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Y11 Biology 2025 > Intro to Y12 2025 > Flashcards

Intro to Y12 2025 Flashcards

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1
Q

Outline the steps (1-6) in bacterial transformation

A

Isolate gene for insulin chain A
Use reverse transcriptase to get c.DNA from isolated mRNA so that it contains no introns.
Cut gene and plasmid using the same endonuclease.
Stick insulin gene into plasmid using DNA ligase which joins the sugar phosphate backbone.
Transform bacteria using heat or electroporation and check for successful transformation by growing on an antibiotic plate with ampicillin and then an antibiotic plate with tetracycline
Bacteria with no plasmid will not grow on the ampicillin plate, successfully transformed bacteria with the non-recombinant plasmid will grow on both plates and the successfully transformed bacteria with the recombinant plasmid will only grow on the ampicillin plate.

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2
Q

How many polypeptides make up insulin?

A

2

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3
Q

What is the function of reverse transcriptase?

A

Convert c.DNA from isolated mRNA so that it contains no introns.

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4
Q

Why is reverse transcriptase used in the process?

A

So the introns are removed and a functional insulin is produced.

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5
Q

What is used to cut the plasmid when producing insulin?

A

Endonucleases

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6
Q

What is used to join the plasmid and insulin gene?

A

DNA ligase

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7
Q

What is the purpose of the AmpR and TetR genes in the plasmid?

A

To check for successful transformation of the bacteria

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8
Q

What is a recombinant plasmid?

A

A plasmid with the target gene (insulin gene)

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9
Q

What is the function of the promoter region?

A

Allows RNA polymerase to attach and transcribe the DNA

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10
Q

Which bacteria will only grow on ampicillin?

A

Bacteria that are successfully transformed with the recombinant plasmid

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11
Q

Which bacteria will grow on ampicillin and tetracycline?

A

Bacteria that are successfully transformed with the non-recombinant plasmid

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12
Q

Which bacteria will not grow on ampicillin or tetracycline?

A

Bacteria that have not been successfully transformed

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13
Q

Which antibiotics will bacteria that have been successfully transformed with the non-recombinant plasmid grow on?

A

Ampicillin and Tetracycline

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14
Q

Which antibiotics will bacteria that have been successfully transformed with the recombinant plasmid grow on?

A

Ampicillin only

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15
Q

Which antibiotics will bacteria that have not been successfully transformed with the recombinant plasmid grow on?

A

None (not ampicillin or tetracycline)

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16
Q

Qualitative data

A

Qualitative data is descriptions e.g. colour and is represented with a bar graph

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17
Q

Quantitative data

A

Quantitative data is numerical data e.g. 10 seconds and is represented as a line graph or histogram

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18
Q

Independent Variable

A

The independent variable is a factor that is changed or manipulated in an experiment to determine its effect on the dependent variable.

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19
Q

Dependent Variable

A

The dependent variable is measured to determine if the change or manipulation of the independent variable had any effect.

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20
Q

Control Variable

A

Something that is kept constant throughout the experiment.

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21
Q

Control group

A

A control group is where the factor affecting change is removed to provide a baseline for a comparison against the experimental group.

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22
Q

Experimental method scaffold

A

There will be two ….
In the experimental group………… will be changed by ………………….
Add …… to a test tube.
Add…..
Add….
The ……………..will be measured by ……………………after
All other variables will be kept the same e.g. ………………………
Repeat the above for the other ….*not relevant if it is an all or nothing.
For the control group repeat the above but with no ……………….
Repeat the experiment ………….
If ……………. then …………………

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23
Q

Accuracy

A

The accuracy of a measurement relates to how close it is to the ‘true’ value of the quantity being measured.

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24
Q

Improve accuracy

A

Accuracy can be improved by using a better measuring tool that is being used to measure the dependent variable or collecting quantitative data instead of qualitative data

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25
Q

Precision

A

Precision is how closely a set of measurement values agree with each other.

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26
Q

Improve precision

A

To improve the precision, you can make sure everything else is controlled and repeat your experiment more to spot anomalies and variation within the results.

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27
Q

Reproducibility

A

The closeness of the agreement between the results of measurements of the same quantity being measured, carried out under changed conditions of measurement. These different conditions include a different method of measurement, different observer, different measuring instrument, different location, different conditions of use, and different time.

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28
Q

Repeatability

A

The closeness of the agreement between the results of successive measurements of the same quantity being measured, carried out under the same conditions of measurement. These conditions include the same measurement procedure, the same observer, the same measuring instrument used under the same conditions, the same location, and repetition over a short period of time.

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29
Q

Cellular respiration

A

The release of energy from glucose in cells.

