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IMS - Immunology > Introduction to non-specific immunity > Flashcards

Introduction to non-specific immunity Flashcards

1
Q

Main functions of the lymphatic system

A
  • Drain the excess interstitial fluid from tissue spaces.
  • Transport dietary lipids and lipid-soluble vitamins around the body.
  • Defense against disease or immunity.
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2
Q

Another term for ‘interstitial fluid’

A

Extracellular fluid.

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3
Q

What is lymph?

A

Blood plasma that filters from the blood into the interstitial space.

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4
Q

How does excess interstitial fluid enter lymphatic capillaries?

A

Through the endothelium of lymphatic vessels.

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5
Q

Difference between lymphatic fluid and blood plasma?

A

Lymphatic fluid lacks larger plasma proteins present in the blood plasma.

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6
Q

2 groups of lymphatic organs and tissues

A
  • Primary lymphatic organs
  • Secondary lymphatic organs and tissues
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7
Q

The function of the primary lymphatic organs

A

Environment for the maturation and development of B and T lymphocytes.

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8
Q

2 examples of primary lymphatic organs

A
  • Red bone marrow
  • Thymus gland
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9
Q

The function of the secondary lymphatic organs and tissues

A

Where the majority of immune responses occur.

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10
Q

3 examples of secondary lymphatic organs and tissues

A
  • Lymph nodes
  • Spleen
  • Lymphatic nodules
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11
Q

Label the lymph node from a to u

A

a - Cells around germinal center

b - Cells in the germinal center

c - Subscapularis sinus

d - Reticular fiber

e - Trabecula

f - Trabecula sinus

g - Germinal center in secondary lymphatic nodule

h - Cells around germinal center

i - Inner cortex

j - Medulla

k - Medullary sinus

l - Reticular fiber

m - Efferent lymphatic vessels

n - Valve

o - Hilus

p - Capsule

q - Afferent lymphatic vessel

r - Valve

s - Afferent lymphatic vessel

t - Cells of medulla

u - Cells of inner cortex

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12
Q

Where are leucocytes found in the outer cortex of a lymph node?

A
  • Around the germinal center
  • In the germinal centre
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13
Q

Which leucocytes are found in the germinal centre of a lymph node?

A
  • B cells
  • Follicular dendritic cells
  • Macrophages
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14
Q

Which leucocites are found around the germinal center of a lymph node?

A

B cells

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15
Q

Which leucocytes are found in the inner cortex of a lymph node?

A
  • T cells
  • Dendritic cells
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16
Q

Which leucocytes are found in the medulla of a lymph node?

A
  • B cells
  • Plasma cells
  • Macrophages
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17
Q

Which type of leucocyte is this?

A

B cell

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18
Q

Which type of leucocyte is this?

A

Plasma cell

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19
Q

Which type of leucocyte is this?

A

Macrophage

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20
Q

Which type of leucocyte is this?

A

T cell

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21
Q

Which type of leucocyte is this?

A

Dendritic cell

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22
Q

Define pathogen

A

Disease-causing organism.

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23
Q

What pathogens does the immune system combat infections of?

A
  • Viruses
  • Bacteria
  • Protozoa
  • Fungi
  • Helminths
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24
Q

Example of a viral pathogen

A

Influenza virus (flu)

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25
Q

Example of a bacterial pathogen

A

Clostridium tetani (tetanus)

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26
Q

Example of a protozoal pathogen

A

Plasmodium (malaria)

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27
Q

Example of a fungal pathogen

A

Candida albicans (Candidiasis or thrush)

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28
Q

Example of a helminth pathogen

A

Tapeworm

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29
Q

The 2 divisions of the immune system

A
  • Innate (non-specific)
  • Adaptive (specific)
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30
Q

Features of the innate immune system

A
  • Recognises common pathogen molecules.
  • The oldest form of immunity, present in all animals.
  • We are born with it. - Immediate response to pathogen
  • First line of defense of immune system.
  • Identical response to the same pathogen.
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31
Q

Features of the adaptive immune system

A
  • Antigen-specific.
  • Only found in vertebrates.
  • Acquired by experience.
  • On first exposure, takes days to respond and creates memory.
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32
Q

Which division of the immune system is critical for the initial response to a pathogen?

