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ANS 328 I: Principles of Nutrition > Introduction > Flashcards

Introduction Flashcards

1
Q

What is nutrition?

A

The process by which an animal takes in and utilizes food substance.

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2
Q

What is metabolism?

A

All chemical processes going on in the body. Involves building and breaking.

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3
Q

What are nutrients?

A

Any chemical element or compound in the diet that supports normal life processes.

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4
Q

What are the 3 functions of nutrients? Please provide examples for each.

A
  1. Structural: Collagen (Protein), Bones (Ca^2+, P).
  2. Energy: Fats and Carbohydrates.
  3. Regulation: Body temp. regulation (water), Hormone production (Lipids and proteins).
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5
Q

What are the 6 categories of nutrients?

A
  1. Lipids.
  2. Proteins.
  3. Carbohydrates.
  4. Vitamins.
  5. Minerals.
  6. Water.
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6
Q

What 3 assumptions are made about water?

A

It is assumed to be provided ad libitum, some water will be found in food, and if animals need water, they will seek it.

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7
Q

What are the 5 required nutrients?

A
  1. Energy (Carbohydrates and Lipids).
  2. Protein.
  3. Minerals (Macro- and micro-/trace).
  4. Vitamins.
  5. Water.
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8
Q

Why are carbohydrates and lipids combined into energy?
CHECK THE ANSWER IS CORRECT.

A

Animals only need one or the other to survive, but both are given.
*The exception is only non-ruminant animals can survive w/o fat.

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9
Q

Some consider protein as falling under energy for nutrient requirements, so why is protein only fed to meet protein requirements and not energy requirements?

A

It would be too expensive to feed animals in this way.

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10
Q

What is a feedstuff?

A

Any material used for feed. Usually a specific ingredient in feed.

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11
Q

True or False: Water does NOT count as a feedstuff.

A

False.

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12
Q

What is a diet?

A

A mixture of feedstuffs that supplies nutrients to the animal. What is in the ration.

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13
Q

What is a ration?

A

The daily allowance of feed provided to an animal. Is made up of the diet.

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14
Q

What is a meal?

A

Feed consumed by an animal on a regular basis. Can be one, multiple, or ad libitum. Make(s) up the ration.

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15
Q

What is free choice?

A

The feedstuffs in the diet are separated out and the animal is able to choose which feedstuff(s) they consume.
*NOT the same as ad libitum.

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16
Q

What two required nutrients are always given free choice?

A
  1. Water.
  2. Minerals (In the form of mineral blocks).
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17
Q

Is free choice feeding advantageous? If not, then why?

A

It is not advantageous because there is no way to guarantee that the animal gets all of the nutrients it needs.

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18
Q

What is ad libitum?

A

Providing the diet in excess of what the animal will eat. Common in production animals.
Ex: On pasture (excluding supplementation).

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19
Q

What are the 3 types of feeding behavior?

A
  1. Carnivorous.
  2. Omnivorous.
  3. Herbivorous.
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20
Q

What are the 3 types of feeding behavior based on?

A

The digestive tract.
*I think dentition as well.

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21
Q

What are the 2 characteristics of carnivorous feeding behavior?

A
  1. Adapted to a meat-based diet.
  2. Short GI tract due to consuming easily digestible material.
    ex: Cats.
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22
Q

What are the 2 characteristics of omnivorous feeding behavior?

A
  1. Consume a wide variety of plant and animal-based materials.
  2. Intermediate length GI tract.
    ex: Pigs, dogs, poultry.
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23
Q

What are the 2 characteristics of herbivorous feeding behavior?

A
  1. Consume only plant-based material.
  2. Complex GI tract to allow for microbial fermentation.
    ex: Cattle, goats, horses, sheep.
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24
Q

What are the 3 ruminant feeding strategies?

A
  1. Concentrate selectors.
  2. Bulk and roughage eaters.
  3. Intermediate feeders.
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25
Q

What are the 2 characteristics of the concentrate selectors feeding behavior?

A
  1. Selects more nutritious, lower fiber parts of the plant. Seeds and leaves over stems.
  2. Smaller rumen due to reduced need for microbial fermentation.
    ex: Cervids, giraffes.
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26
Q

What are the 3 characteristics of the bulk and roughage eaters feeding behavior?

