Intro to joint disease Flashcards

1
Q

Define “pauci”

A

Synonym of oligo (2-3 joints involved); commonly used in pediatrics

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2
Q

What are the general time frames of joint disease?

A
  • acute= days to weeks
  • subacute= weeks to 2 months
  • chronic > 3 months
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3
Q

Contrast the axial and appendicular skeleton

A
  • axial
    • skull
    • mandible
    • spine
    • pelvis
  • appendicular
    • arms/legs
    • coxa
    • clavicle/scapula
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4
Q

What are synovial joints?

A
  • also known as diarthrodial joints
  • allow gliding movement facilitated by lubricated cartilagenous surfaces
    • hyaline cartilage on articular surfaces
    • synovial cavity
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5
Q

Describe hyaline cartilage

A
  • functions
    • elastic shock absorber
    • friction free surface (along with synovial fluid)
  • avascular; composed of…
    • type II collagen (tensile strength)
    • water/proteoglycans (elasticity and decreases friction)
    • chondrocytes (maintain cartilaginous matrix)
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6
Q

Describe the parts of the synovial cavity

A
  • synovial cells line cavity; cuboidal typically 1-4 layers thick
    • produce synovial fluid
    • remove debris (phagocytic function)
    • regulate movement of solutes, electrolytes and proteins from capillaries to synovial fluid
  • synovial fluid= viscous filtrate of plasma containing hyaluronic acid
    • ​lubricant
    • provides nutrients to articular cartilage
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7
Q

What laboratory testing is helpful in assessment of arthritis?

A
  • Markers of inflammation
    • Sed rate (inflammatory cells neutralize negative charge surrounding RBCs, increasing sedimentation)
    • CRP (small molecule synthesized in liver that binds dying cells and/or pathogens) -> bacterial infection
    • Anemia (in chronic disease)
    • Leukocytosis (high WBC count)
  • Serology
    • Rheumatoid factor (autoantibody that binds Fc region of IgG; good specificity for RA but several things that create “false positives”)
    • CCP antibody (>90% specific for RA)
    • Anti-nuclear antigen (ANA); many subtypes identify various diseases (autoimmune, inflammatory, etc)
  • Synovial (joint) fluid analysis; “string sign”
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8
Q

What does a WBC count of the synovial fluid tell you?

A
  • <200= normal
  • 200-2,000= non-inflammatory
  • 2,000-10,000= inflammatory
  • >80,000= septic
  • 200-2,000 + bloody fluid= hemorrhagic
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9
Q

What defines gout? What is its prevalence?

A
  • very inflammatory arthritis linked to metabolic disorders resulting in elevation of blood uric acid (hyperuricemia) and pro inflammatory crystals in the joint
    • HOWEVER, during acute gout flare, serum uric acid levels can be falsely low
  • 4% of US (becoming more prevalent with rise in BMI)
  • Slightly more common in men (prevalence increases in women after menopause)
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10
Q

What are some causes of hyperuricemia?

A
  • Overproduction (10%)
    • inherited enzyme defects
    • myeloproliferative disorders
    • purine rich diet
    • alcohol
  • Underexcretion (90%)
    • renal failure
    • metabolic syndrome/obesity
    • diuretics
    • alcohol
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11
Q

What is the clinical presentation of acute gout?

A
  • abrupt onset of severe pain
  • most commonly monoarticular involving lower extremity **esp big toe
  • synovitis with redness, swelling, and extreme tenderness over the joint
  • self limited and resolves in 8-10 days (although ideally want to treat symptoms)
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12
Q

What triggers an acute attack of gout?

A

**not fully understood:

  • probably release of crystals from pre-formed deposits
  • changes in temp, fluid status, and purine load (i.e. steak and beer)
  • use of thiazide diauretics
  • often occur in setting of acute illness
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13
Q

What is the chronic clinical presentation of gout?

A

**polyarticular and destructive

  • urate encrusts articular surfaces and form deposits that destroy cartilage and bone
  • tophi
    • large aggregates of urate crystals
    • surrounded by lymphocytes, giant cells, and fibroblasts
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14
Q

Describe the appearance of synovial crystals in gout

A

**negatively birefrigent

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15
Q

What are the therapeutic goals in gout treatment?