A

The innate immune system.

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33
Q

What happens to the adaptive immune system when the same pathogen infects the host a subsequent time?

A

The adaptive immune response increases in amplitude and is faster due to memory.

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34
Q

Label the x and y-axis

A

x - time (days)

y - magnitude of immune response (AU)

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35
Q

Label the two lines

A
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36
Q

What is the extrinsic epithelial barrier to infection?

A

The skin.

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37
Q

Label the table of physical barriers against infection from a to i

A

a - Epithelial cells joined by tight junctions

b - Longitudinal flow of air or fluid

c - Movement of mucus by cilia

d - Fatty acids

e - Low pH

f - Salivary enzymes (lysozyme)

g - Enzymes (pepsin)

h - Antibacterial peptides

i - Normal flora

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38
Q

What are the internal epithelial barriers to infection?

A
  • Gut
  • Lungs
  • Eyes and nose
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39
Q

Where are ‘epithelial cells joined by tight junctions’ found?

A
  • Skin
  • Gut
  • Lungs
  • Eyes and nose
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40
Q

Where does the longitudinal flow of air or fluid occur?

A
  • Skin
  • Gut
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41
Q

Where does the movement of mucus by cilia occur?

A

Lungs

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42
Q

Where are fatty acids found

A

Skin

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43
Q

Where is pepsin (and other digestive enzymes) found in a low pH environment?

A

Gut

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44
Q

Where are salivary enzymes found?

A

Eyes and nose

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45
Q

Where are antibacterial peptides found?

A
  • Skin
  • Gut
  • Lungs
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46
Q

Where are the normal flora found?

A
  • Skin
  • Gut
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47
Q

What are the mechanical physical barriers to infection of the body?

A
  • Epithelial cells joined by tight junctions
  • Longitudinal flow of air
  • Movement of mucus by cilia
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48
Q

What are the chemical physical barriers to infection of the body?

A
  • Fatty acids
  • Low pH
  • Enzymes
  • Salivary enzymes
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49
Q

What are the microbiological physical barriers to infection of the body?

A

Normal flora

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50
Q

Another term for salivary enzymes

A

Lysozymes

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51
Q

What do physical barriers of the body do to prevent pathogen infection?

A
  • Prevent pathogens from crossing epithelia and colonising tissues
  • Destroy pathogens indiscriminately.
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52
Q

What is haematopoiesis?

A

The generation of blood cells, which occurs in the bone marrow in humans.

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53
Q

Label the diagram of haematopoiesis from a to f

A

a - bone marrow

b - bone marrow

c - blood

d - lymph nodes

e - tissues

f - effector cells

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54
Q

Label the diagram of haematopoiesis from a to ac

A

a - pluripotent haematopoietic stem cell

b - common lymphoid progenitor

c - common myeloid progenitor

d - granulocyte/macrophage progenitor

e - megakaryocyte/erythrocyte progenitor

f - megakaryocyte

g - erythroblast

h - B cell

i - T cell

j - NK cell

k - Immature dendritic cell

l - granulocytes (polymorphonuclear leucocites)

m - neutrophil

n - eosinophil

o - basophil

p - unknown precursor of mast cell

q - monocyte

r - platelets

s - erythrocyte

t - B cell

u - T cell

v - NK cell

w - mature dendritic cell

x - immature dendritic cell

y - mast cell

z - macrophage

aa - plasma cell

ab - activated T cell

ac - activated NK cell

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55
Q

Where are pluripotent haematopoietic stem cells found?

A

Bone marrow

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56
Q

Which progenitor cells are found in the bone marrow?

A
  • Common lymphoid progenitor
  • Common myeloid progenitor
  • Granulocyte/macrophage progenitor
  • Megakaryocyte/erythrocyte progenitor
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57
Q

Which cells are found in the blood?

A
  • B cell
  • T cell
  • NK cell
  • Immature dendritic cell
  • Neutrophil
  • Eosinophil
  • Basophil
  • Unknown precursor of mast cell
  • Monocyte
  • Platelets
  • Erythrocyte
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58
Q

Which cells are found in the lymph nodes?