A
  1. Low quantities of high fiber material.
  2. Larger rumen to digest all of the material.
  3. Constant eating.
    ex: Cattle.
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27
Q

What are the 3 characteristics of the intermediate feeders feeding behavior?

A
  1. Use both the the concentrate selectors and bulk and roughage eaters feeding strategies.
  2. Highly adaptable.
  3. Intermediate size rumen.
    ex: Sheep, goats.
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28
Q

What are the 4 types of digestive tracts?

A
  1. Monogastric.
  2. Modified monogastric.
  3. Non-ruminant herbivores.
  4. Ruminants.
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29
Q

What is the layout of the monogastric tract from head to tail?

A
  1. Mouth.
  2. Esophagus.
  3. Stomach.
  4. SI.
  5. LI.
  6. Anus.
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30
Q

What happens in the mouth?

A
  1. Mastication.
  2. Prehension.
  3. Salivation.
  4. Start of chem. digestion.
  5. Swallowing.
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31
Q

What are 3 components of saliva?

A
  1. Enzymes.
  2. Antimicrobial proteins.
  3. Water.
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32
Q

What happens in the esophagus?

A

Food transitions from the mouth to the stomach.

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33
Q

What happens in the stomach?

A
  1. HCL secretion.
  2. Digestive enzyme secretion.
    *Very little chemical digestion.
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34
Q

What are the 3 functions of HCL?

A
  1. Kill bacteria.
  2. Activate digestive enzymes.
  3. Denature proteins.
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35
Q

What happens in the small intestine (SI)?

A
  1. Majority of chemical digestion.
  2. Absorption.
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36
Q

What are the 3 parts of the SI in order?

A
  1. Duodenum.
  2. Jejunum.
  3. Ileum.
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37
Q

What organ produces bile?

A

The liver.

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38
Q

What organ stores and secretes bile into the duodenum?

A

The gallbladder.

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39
Q

What gland secretes digestive enzymes into the duodenum?

A

The pancreas.

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40
Q

Where does absorption occur in the SI?

A

Along the brush border.

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41
Q

What 2 structures compose the brush border?

A
  1. Microvilli.
  2. Glycocalyx.
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42
Q

What lines the small intestine?

A

Villi.

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43
Q

What cells make up the villi?

A

Simple columnar epithelium.

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44
Q

What do the simple columnar epithelium have lining their apical/free surface?

A

Microvilli.

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45
Q

What is attached to the microvilli?

A

Glycocalyx, net-like projections.

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46
Q

What purpose does the structure of the small intestine serve?

A

To maximize surface area, thereby maximize the ability to absorb nutrients.

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47
Q

What are the 3 parts of the LI in order?

A
  1. Cecum.
  2. Colon.
  3. Rectum.
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48
Q

What happens in the large intestine (LI)?

A
  1. Some microbial digestion (cecum).
  2. Water absorption (colon).
  3. Formation of feces (rectum).
    *Depends on which section you are in.
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49
Q

What is the cecum described as?

A

A blind pouch.

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50
Q

Where is the cecum located?

A

Where the SI and LI meet.

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51
Q

What are the 3 parts of the colon?

A
  1. Ascending colon.
  2. Transverse colon.
  3. Descending colon.
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52
Q

What happens in the anus?

A

The elimination of feces.

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53
Q

What is the other name for the avian digestive tract?

A

Modified monogastric.

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54
Q

What is the order of the avian digestive tract?

A
  1. Beak.
  2. Esophagus.
  3. Crop.
  4. Esophagus.
  5. Proventriculus.
  6. Gizzard.
  7. SI.
  8. LI.
  9. Cloaca.
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55
Q

What is the function of the beak?

A

Prehension.

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56
Q

What is the function of the esophagus (pt. 1)?

A

Food transport to the crop.

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57
Q

What is the function of the crop?

A

Storage and moistening of food.

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58
Q

What is the function of the esophagus (pt. 2)?

A

Food transport from the crop to the proventriculus.

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59
Q

What is the function of the proventriculus?

A

Chemical digestion.

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60
Q

What is the function of the gizzard?

A

Mechanical digestion.

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61
Q

What is the function of the SI?

A

Chemical digestion and absorption.

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62
Q

What is the function of the LI (ceca and colon)?

A

Water absorption and some microbial digestion.

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63
Q

What is the function of the cloaca?

A

Common exit from the digestive, urinary, and reproductive tracts.