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30
Q

Aerobic cellular respiration

A

the release of energy from glucose in the presence of oxygen

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31
Q

Aerobic cellular respiration word equation

A

Glucose + oxygen –> carbon dioxide + water

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32
Q

Aerobic cellular respiration stages and locations

A

Glycolysis (cytosol)
Krebs cycle (mitochondrial matrix)
Electron transport chain (mitochondrial cristae)

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33
Q

Draw a mitochondria

A
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34
Q

Describe glycolysis

A

Glucose is broken down into two pyruvate molecules and two loaded co-enzymes

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35
Q

Inputs to glycolysis

A

Glucose, 2 NAD+, 2 ADP + Pi

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36
Q

Outputs of glycolysis

A

Pyruvate, 2 NADH, 2 ATP

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37
Q

Describe the Kreb’s cycle

A

Removal of H+ ions from pyruvate creating, ATP, loaded co-enzymes and CO2

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38
Q

Inputs Kreb’s Cycle

A

Pyruvate, 8 NAD+, 2 ADP + Pi

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39
Q

Outputs Kreb’s Cycle

A

Carbon dioxide, 8 NADH, 2 ATP

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40
Q

Describe electron transport chain

A

H+ ions are used to create a concentration gradient to drive the synthesis of ATP. Oxygen is the final hydrogen ion and electron acceptor to form water.

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41
Q

Inputs electron transport chain

A

Oxygen, 10 NADH, 26-28 ADP + Pi

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42
Q

Outputs electron transport chain

A

Water, 26-28 ATP, 10 NAD+

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43
Q

Co-enzyme

A

In general, these are molecules that assist enzymes that have loaded or unloaded forms which go between reactions in a cell in a cyclical manner.

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44
Q

Role of NADH

A

Coenzymes assist enzymes, NAD+ carries hydrogen ions and electrons by forming NADH and moves from glycolysis and Krebs cycle to the electron transport chain in a cyclical manner.

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45
Q

Role of ATP in aerobic cellular respiration

A

Coenzymes assist enzymes, ADP + Pi carries energy by forming ATP it moves between glycolysis, Krebs cycle and the electron transport chain from parts of the cell in a cyclical manner.

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46
Q

Net ATP output aerobic cellular respiration

A

30-32 ATP

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47
Q

Evolution

A

change in allele frequency over time.

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48
Q

Allele

A

Variation of a gene at a particular gene locus.

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49
Q

Natural selection scaffold

A

VA – There is variation in the phenotypes in the __ population due to random mutations as ___
ST – All organisms face a daily struggle to survive and reproduce. The ___ struggle because _____ which is the selection pressure
SE – The ____ have a selective advantage as ___
IN – The organisms that have a selective advantage (___), survive, reproduce and their offspring inherit the alleles for the trait of ___
E – Evolution occurs by natural selection and there is a change in allele frequency over time and the ___ population becomes better suited to its environment.

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50
Q

Speciation

A

the formation of a new species

51
Q

Gene flow

A

The movement (migration) of an individual into or out of a population changing allele frequency.

52
Q

Why could speciation not occur?

A

Gene flow between populations
Similar selection pressures
Not enough time for mutations to accumulate and cause change

53
Q

How do new alleles arise in a population

A

Mutations

54
Q

Allopatric speciation

A

The formation of new species (speciation) due to a permanent geographical barrier

55
Q

Allopatric speciation scaffold

A

Two populations of ______ are geographically isolated by a permanent geographical barrier of _______.
There is no gene flow.
There are different selection pressures (e.g. _____) acting on each population of ____and those with a selective advantage for (____________) survive and reproduce.
Mutations accumulate over many generations in each population.
Eventually they can no longer interbreed to produce fertile and viable offspring and would be considered 2 separate species.

56
Q

Example of species for allopatric speciation

A

Galapagos Island finches

57
Q

Pathogen

A

disease-causing agent

58
Q

What makes a cellular pathogen?

A

pathogens that can reproduce independently and undertake independent metabolic processes (like cellular respiration and protein synthesis)

59
Q

Examples of cellular pathogens

A

Bacteria, fungi, protozoa, parasites

60
Q

What makes a non-cellular pathogen?

A

pathogens that can’t reproduce independently and cannot undertake independent metabolic processes (like cellular respiration and protein synthesis)

61
Q

Examples of non-cellular pathogen.

A

Virus, prion

62
Q

Antigen

A

An antigen is a unique molecule or part of a molecule that can initiate an immune response.

63
Q

Which antigen will initiate an immune response.

A

Non-self

64
Q

Advantage and disadvantage of innate immune system.

A

Advantage: Quick to respond
Disadvantage: Does not form a memory of the pathogen

65
Q

What is a leukocyte?