A
  • B cell
  • T cell
  • NK cell
  • Mature dendritic cell
  • Macrophages
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59
Q

Which leucocytes are found in the tissues?

A
  • Immature dendritic cells
  • Mast cell
  • Macrophage
60
Q

What are the effector leucocytes?

A
  • Plasma cell
  • Activated T cell
  • Activated NK cell
61
Q

What sustains our blood throughout our lives?

A

Haematopoietic cells

62
Q

What are the properties of haematopoietic cells?

A
  • Self-renewing
  • Pluripotent
63
Q

What are the characteristics of the non-specific immune response?

A
  • Protection against pathogens in a non-specific way.
  • Prevention of entry to the body.
  • Destruction of pathogens once they enter the body.
64
Q

What are the non-specific defenses?

A
  • Antimicrobial proteins
  • Natural killer (NK) cells and phagocytes
  • Inflammation
65
Q

What are some antimicrobial proteins?

A
  • Interferons (IFNs)
  • Compliment
  • Transferrins
66
Q

What are interferons?

A
  • Antimicrobial proteins.
  • Produced by virally infected lymphocytes, macrophages and fibroblasts.
  • Function as chemical messengers, instruct neighbour cells to produce antiviral proteins.
67
Q

Three main types of interferons

A
  • Alpha
  • Beta
  • Gamma
68
Q

Properties of antiviral proteins

A

Disrupt viral replication

69
Q

What are compliment antimicrobial proteins?

A
  • Normally inactive in blood plasma and on plasma membranes forming a complement system.
  • When activated enhances specific inflammatory reactions.
70
Q

What are transferrins?

A
  • Iron binding proteins.
  • Inhibit the growth of certain bacteria by reducing available iron.
71
Q

Which type of leucocyte is this?

A

Dendritic cell

72
Q

Which type of leucocyte is this?

A

Macrophage

73
Q

Which type of leucocyte is this?

A

Neutrophil

74
Q

Which type of leucocyte is this?

A

Natural killer (NK) cell

75
Q

Which type of leucocyte is this?

A

Neutrophil

76
Q

Which type of leucocyte is this?

A

Neutrophil

77
Q

Which type of leucocyte is this?

A

Dendritic cell

78
Q

Which type of leucocyte is this?

A

Natural killer (NK) cell

79
Q

What type of cells are natural killer cells?

A

Specialised granular lymphocytes

80
Q

What do natural killer cells defend against?

A

Tumour cells and virally infected cells

81
Q

What do natural killer cells detect?

A
  • Pathogen indirectly.
  • Detect the effects of the pathogen on the host cell.
  • Detect a lack of host proteins or induction of stress proteins.
82
Q

Which antigen-presenting cells do natural killer cells attack?

A

Foreign-membrane histocompatibility complex (MHC) antigen-presenting cells.

83
Q

How do natural killer cells destroy their targets?

A

Releasing perforins or binding and directly inflicting damage

84
Q

What phagocytes are involved in the non-specific immune response?

A
  • Neutrophil
  • Dendritic cell
  • Macrophage
85
Q

What are phagocytes?

A

Engulfing cells that are able to recognise microbes through specific receptors.

86
Q

What are neutrophils?

A
  • Short-lived
  • Normally found in the blood
  • Highly phagocytic granulocyte
  • Produce lots of various antimicrobial factors
87
Q

What are dendritic cells?

A
  • Found throughout the body
  • Sentinels of the immune system
  • Phagocytic
  • A crucial link between innate and adaptive immune response.
88
Q

What are macrophages?

A
  • Found in most if not all tissues.
  • Highly phagocytic and antimicrobial.
  • Directs both innate and adaptive through cytokine secretion and antigen presentation.
  • Important for non-inflammatory clearance of apoptotic cells.
89
Q

Label the phases of phagocytosis from 1-5

A
  1. Chemotaxis
  2. Adherence
  3. Ingestion
  4. Digestion
  5. Killing
90
Q

Label the diagram of phagocytosis from a to h

A

a - microbe

b - phagocyte

c - Digested microbe in phagolysosome

d - Residual body (indigestible material)

e - Digestive enzymes

f - Plasma membrane

g - Lysosome

h - Pseudopod

91
Q

Five stages of phagocytosis

A
  1. Chemotaxis
  2. Adherence
  3. Ingestion
  4. Digestion
  5. Killing
92
Q

Symptoms of inflammation

A
  • Redness
  • Pain
  • Heat
  • Swelling
93
Q

Functions of inflammation

A
  • Traps invading microorganisms
  • Allows region to be perfused with phagocytes and NK cell rich tissue fluids
94
Q

Is inflammation specific or non-specific?