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64
Q

What are the 4 chambers of the ruminant stomach?

A
  1. Reticulum.
  2. Rumen.
  3. Omasum.
  4. Abomasum.
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65
Q

What is the location of the reticulum?

A

Most cranial compartment, against the diaphragm.

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66
Q

What is the function of the reticulum?

A

To trap foreign material.

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67
Q

What is the location of the rumen?

A

Caudal to the reticulum, Takes up the majority of the L. abdomen.

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68
Q

What is the function of the rumen?

A

Microbial digestion of fibrous material.
*Largest stomach chamber in adults.

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69
Q

What 2 things are produced during microbial digestion?

A
  1. VFA’s (Butyrate, Acetate, Propionate).
  2. Gas (CH4, CO2).
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70
Q

What is the function of the omasum?

A

To filter the digesta by particle size to regulate the movement of food through the GI tract and water absorption.

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71
Q

What is the function of the abomasum?

A

Chemical digestion.

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72
Q

What are the 3 advantages of being a ruminant v. a monogastric?

A
  1. Able to utilize fibrous feedstuffs.
  2. Microbes are able to synthesize amino acids and proteins.
  3. Microbes can synthesize all B vitamins and vitamin K.
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73
Q

What are the 2 disadvantages of being a ruminant v. a monogastric?

A
  1. Energy losses associated with fermentation due to gas and heat production by microbes.
  2. Loss of protein quality due to microbial protein synthesis removing essential amino acids the animal needs.
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74
Q

What are high quality proteins?

A

Proteins that are similar to those in the body. Contain essential amino acids.

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75
Q

What are the two classifications of non-ruminant herbivores?

A
  1. Foregut fermenter.
  2. Hindgut fermenter.
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76
Q

What are the two subclassifications of hindgut fermenters?

A
  1. Colon fermenter.
  2. Cecal fermenter.
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77
Q

Where does fermentation occur in a foregut fermenter?

A

A compartment of the stomach.

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78
Q

How many stomach compartments do foregut fermenters have?

A

2-3.
*Not the same as the ruminant stomach.

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79
Q

What are some examples of foregut fermenters?

A

Camelids, some monkeys, marsupials, Hippos, sloths.

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80
Q

Where does fermentation occur in colon fermenters?

A

In the colon (which is enlarged).
ex: Equids.

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81
Q

Where does fermentation occur in cecal fermenters?

A

In the cecum (which is enlarged).
ex: Rabbits, guinea pigs, most rodents.

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82
Q

What are the 2 types of feces cecal fermenters produce?

A
  1. Hard feces.
  2. Soft feces.
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83
Q

What are hard feces?

A

The normal feces that contains waste products and the indigestible parts of food.

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84
Q

What are soft feces?

A

The feces that come from the cecum (1-2x per day) that are consumed directly from the anus to give the nutrients not absorbed in the cecum another pass through the digestive tract.

85
Q

What are the 2 advantages of hindgut v. ruminant?

A
  1. Higher rate of food passage due to lacking an omasum.
  2. Better adapted to low quality forages.
86
Q

What are the 3 disadvantages of hindgut v. ruminant?

A
  1. Less available products of fermentation.
  2. Cannot maximize nutrient absorption.
  3. Less efficient nutrient absorption due to the location of the microbes.
87
Q

What is required when sampling feedstuffs?

A

Getting a representative sample, usually 12-20 individual samples (about 1 pound) that are combined.

88
Q

What is used to sample hay?

A

A hay probe, which is able to pierce to the center of the hay bale.
*Multiple hay bales may be used to get the 12-20 samples.

89
Q

What is used to sample pastures?

A

A 1ft. x 1ft. square is tossed into a pasture, the grass is cut to grazing height*. This process is repeated until 12-20 samples have been collected.
*Is estimated.

90
Q

What is used to sample grain?

A

A grain probe that is used to sample loose grain in a bin or grain can be collected when it is flowing out of the grain bin.

91
Q

What is feed microscopy?

A

Looking at feed samples under a microscope.

92
Q

What purpose is feed microscopy primarily used for?

A

Regulatory purposes.

93
Q

What is proximate analysis of feeds?

A

A standard system of chemical methods of feed analysis.

94
Q

What does proximate analysis of feeds measure?

A

How much of each nutrient is present in the feed sample with the exception of vitamins.