A
  • increase uric acid excretion
  • inhibit inflammatory cells
  • inhibit uric acid biosynthesis
  • provide symptomatic relief (NSAIDs or steroids)
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16
Q

Describe NSAID use in gout

A
  • need to use within 24 hours (for gout)
  • e.g. indomethacin, naproxen
  • aspirin= NO! (contraindicated in gout)
    • low dose salicylic acid decreases uric acid excretion
  • NSAIDs contraindicated in diseases of GI, platelet, renal, hypersensitivity
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17
Q

Describe corticosteroid use in gout

A
  • symptomatic relief in patients that can’t take NSAIDs
  • short term use (adverse effects with extended use)
  • orally or directly into joint
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18
Q

Describe Colchicine

A
  • MOA= antimitotic (arrests cell division in G1 by interfering with microtubules, esp in inflammatory cells)
    • inhibit neutrophil activation and migration
  • metabolized by CYP3A4
  • substrate for P-glycoprotein (contraindicated in combination with P-gp inhibitors)
  • significant adverse effects (GI) and narrow therapeutic window greatly limits its use
  • contraindicated in hepatic/renal disease and in elderly patients
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19
Q

When is colchicine used?

A
  • acute gout attacks (within hours)
  • prophylactically in patients with chronic gout

**Tends not to be first line drug because of adverse effects

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20
Q

What non-pharmacological measures can be used to treat gout?

A
  • abstain from alcohol
  • weight loss
  • discontinue medicines that impair uric acid excretion
    • aspirin
    • thiazide diuretics
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21
Q

What 4 drug therapies are used to prevent gout flare and destructive effects on joints/kidneys?

A
  1. allopurinol
  2. febuxostat
  3. probenecid
  4. pegloticase
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22
Q

Describe allopurinol

A
  • MOA= inhibits terminal steps in uric acid biosynthesis (blocks xanthine oxidase)
  • metabolized to active compound (oxypurinol) with longer plasma half life (18-30 hrs)
  • Adverse effects;
    • can cause acute gout attack (decreased synthesis mobilizes tissue stores of uric acid; give with colchicine or NSAID)
    • serious hypersensitivity reaction possible
  • USE: prevent primary hyperurecemia of chronic gout
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23
Q

Describe febuxostat

A
  • newer drug
  • non-purine xanthine oxidase inhibitor (not an analog of allopurinol)
  • more potent than allopurinol (and more effective in patients with impaired renal function)
  • similar adverse effects (dizziness, diarrhea/nausea, headache), but HIGHER CV side effects
24
Q

Describe pegloticase

A
  • recombinant form of urate-oxidase enzyme (uricase; normally absent in humans)
  • adverse effects
    • infusion site reactions (needs to be given IV)
    • gout flare (give with prophylaxis)
    • immune response
25
Q

Describe probenecid

A
  • uricosuric agent; monotherapy
  • increases the rate of excretion of uric acid by competing with the renal tubular acid transporter (OAT/URAT1) so that less urate is reabsorbed
  • some GI side effects
  • ineffective in patients with renal insufficiency, contraindicated with uric acid kidney stones
26
Q

Describe the major drug interactions of gout medications

A
  • allopurinol/febuxostat inhibit azathioprine and mercaptopurine metabolism -> increased toxicity
  • colchicine is susceptible to inhibition of CYP3A4 and P-gp transport
  • probenecid interferes with renal excretion of drugs that undergo active tubular secretion (esp weak acids; penicillin)
27
Q

What is rheumatoid arthritis? What is its prevalence?

A
  • inflammatory symmetric chronic polyarthritis (unsure of exact mechanism; smoking/stress risk factors?)
  • immunological disease (both T and B cells)
    • genetic predisposition (e.g. HLA-DR4, HLA-DR1)
  • ~1% of the world has RA (women>men)
28
Q

Describe the cellular pathogenesis of rheumatoid arthritis

A
  1. DCs/APCs phagocytose antigens and present them to T cells
  2. activated T cells simulate B and T cell production
  3. B cells produce plasma cells that form rheumatoid antibodies
  4. helper T cells activate macrophages and cytotoxic T cells
  5. T cells, macrophage, and cytotoxic T cells produce cytokines (TNFalpha, IL1, IL6, others) and prostaglandins that cause joint inflammation, synovial proliferation, and bone/cartilage destruction (by osteoclasts)
29
Q