A

A white blood cell

66
Q

Name the white blood cells (leukocytes) in the innate immune system.

A

Phagocytes (macrophages, dendritic cells, neutrophils)
Natural killer cells
Mast cells
Eosinophils

67
Q

Name the two roles of a phagocyte.

A

Phagocytosis
Antigen presentation (dendritic cells and macrophages only)

68
Q

Phagocytosis overview

A

Recognise, engulf and digest foreign material, such as pathogens.

69
Q

Phagocytosis steps

A

Phagocyte recognises a non-self-antigen and engulfs pathogen forming a phagosome
Phagosome fuses with lysosome forming a phagolysosome
Pathogen destroyed by digestive enzymes (lysozymes) in lysosome
Destroyed pathogen removed from the cell by exocytosis

70
Q

Antigen presentation

A

Antigen presenting cells (macrophage or dendritic cells). This means that they will move from the site of infection to the lymph node to present non-self-antigens on MHCII to T and B cells to initiate the adaptive immune response.

71
Q

MHCII marker

A

Dendritic cells and macrophages (antigen presenting cells) have MHCII markers on their surface. These are markers that allow the cells to carry the non-self-antigen to the lymph node.

72
Q

Site of clonal selection

A

Lymph node

73
Q

Signs of inflammation

A

Redness
Heat
Swelling
Pain

74
Q

Process of inflammation

A

Damaged cells/tissues release cytokines. These attract neutrophils to the site of infection and activate mast cells to release histamine.
Histamine causes vasodilation which is more blood flow to the area. This means that there will be more macrophages, neutrophils and dendritic cells brought to the site of infection and cause redness and an increase in temperature.
Histamine also causes an increase in membrane permeability. This means that more tissue fluid leaks out causing swelling and pain and means that the phagocytes can reach the tissues and help eliminate the pathogen by phagocytosis.

74
Q

Function of a mast cell

A

Release histamine, initiating inflammation and allergic responses

75
Q

Cause of redness and heat during inflammation

A

Histamine causes vasodilation which is more blood flow to the area. This means that there will be more macrophages, neutrophils and dendritic cells brought to the site of infection and cause redness and an increase in temperature.

76
Q

Cause of pain and swelling during inflammation

A

Histamine also causes an increase in membrane permeability. This means that more tissue fluid leaks out causing swelling and pain and means that the phagocytes can reach the tissues and help eliminate the pathogen by phagocytosis.

77
Q

Extracellular pathogens initiate which adaptive immune response?

A

Humoral

78
Q

Intracellular pathogens initiate which adaptive immune response?

A

Cell-mediated

79
Q

Advantage and disadvantage of adaptive immune system

A

Advantage: Produces a memory of the pathogen

Disadvantage: Takes time to respond

80
Q

Lymphocyte

A

White blood cell (leukocyte) involved in adaptive immune response

81
Q

Clonal selection

A

Clonal selection occurs. This means that the antigen presenting cell that has moved from the site of infection to the lymph node to present a non-self-antigen on an MHCII marker to a B cell and T helper cell which causes the T helper cell to release cytokines to activate the naive B cell.

82
Q

Clonal expansion and clonal differentiation

A

Clonal differentiation and expansion occurs. This means that the B cell divides by mitosis forming a B memory cell and a plasma cell.

83
Q

Function of plasma cell

A

secrete specific, complementary and free-floating antibodies.

84
Q

Function of B memory cell

A

remain in circulation to provide long term immunity.

85
Q

Humoral immune response steps

A

Clonal selection occurs. This means that the antigen presenting cell that has moved from the site of infection to the lymph node to present a non-self-antigen on an MHCII marker to a B cell and T helper cell which causes the T helper cell to release cytokines to activate the naive B cell.
Clonal differentiation and expansion occurs. This means that the B cell divides by mitosis forming a B memory cell and a plasma cell. The plasma cell then secretes specific, complementary and free floating antibodies.
The B memory cell remains in circulation to provide long term immunity.

86
Q

Protein level of an antibody

A

Quaternary this means that there are two or more polypeptide chains (4) joined together

87
Q

Draw and label an antibody

A
88
Q

Function of an antibody

A

Antibodies have specific and complimentary antigen binding sites to __, they attach to the antigen and then
Agglutinate the pathogen /
Neutralise the pathogen /
Opsonise the pathogen /
Activate complement proteins /
… so that phagocytosis is made easier

89
Q

Agglutination by antibodies

A

Agglutination of ____ pathogens occurs. This means that there are less pathogens circulating and makes phagocytosis of more pathogens easier.

89
Q

Neutralisation by antibodies

A

Neutralisation of ____ toxins/ ____ virus occurs. This means that they become inactive and will reduce the severity of disease.