95
Q

How sophisticated are the procedures used in proximate analysis of feeds?

A

They are low tech and old school, but that makes them low cost and easy to do.

96
Q

Which proximate analysis is done first? Why?

A

Dry matter. It leaves every other nutrient behind except for water, which is the most variable of the nutrients in terms of the amount present. This makes it easier to compare feedstuffs.

97
Q

What happens to the nutrients that are left?

A

Their percentage changes, not their amount.

98
Q

What is the feed sample dried to?

A

A constant weight in a drying oven.

99
Q

What is as fed?

A

What the animal is fed. Includes water.

100
Q

What is measured when crude protein is measured?

A

The nitrogen content of the feed.

101
Q

How is the amount of crude protein calculated?

A

Grams of nitrogen X 6.25 (100 g protein/16 g nitrogen).

102
Q

What % of protein is nitrogen?

A

16%.
*It is also the only feedstuff that contains nitrogen.

103
Q

What 2 things does crude protein measurement not determine?

A
  1. If there is any non-protein nutrients that contain nitrogen.
  2. Protein quality.
104
Q

What does crude mean when placed in front of a word?

A

Estimating.

105
Q

How is crude fat measured?

A

By extracting fat from a sample using ethyl ether.

106
Q

What is the problem with crude fat measurement?

A

All fats, including indigestible waxes, will be extracted from the sample.

107
Q

How is ash measured?

A

By placing the feed sample in a crucible, placing it in a muffle furnace, and letting the muffle furnace heat to 500-600 Celsius to incinerate everything but the ash. More quantitative than qualitative.
*Only inorganic nutrient.

108
Q

What is one of the drawbacks of measuring ash using a muffle furnace?

A

Determining the amount of individual minerals must be done with separate testing.

109
Q

What is the way crude fiber is measured considered to be? Why is it described this way?

A

Not reliable or very accurate. Likely due to no enzymes being involved in the process used to measure crude fiber.

110
Q

What does the measuring of crude fiber help estimate?

A

The indigestible portion of the feed.

111
Q

What 2 animals need a high amount of crude fiber in their diet?

A
  1. Ruminants.
  2. Horses.
112
Q

What are the two others methods used to measure crude fiber?

A
  1. Neutral Detergent Fiber (NDF).
  2. Acid Detergent Fiber (ADF).
    *Same sample is used for both tests.
113
Q

What occurs in an NDF test?

A

A neutral detergent is used to solubilize the cell contents. Leaves behind hemicellulose, lignin, and cellulose. Always done first.
*Hemicellulose is semi-digested.

114
Q

What occurs in an ADF test?

A

An acid detergent is used to solubilize the hemicellulose. Leaves behind cellulose and lignin. Always done second.

115
Q

How is nitrogen-free extract calculated?

A

By adding up all of the values for the other nutrients and subtracting that number from 100.
*NFE= 100 - (ash + CF + EE + CP + water).

116
Q

What is estimated with the nitrogen-free extract calculation?

A

The amount of carbohydrates in the feed sample.
*Done last.

117
Q

What nutrient is not included in proximate analysis of feeds? Why?

A

Vitamins. Due to their presence being in a negligible amount.

118
Q

What is total digestible nutrients (TDN)?

A

The sum of all fractions of feed that are digestible.

119
Q

How is TDN calculated?

A

Digestible CP + Digestible NFE + Digestible CF + 2.25 x digestible EE.

120
Q

Why are minerals not included in a TDN calculation?

A

Minerals are elements and therefore cannot be digested.

121
Q

What is the 4-9-4 rule?

A

1g of carbs= 4 kcal, 1g of fat= 9 kcal, 1g of protein= 4 kcal.

122
Q

What is a kilocalorie (kcal)?

A

The amount of heat required to raise 1 kg of water 1 degree Celsius.

123
Q

How is digestible CP calculated?

A

CP in feed - CP in feces.

124
Q

What 2 things can proximate analysis not measure?

A
  1. Individual amino acids.
  2. Mineral types.
125
Q

Why is a bomb calorimeter used to determine the energy content of feed?

A

The sample is incinerated, allowing for a temperature change in the water to be observed and equated to kcal.
*More exact than TDN, but does not tell us how the energy is used.

126
Q

What is gross energy?

A

The amount of heat produced when feed is completely oxidized (like what occurs in a bomb calorimeter).