A

Non-specific

95
Q

3 phases of inflammation

A
  1. Vasodilation
  2. Increased blood vessel permeability
  3. Phagocyte migration and tissue repair
96
Q

What aids inflammation?

A
  • Histamine
  • Kinins
  • Prostaglandins
  • Leukotrienes
  • Complement inflammation proteins
97
Q

What are histamines?

A
  • Released by mast cells in connective tissue, basophils and platelets in response to injury.
  • Attract neutrophils and macrophages to injury sites.
  • Induces vasodilation and increased the permeability of blood vessels.
98
Q

What are kinins?

A
  • Formed from inactive precursor molecules called kininogens.
  • Induces vasodilation and increases the permeability of blood vessels.
  • Promotes chemotaxis by phagocytes.
99
Q

What are prostaglandins?

A
  • Lipids that are released by damaged cells.
  • Intensify effects of histamines and kinins.
  • Increase the migration of phagocytes through capillary walls.
100
Q

What are leukotrienes?

A
  • Guidance cue for phagocytes.
  • Increase the permeability of blood vessels.
  • Increase adherence of phagocytes to pathogens.
  • Released by basophils and mast cells.
101
Q

What are complement inflammation proteins?

A
  • Number of components associated with the release of histamine and the attraction of phagocytosis.
  • Direct the destruction of some bacteria.
102
Q

Label the diagram from a to g

A

a - Tissue injury

b - Chemotaxis

c - Microbe

d - Phagocyte

e - Phagocyte

f - Emigration

g - Vasodilation and increased permeability

103
Q

What does vasodilation do to blood vessels?

A

Increases permeability.

104
Q

What happens to arteries following injury?

A

Dilation and increased permeability

105
Q

What do the dilation and increased permeability of arteries following injury cause?

A
  • Localised oedema
  • Erythema
  • Increased temperature
  • Associated pain
106
Q

What results in the formation of a scab?

A

Leakage of blood clotting factors into the injury.

107
Q

What happens to the wound site within an hour of injury?

A

Neutrophils are directed to the wound site.

108
Q

Where do neutrophils and monocytes migrate from to get to the wound site?

A

From the bloodstream

109
Q

What is the process by which neutrophils and monocytes migrate to the wound site following injury?

A

Diapedesis

110
Q

Which white blood cells are first to the wound site?

A

Neutrophils followed by monocytes a few hours later

111
Q

What happens to neutrophils and monocytes in the wound site tissue?

A

They turn into wondering phagocytotic macrophages that eventually die and form pus.

112
Q

When does pus formation stop?

A

When the infection has been destroyed.

113
Q

How is pus dispersed?

A

Drainage or absorption

114
Q

What happens to pus when it does not disperse?

A
  • Abscess
  • Inflamed spot
  • Open running sore
  • Ulcer
115
Q

What makes an individual prone to extremity ulceration?

A

Poor blood circulation

116
Q

What diseases make an individual more prone to extremity ulcers as a result of poor circulation?

A
  • Diabetes
  • Atherosclerosis
117
Q

Another term for ‘extremity ulcer’

A

Static ulcer

118
Q

What is a fever?

A

Increase in body temperature associated with the inflammatory response.

119
Q

Why can a bacterial infection cause a fever?

A

Many bacterial toxins stimulate cytokine and interleukin release which make the hypothalamus increase the body temperature.

120
Q

Why does an increase in temperature benefit the non-specific immune response?

A
  • Enhances activity of interferons
  • Increases activity of macrophages
  • Inhibits replication of bacterial cells
121
Q

Why does an increase in temperature benefit the growth and repair of the body?