90
Q

Opsonisation by antibodies

A

Opsonisation occurs by antibodies attaching to ____pathogens. This means that phagocytosis is more likely as they have been marked for destruction.

91
Q

Activation of complement proteins by antibodies

A

Activate complement proteins. This means that the complement proteins produce a membrane attack complex which destroys the pathogen by lysing the plasma membrane.

92
Q

Monoclonal antibody

A

Monoclonal antibodies (mAb) are laboratory produced antibodies that can bind to specific and complementary antigens on a cell.

93
Q

What diseases can monoclonal antibodies be used for?

A

Autoimmune and cancer. But also some pathogens.

94
Q

Bispecific monoclonal antibody

A

a mAb with two different antigen binding sites

95
Q

Conjugated monoclonal antibody

A

mAb connected to a chemotherapy drug or radioactive particle

96
Q

Function of a monoclonal antibody

A

Monoclonal antibodies have specific and complimentary antigen binding sites to __, they attach to the antigen and then
Flag the cell for phagocytosis by a macrophage /
Activate natural killer cells /
Activate complement proteins /
Deliver a toxic drug, if conjugated

97
Q

Outline the function of CRISPR in a bacteria.

A

Primitive adaptive immune system this means that
Invading viral DNA is cut and stored as spacers in the CRISPR array providing a memory of viral infections
If the same virus reinfects the bacteria, gRNA is transcribed and attached to a Cas9 endonuclease forming a gRNA-Cas9 complex
gRNA guides Cas9 to the viral DNA and Cas9 recognises the PAM sequence and then cuts the viral DNA, preventing destruction of the bacteria.

98
Q

What is photosynthesis?

A

Photosynthesis converts light energy into chemical energy as glucose.

99
Q

Word equation photosynthesis

A

Carbon dioxide + water –> glucose + oxygen (sunlight, excess water and chlorophyll on arrow)

100
Q

Chloroplast drawing

A
101
Q

Describe light dependent reaction

A

Light energy is used to split water (photolysis) into hydrogen ions and electrons.

102
Q

Describe light independent reaction

A

Reduction of carbon dioxide (using the enzyme Rubisco) where carbon dioxide gains hydrogen ions and electrons to form glucose.

103
Q

Inputs LDR photosynthesis

A

Water, ADP + Pi, NADP+, light

104
Q

Inputs LIR photosynthesis

A

Carbon dioxide, ATP, NADPH

105
Q

Outputs LDR photosynthesis

A

Oxygen, ATP, NADPH

106
Q

Outputs LIR photosynthesis

A

Glucose, ADP + Pi
NADP+

107
Q

Role of NADP in photosynthesis

A

Coenzymes assist enzymes, NADP+ carries hydrogen ions and electrons by forming NADPH and moves from the light dependent reaction to the light independent reaction in a cyclical manner.

108
Q

Role of ATP in photosynthesis

A

Coenzymes assist enzymes, ADP carries energy by forming ATP and moves from the light dependent reaction to the light independent reaction in a cyclical manner.

109
Q

Rubisco function

A

Catalyses the light independent reaction (Calvin cycle)

110
Q

Photorespiration

A

Oxygen competitively inhibits Rubisco , reducing photosynthesis and glucose formed

111
Q

How do C4 plants prevent photorespiration?

A

Separate light independent reaction by location.
Partly in mesophyll cell and partly in bundlesheath cell

112
Q

Why is preventing photorespiration an advantage?

A

More photosynthesis = more glucose = more growth

113
Q

Enzymes involved in C4 photosynthesis

A

Rubisco and PEPCase

114
Q

Role of PEPCase in C4 photosynthesis

A

Convert carbon dioxide into a C4 molecule in the mesophyll cell

115
Q

Why does C4 photosynthesis prevent photorespiration?

A

Rubisco is in a different location (cell) to the light dependent reaction, so any oxygen produced in the LDR cannot bind to Rubisco

116
Q

Similarities of C3 and C4 photosynthesis

A

Both do the same light dependent reaction during the day in the mesophyll cell
Both use Rubisco for the calvin cycle
Both do the light independent reaction completely during the day

117
Q

Which environment are C3 plants suited to?

A

Wet, cool

118
Q

Which environment are C4 plants suited to?

A

Hot

119
Q

Which environmental factor increases photorespiration?

A

Temperature (heat)

120
Q

WHich part of the cell does the LIR of photosynthesis occur

A

stroma of chloroplast

121
Q

Which part of the cell does the LDR of photosynthesis occur

A

THylakoid membrane of grana in chloroplast

Y11 Biology 2025 (16 decks)

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