What is the clinical presentation of rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • gradual onset of joint pain, swelling, and inflammation present for >6 weeks
    • elevated markers of inflammation and abnormal serology
  • symmetrical in nature and often involving small joints (MIP/PIP of hand, often spares DIP)
  • morning stiffness lasting greater than 1 hour
  • nodules can form at sites of trauma
30
Q

What are some extra-articular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • rheumatoid vasculitis
  • interstitial lung disease
  • premature coronary artery disease
  • secondary sjogren’s syndrome (dry eye/mouth)
  • felty’s syndrome (big spleen, low WBC)
31
Q

Describe the gross pathology of rheumatoid arthritis

A

**chronic papillary synovitis;

  • chronic inflammation of synovium (CD4+ T cells, plasma cells, macrophages, giant cells)
  • synovial hyperplasia (results in papillary pattern)
    • extends over the surface forming a pannus which fills the joint space; destroying articular cartilage and bone (via osteoclasts) overtime
  • neutrophils and fibrin on joint surfaces in acute phase
32
Q

Describe how rheumatoid arthritis looks on histology

A
  • lymphoid cells condense into follicles
  • papillary synovitis (hyperplasia)
  • fibrinoid necrosis surrounded by inflammatory cells (epithelioid histiocytes, lymphocytes, plasma cells) seen in nodules
33
Q

What are rheumatoid nodules?

A
  • develop most commonly on skin in areas exposed to pressure (extensor surfaces of forearm/elbow)
  • occur in 25% (usually in severe disease)
  • non-tender, firm, round/oval
34
Q

Describe NSAID use in rheumatoid arthritis

A
  • large doses for long duration
  • no effect on progression, just relieve symptom of pain
  • long term GI upset consequences
35
Q

Describe biologic response modifier use in rheumatoid arthritis

A
  • monoclonal antibodies, receptor analogues, chimeric small molecules (bind or mimic molecular targets)
    • notes: cytokines are involved in all stages of RA
  • better potency and specificity
    • helpful that most have long half lives
    • administered SQ/IM/IV
  • possible side effects (all RA drugs);
    • endogenous Ab formation against therapeutic Ab (e.g. injection site reactions)
    • increased risk of serious infections
36
Q

Describe the MOA of etanercept

A
  • recombinant fusion protein
  • inhibits ability of soluble TNFalpha to bind to its receptor (inhibits its potent proinflammatory and immunoregulatory effects)

**for rheumatoid arthritis

37
Q

Describe the MOA of adalimumab

A
  • human IgG monoclonal antibody
  • binds to soluble and transmembrane forms of TNFalpha, preventing its binding to receptors

**for rheumatoid arthritis

38
Q

Describe the MOA of tocilizumab

A
  • humanized antibody
  • binds soluble and membrane-bound IL6 receptors (inhibits IL6 mediated signaling that activates T/B cells, macrophages and osteoclasts)

**for rheumatoid arthritis IF patient has had inadequate to 1+ TNF antagonists

39
Q

What are some adverse effects of tocilizumab?

A
  • similar to other anti-RA drugs (injection site reaction, increased risk of infection)
  • alterations in lipid profile
40
Q

Describe the MOA of tofacitinib

A
  • inhibits Janus Kinase (JAK) enzymes invovled in stimulating immunce cell function

**oral administration

**for rheumatoid arthritis IF patient has had inadequate response/intolerance to methotrexate

41
Q

What are some adverse effects of tofacitinib?

A
  • similar to other anti-RA drugs (increased risk of infection)
  • alterations in lipid profile
42
Q

Describe the MOA of rituximab

A
  • B cell depleting monoclonal anti-CD20 antibody
    • inhibits complement dependent cytotoxicity and Ab-depndent cellular toxicity (CDC and ADCC)

**for rheumatoid arthritis IF patient has had inadequate response to 1+ TNF antagonists

43
Q

Describe the MAO of abatacept

A
  • fusion protein
  • inhibits the binding of CD28 and prevents the activation of T cells

**for rheumatoid arthritis IF patient has had inadequate response to 1+ TNF antagonists/Disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs)

44
Q

What are non-biologic DMARDs?