127
Q

What is digestible energy?

A

Energy that is digested and absorbed by an animal.
*Gross energy-Fecal energy.

128
Q

What is metabolizable energy?

A

Energy available for use by cells.
*Digestible energy - Urine (dried) energy - Gas energy.
**Expensive to calculate due to requiring a metabolism crate.

129
Q

What are the two categories of net energy?

A
  1. Maintenance.
  2. Production.
130
Q

What is maintenance energy?

A

Energy used to maintain normal function/homeostasis.
*Metabolic energy - Heat increment/Heat from metabolism.
**Net energy is directed here first.

131
Q

What is production energy?

A

Energy used to produce products.
ex: Milk, reproduction, growth, exercise.

132
Q

What is digestibility?

A

The amount of a nutrient that is digested and absorbed.

133
Q

What are the 5 ways of assessing digestibility?

A
  1. Metabolism crate.
  2. Collection bags.
  3. Nylon bags (ruminants only).
  4. Fecal marker.
  5. Ileal digestibility.
134
Q

How are animals housed in metabolism crates?

A

Individually for a few days with enough room to lay down, but not turn around.

135
Q

How is digestibility measured using metabolism crates?

A

Feed intake is measured and feces is collected, for later proximate analysis and comparison. The nutrient discrepancy between the feed and feces will be the amount of nutrients that are digestible.

136
Q

How is digestibility measured using collection bags?

A

Feed intake is measured and the feces in the bag, which is placed on the animal’s hind end, along with a feed sample, undergoes proximate analysis. The nutrient discrepancy between the feces and feed will be the amount of nutrients that are digestible.

137
Q

How is digestibility measured using nylon bags?

A

A cannulated animal has a nylon bag containing feed placed in its rumen and left there for a period of time. The bag is then removed and the feedstuffs inside are analyzed to see what the microbes consumed.

138
Q

How is digestibility measured using fecal markers?

A

A known concentration of an indigestible (usually brightly colored) marker is mixed with the feed. The feces is collected when the marker appears. The change in the concentration of the marker versus the nutrients in the feed allows for digestibility to be determined.

139
Q

How is digestibility measured using ileal digestibility?

A

Collecting the contents of the ileum through a cannula.

140
Q

What is feed manufacturing?

A

The process of converting raw material into complete, balanced diets.

141
Q

Where does feed manufacturing occur?

A

Feed mills.

142
Q

What are feed mills?

A

Highly automated manufacturing plants with many bins of feedstuffs that takes diet information put in computers, and turns it into diets.

143
Q

What are the 2 types of feeds that usually come out of feed mills?

A
  1. Meal-type.
  2. Pelleted.
144
Q

What is least cost formulation?

A

When the computers pick the cheapest combination of feedstuffs to meet the nutrient requirements in a feed.
*More common in production animals.

145
Q

True or False: Expensive feed is more consistent.

A

True.

146
Q

What is one of the highest costs of raising production animals?

A

Feed costs (70% of production costs).

147
Q

What 6 feeds are considered to be specialty feeds?

A
  1. Calf grower ration.
  2. Milk replacer.
  3. Pet food.
  4. Horse food.
  5. Llama food.
  6. Rabbit food.
148
Q

What does the abbreviation AAFCO stand for?

A

Association of American Feed Control Officials.

149
Q

What are AAFCO’s functions?

A
  1. To set standards for quality and safety of animal feed and pet food**.
  2. Establishes ingredient definitions.
    *Not a regulatory organization.
    **The FDA uses these standards to set regulations.
150
Q

What are the 9 parts on most feed labels?

A
  1. Net weight.
  2. Species the food is for.
  3. Product name, brand name.
  4. Nutritional adequacy statement (pet foods).
  5. Guaranteed analysis.
  6. Precautionary statement for safe and effective use.
  7. Common name of ingredients.
  8. Directions for use.
  9. Name and mailing address of manufacturer.
151
Q

What is air-dry food?

A

90% DM food that is assumed to pick up 10% moisture from the air.
*Feed label does not list % moisture.

152
Q

What is listed as part of a guaranteed analysis?

A
  1. Min. % CP and crude fat.
  2. Max. % Crude fiber and % moisture.
    *On an AF basis.
153
Q

Why would a precautionary statement be included on a feed label?

