parasite

-worms

93
Q

arthropods

A

parasite insects

ex/ lice

94
Q

host

A

organism where parasite obtains nutrients

95
Q

definitive host

A

where parasite reaches sexual maturity

96
Q

intermediate host

A

where parasite passes through larval or asexual stages

97
Q

accidental host

A

other than normal host

98
Q

reservoir host

A

other than the normal host in which parasite is capable of living and serving as a source of infestation

get rid of reservoir, get rid of parasite

99
Q

vector

A

carrier that transmits causative agent of disease from infected to non-infected

100
Q

modes of transmission for parasites?

A

direct
-ingestion, skin penetration, inhalation, person-to-person

indirect
-vector, transplantation/transfusions

101
Q

single-host parasites

A

human to human contact

oral-fecal T vaginalis and E. histolytica

102
Q

multiple host parasites

A

require two or more hosts to complete life cycle

can be limited to geographical area

103
Q

what causes more disease and misery than any other group of agents?

A

protozoa

according to WHO

104
Q

protozoans

A

eukaryotic
large variation in size
true nucleus and cytoplasm

105
Q

trophozoites

A

active form of protozoa (fragile)

106
Q

cyst

A

dormant form of protozoa (resilient)

107
Q

nematodes

A

round worms
tough outer cuticle (what eosinophils break down)

have separate organ systems and sexes
intestinal tract and blood

108
Q

soil-transmitted helminthiasis

A

STH

ascaris, necator, ancylostoma, trichuris

in 5-14 year old age range

all cause nutritional impairment leading to cognitive impairment

109
Q

platyheliminthes

A

tape worms
flatted ribbon shaped bodies

proglottids - generated by neck

110
Q

proglottids

A

egg of platyhelminthes that is secreted in fecal matter

neck generates the proglottids

111
Q

FMT

A

fecal matter transplant

treats c. dificile non-responsive to standard therapy (vancomycin)