A
  • Disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs)
  • methotrexate (structural folic acid analog; inhibits folate pathway -> stops DNA/RNA synthesis)
    • also, accumulation of adenosine -> antiinflammatory
  • leflunomide
  • hydroxychloroquine
45
Q

What is the goal of rheumatoid arthritis treatment?

A

**REMISSION; treat with…

  1. symptomatic relief (until methotrexate effects begin; NSAIDs and/or glucocorticoids)
  2. non-biologic DMARD (methotrexate)
  3. DMARD biologics (e.g. TNFalpha inhibitors)
  4. if no remission, combination therapy used
46
Q

Describe osetoarthritis

A
  • progressive, degenerative joint disorder caused by gradual loss of cartilage
    • worse with activity
    • minutes of morning stiffness/after prolonged immobility (“gelling”)
    • associated with “crunching”
  • most common cause of arthritis in adults (many risk factors; women, age, genetics, obesity, diabetes, trauma)
47
Q

How do you diagnose osteoarthritis? How does it compare with rheumatoid arthritis on physical exam?

A
  • diagnosis primarily based on
    • joint distribution
    • character of pain
    • exam findings
  • blood tests/xrays not helpful
  • synovial fluid aspiration may rule out other types of arthritis (will be non-inflammatory; <2000 WBC/mm3)
48
Q

What is observed on radiograph in osteoarthritis?

A
  • osteophytes
  • joint space narrowing
49
Q

What is the pathogenesis of osteoarthritis?

A
  • imbalance of cytokine and growth factor activity results in matrix loss and degradation (unsure of mechanism)
  • early: superficial layers of cartilage are destroyed, leading to fibrillation and cracking of cartilage matrix
    • subchondral cysts form as synovial fluid is forced into subchodral space
  • absence of articular cartilage (eburnation) and bone underneath becomes more dense/sclerotic
  • remaining cartilage has a rough “sandpaper” look
50
Q

What are osetophytes? What are they called on the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints?

A
  • bony outgrowths that develop at the margins of articular surfaces
  • DIP= Heberden nodes
  • PIP= Bouchard nodes
51
Q

What are the common therapies for osteoarthritis?

A
  • weight loss, exercise, physical therapy
  • intra-articular therapies (corticosteroids, hyaluronans)
  • topical therapies (capsaicin, salicylates, menthol)
  • systemic therapies
    • acetaminophen
    • duloxetine
    • NSAIDs
52
Q

Describe capsaicin

A
  • MOA= TRPV1 receptor agonist (a transmembrane receptor ion channel)
  • induces release of substance P (mediator of pain impulses from periphery to CNS)
    • initially causes local/transient application site pain
    • after repeated application, capsaicin depletes the neuron of substance P (and prevents reaccumulation)

**topical over the counter use

53
Q

Describe the MOA of duloxetine

A
  • SNRI; analgesic effect sooner than antidepressant effect and at lower dose
    • centrally acting oral analgesic by stimulating the inhibitory decending pain pathways (mediated by 5HT and NE)
54
Q

What are SYSADOAs?

A
  • symptomatic slow acting drugs for OA **dietary supplements (effectiveness of these agents remains to be established)
  • glucosamine sulfate
    • principle substrate in the biosynthesis of proteoglycan, which is essential for maintaining cartilage integrity
  • chondroitin sulfate
    • maintains viscosity in joints, stimulates cartilage repair mechanisms and inhibit enzymes that break down cartilage
55
Q

Describe hyaluronic acid (use as a drug)

A
  • exists in the normal synovial fluid, but given via injection for osteoarthritis of the knee;
    • inhibits inflammatory mediators
    • descreases cartilage degradation
    • promotes cartilage matrix synthesis
  • not a first line drug; doesn’t slow progression, just helps symptoms (esp for patients unable to take NSAIDs)
56
Q

Describe opioid use for osteoarthritis

A
  • NO evidence that opioids improve function more than nonopioid analgesics
  • may be useful in patients with severe symptoms not treated in other ways (2nd or 3rd line option)
  • need to consider opioid epidemic