A
  • Increases biochemical reactions in the body.
  • Increases activity of repair associated enzymes.
122
Q

Label the diagram from a to u

A

a - eye

b - brain

c - microglia

d - keratinocyte

e - Langerhans cell

f - dermis

g - macrophage

h - blood vessel

i - spleen

j - splenic macrophage

k - small intestine

l - intestinal macrophage

m - lymph node

n - Subcapsular sinusoidal macrophages and medullary macrophages

o - osteoclast

p - bone marrow macrophage

q - Kupffer cell

r - liver

s - lung

t - alveolar macrophage

u - intraocular macrophage

123
Q

Function of a macrophage

A
  • Phagocytosis
  • Antigen presentation
  • Role in homeostasis
  • Role in tissue remodeling
124
Q

Function of splenic macrophage

A
  • Clearance of senescent red blood cells by red pulp macrophages.
  • Clearance of blood-borne particulate antigens by marginal zone macrophages.
125
Q

Function of intestinal macrophage

A
  • Recognition and removal of enteric pathogens.
  • Tolerance to food antigens and microbiota.
126
Q

Function of subscapular sinusoidal macrophages and medullary macrophages

A

Antigen capture and presentation to B cells.

127
Q

Function of osteoclast

A

Bone resorption

128
Q

Function of Kupffer cell

A

Clearance of pathogens and toxins

129
Q

Function of alveolar macrophage

A

Elimination of dust, allergens and microorganisms.

130
Q

Macrophage found in the brain

A

Microglia

131
Q

What do professional macrophages do?

A

Express receptors that detect signals that are present in unhealthy tissue.

132
Q

How do macrophage receptors detect unhealthy signals?

A
  • Scavenger receptors detect signals of apoptotic, necrotic and opsonised pathogens.
  • Toll-like receptors recognise pathogens.
  • Pattern recognition receptors detect foreign antigens or damage.
133
Q

What macrophage surface receptors are commonly used in research?

A
  • F4/80
  • CD11b and CD18 (MAC-1)
  • CD68
  • Fcγ
134
Q

What are the 4 macrophage subsets?

A
  • Classically activated macrophages (M1)
  • Alternatively activated macrophages (M2)
  • Regulatory macrophages
  • Myeloid-derived suppressor cells/tumour-associated macrophages (TAMs)
135
Q

Function of M1 macrophage

A
  • Defense against bacteria
  • Anti-tumour activity
  • Pro-inflammatory
136
Q

Function of M2 macrophage

A
  • Anti-inflammatory action
  • Regulates wound healing
  • Parasite killing
  • Interleukin 4 and 13 production
137
Q

Function of regulatory macrophages

A

Secretes large amounts of interleukin 10

138
Q

Function of TAMs

A

Anti-tumour immunity

139
Q

What are macrophages able to adopt upon stimulation?

A

Context dependent phenotypes; therefore, a spectrum of activated macrophage phenotypes.

140
Q

What are the two sides of the macrophage plasticity spectrum?

A
  • Classically activated macrophages
  • Alternatively activated macrophages
141
Q

What are the two divisions of alternatively activated macrophages?

A
  • Regulatory macrophages
  • Wound-healing macrophages
142
Q

What are some receptors of classically activated macrophages?

A
  • CD80
  • CCR7
  • Fcg
  • CD64
  • CD32
  • CD26
143
Q

What is the function of classically activated macrophages?

A

Produce nitric oxide and secrete interleukin 12 and tumour necrosis factor (TNF-α).

144
Q

What are some receptors of alternatively activated macrophages?

A
  • Scavenger receptor CD163
  • Mannose receptor CD206
145
Q

How do macrophages develop?

A
  • Myeloid precursors in red bone marrow
  • Monocytes in the blood
  • Specific macrophage in tissue
146
Q

Receptors on monocytes

A
  • β1 and β2 integrins
  • Immunoglobin super family members
  • Selectins
  • EGF-TM7 receptors
147
Q

Pro-inflammatory activations of macrophages

A
  • Innate activation of toll-like receptors (TLRs)
  • Classical activation (M1) of interferon (IFN-γ), lipopolysaccharides (LPS) and receptors and pro-inflammatory receptors.

IMS - Immunology (6 decks)

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