A

If it is a medicated feed because it may not be able to be fed to certain animals. ex: Pregnant animals.

154
Q

What is the nutritional adequacy statement?

A

A statement on whether or not the pet food meets the daily requirement for the animal it is being fed to.

155
Q

What 3 pieces of information are not usually listed on feed labels?

A
  1. Information regarding protein quality.
  2. Energy information.
  3. Digestible or metabolizable energy value*.
    *Included on the labels of feed given to production animals and performance animals.
156
Q

What are the regulations around the use of drugs in feed?

A

The drugs are placed into different categories based on the risk associated with them for human consumption.
*Used in food animals.

157
Q

Why would someone choose to manufacture their own feed?

A

It is cheaper to purchase the raw ingredients than to buy the pre-mixed bags of feed.
*Mostly seen in production animals.

158
Q

What two production animal industries predominately buy pre-made feed?

A
  1. Poultry.
  2. Swine.
159
Q

What process do raw materials undergo when making a feed?

A

Grinding.

160
Q

What is the efficiency/how well the feed is mixed influenced by?

A

The order the ingredients are added in.

161
Q

What is the order in which the feedstuffs are added when mixing your own feed?

A
  1. Feedstuffs that make up the majority of the ration.
  2. The wet ingredients. Add slowly.
  3. Any feedstuffs that are <2.5% of the ration. Normally vitamin or mineral premixes.
162
Q

What are premixes?

A

Due to the small amounts of vitamins and minerals animals may need, some of the feedstuffs that are the majority of the ration are mixed with the vitamins or minerals to make it easier to weigh out and make sure the animal gets all of it.

163
Q

How long should the feedstuffs be mixing?

A

15 minutes.

164
Q

What is pelleting?

A

Forcing mixed feed ingredients through a pellet die to form pellets using friction and heat.

165
Q

What are the advantages of pelleting?

A
  1. Increased bulk density (More feed in a smaller space).
  2. Reduced dust (good for humans and animals).
  3. Increased feed intake (More food fits in the stomach).
  4. Prevents sorting.
166
Q

What is the biggest concern with pelleting feed?

A

Pellet quality or if the pellet crumbles easily.

167
Q

What is feed normally conditioned with before pelleting?

A

Steam.

168
Q

Why is feed preconditioned with steam before pelleting?

A

To bring out the functional properties/natural adhesive properties of the feedstuffs.

169
Q

What feedstuff has good functional properties?

A

Wheat gluten.

170
Q

What 4 commonly used feedstuffs have poor functional properties?

A
  1. Corn.
  2. Rice.
  3. Sorghum.
  4. Oats.
171
Q

What is added to feeds to compensate for poor functional properties when wheat is unavailable?

A

Pellet binders, a gelatin-like substance.

172
Q

What are the 7 other ways of processing feedstuffs?

A
  1. Grinding in a hammermill (most common).
  2. Dry or steam rolling (Common in oats).
  3. Popping (exposing the inside of the grain).
  4. Flaking (Shaving off parts of the feedstuff. ex: Corn flakes).
  5. Micronized grains (Infrared heat treatment).
  6. Extrusion (Allowing for pellet expansion to allow shapes to be made from it).
  7. Tempering (Pre-treating the feedstuff with steam before rolling or grinding it).
173
Q

What is feed efficiency?

A

Pounds or kgs of product output/pounds or kgs of feed input.

174
Q

Will feed efficiency ever be 1?

A

No, due to the maintenance needs of the animal.

175
Q

What is the feed conversion ratio?

A

Unit of feed : Unit of product.

176
Q

How is feed efficiency improved?

A

Through genetics.
*Variation among breeds.

177
Q

What is the domestic animal with the highest feed efficiency?

A

Chickens.

178
Q

How do we know feed intake?

A

Due to feed trials done in the past.

179
Q

What are the 4 main properties that affect feed intake?

A
  1. Palatability (always the second property considered).
  2. Energy contents.
  3. Protein/amino acid concentration.
  4. Forage composition.
180
Q

Before the 4 main properties that affect feed intake are considered, what is looked at first?

A

Availability/access to water. Without water, feed intake will not be maximized.

181
Q

What are 8 other factors that affect feed intake?

A
  1. Pregnancy.
  2. Temperature in the environment.
  3. Conditioning.
  4. Body size.
  5. Fatigue level.
  6. Illness.
  7. Amount of exercise.
  8. Smell.
182
Q

What is palatability?

A

A combination of taste, texture, and olfaction that allows an animal to determine whether or not it is safe to eat the food.
*Prevents poison ingestion.

183
Q

What is a feed preference test?

A

When an animal is presented with 2 different feeds at the same time. Whichever feed the animal eats more of is the one they prefer. Done with multiple separate animals simultaneously.

184
Q

What is the energy concentration?

A

The amount of energy in the diet.

185
Q

What do animals eat to meet?

A

Their energy requirement.
*Not always true, hence overweight animals.

186
Q

What are the 2 types of feedback that the brain receives to know that the stomach is full?

A
  1. Distension feedback.
  2. Chemostatic feedback.
187
Q

What is distension feedback?

A

As food fills the stomach and the stomach reaches capacity, stretch receptors send signals to the satiety centers of the brain. Applies to the crop in birds.

188
Q

What is chemostatic feedback?

A

The brain uses the levels of certain compounds, such as, blood glucose or VFAs, in the blood stream as an indicator that the animal is full. Takes a few minutes for the brain to register the levels and communicate whether or not the animal should continue eating.

189
Q

What does a high fiber diet result in?

A

Smaller amount of food needed to trigger stretch receptors, allowing for weight loss, but also the animal may not get all of the nutrients it needs.

190
Q

What 2 factors is rumen fill/distension feedback dependent on?

A
  1. NDF (High NDF —> High fiber content —>Increased amount of time spent in the rumen —> decreased feed intake).
  2. Water content (High water content —> High bulk —> More room it takes up in the rumen —> Decreased feed intake.
191
Q

How long can forages stay in the rumen?

A

Up to 48 hours.

192
Q

What are the 3 layers of the contents of the rumen from top to bottom?

A
  1. Gases.
  2. Forage mat, for rumen health and cudding.
  3. Grains and the previous day’s forages.
193
Q

When referring to protein and amino acid concentration, what affects feed intake in monogastric animals?

A

The essential amino acids contained in the food. Monogastric animals, especially pigs, have been observed seeking out foods that contain essential amino acids they are deficient in.

194
Q

When referring to protein and amino acid concentration, what affects feed intake in ruminant animals?

A
  1. Bypass proteins.
  2. Nitrogen content.
    *More protein leads to increased production, which leads to increased feed intake.
195
Q

What is the relationship between environmental temperature and feed intake?

A

Inverse.

196
Q

What is the metabolic comfort zone of an animal?

A

The range in which an animal’s metabolism is at a minimum. This means that animal is not cold or hot.

197
Q

What is the heat increment of a feedstuff?

A

The amount of heat produced metabolizing the feedstuff.

198
Q

What nutrient has the highest heat increment and why?

A

Protein. Due to the body metabolizing the nitrogen it contains.

199
Q

What is the relationship between body temperature and metabolic rate?

A

Inverse.
*Why animals that are cold eat more.

200
Q

When does feed intake decrease in pregnant animals? Why?

A

During late gestation. There is not enough room for the stomach to stretch to full capacity.

201
Q

At what point after parturition does feed intake increase? Why?

A

Peak lactation. Due to how energy intensive lactation is and lactation is production energy, which is the last place energy goes.

202
Q

What is neophobia?

A

Fear of new things, in this case food.

203
Q

How do animals with neophobia act?

A

They will refuse to eat what is given to them, even though it is food, because they do not recognize it as food.

204
Q

What is adverse conditioning?

A

Training an animal NOT to eat certain, potentially, toxic foods.
ex: Spray dangerous plants in a pasture instead of treating the entire pasture with herbicide.

205
Q

What is the relationship between body size and metabolic intake?

A

Inverse.
The amount of food consumed per unit of body weight, which is why small animals have a high metabolic intake.

206
Q

What is the equation for metabolic size?

A

(BW)^0.75

207
Q

How does the smell in the environment affect animals?

A

If something in the environment smells bad, the animals will avoid eating in that area.
ex: Cow feces discourage cows from eating in the areas where the feces are. Reduces incidences of parasitism.

208
Q

How does fatigue affect animals?

A

If it requires too much energy to seek, ingest, chew, or ruminate food-the animal will stop eating.

ANS 328 I: Principles of Nutrition (8 decks)

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