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OB > intrapartum care > Flashcards

intrapartum care Flashcards

1
Q

testing and tx of GBS

A

Test all women in clinic with a vaginal and rectal swab at 35-37 weeks
2. Women who test positive are not treated prenatally

Offer prophylactic antibiotics in labor to decrease the rate of transmission to the baby

PCN G 5 million units IV loading dose then 2.5 mil units q 4hrs until delivery
b. Ampicillin 2 grams IV, then I gram IV q 4 hours as second choice, “four hours before delivery”

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2
Q

transmission of GBS

A

70% rate of vertical transmission to fetus once membranes rupture

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3
Q

MCC of neonatal sepsis

A
  1. Babies have respiratory symptoms that resemble RDS

2. Can cause meningitis and pneumonia as well

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4
Q

The most common cause of neonatal sepsis

A

GBS

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5
Q

sxs of GBS

A

Asymptomatic in women, though some may have GBS induced UTIs

  1. If UTI discovered prenatally treat with antibiotics and note in chart
    a. Will get GBS prophylaxis in labor
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6
Q

monitoring in labor

A
  1. Maternal Vitals
  2. Contraction frequency, duration, strength by palpation
  3. Fetal heart rate by EFM (electronic external fetal monitor) or intermittent Doppler
  4. Confirm status of membranes, uterine bleeding
  5. Cervical dilatation, effacement and station
  6. Presentation and position (anterior, posterior or transverse) of fetus
  7. EFW (estimated fetal weight) – not done as much now
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7
Q

how do you measure effacement

A

shortening of cervix (measured in percentage)

i. 0% - long hard 3cm cervix
ii. 100% - completely thinned out like a sheet

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8
Q

what is meant by the phrase cervicle station

A

– where baby is in relation to the ischial spine

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9
Q

PPROM

A

Antenatally/preterm (preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM)) <37 wks

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10
Q

PROM

A

At term but before the onset of labor (premature rupture of membranes (PROM))

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11
Q

SROM

A

iii. Spontaneously at onset of or during labor (SROM)

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12
Q

AROM

A

Via practitioner (amniotomy or artificial rupture of membranes (AROM))

done with amni hook; can help the labor along if done at the right time

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13
Q

Indications for antibiotic prophylaxis for GBS

A

Positive screening cx for GBS (vagina or rectum)

Positive hx of birth of an infant with early-onset GBS disease

GBS bacteriuria during current pregnancy

Unknown antepartum culture status AND
Intrapartum fever >100.4F or
Preterm labor < 37 weeks, or
Prolonged ROM >18 hours or

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14
Q

chemoprophylaxis for GBS has reduced disease by

A
  1. Maternal intrapartum GBS chemoprophylaxis has resulted in a significant reduction in early onset GBS disease (>80% of cases)
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15
Q

Meconium staining

A

Term or post term fetuses are developmentally able to move their bowels and may do so spontaneously causing meconium stained fluid

Stressed/hypoxic baby will also pass meconium
3. Occurs about 20% of the time

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16
Q

meconium what is it and how is it created

A

Thick, black-green, odorless material first demonstrable in the fetal intestine during the third month of gestation

Results from the accumulation of debris (desquamated cells from the intestine/skin, GI mucin, lanugo hair, fatty material from vernix caseosa), amniotic fluid, intestinal secretions, and bile pigments.

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17
Q

what is the issue with meconium

A

, but if breathed into the lungs it may stimulate the release of cytokines/vasoactive substances leading to cardiovascular and inflammatory responses in the fetus/newborn

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18
Q

if light meconium

A
  1. If light meconium, expectant management, amnioinfusion? (putting a catheter with saline into the cervix and help wash it out during labor
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19
Q
  1. Thick or dark meconium requires
A

peds notification (usually means its happened recently)

Will probably desire suctioning the nares/mouth immediately after delivery of head, before delivery of body

Will prepare for possible intubation immediately after delivery to visualize below the vocal cords for meconium aspiration

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20
Q

how common and who is greatest risk for meconium aspiration

A

a. Occurs 2-10% of infants born through meconium stained fluid
b. Greatest risk in postmature infants and SGA infants

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21
Q

outcomes of meconium aspiration

A

c. Meconium causes mechanical obstruction (doesn’t allow the lungs to expand) and chemical pneumonitis leading to serious pulmonary hypertension
Frequently fatal

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22
Q

rational for FHR

A

FHR patterns are indirect markers of the fetal cardiac and medullary responses to blood volume changes, acidemia, and hypoxemia

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23
Q

EFM vs ausculation fetal monitoring

A

Continuous EFM was associated with an extra 12 caesarean sections, and 25 operative (assisted) deliveries per 1000 births

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24
Q

what are Accelerations

A

“Accels” - a reassuring indicator of fetal well-being (fetus NOT acidotic)

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25
Q

what are normal accels

A

Baseline FHR 110-160bpm

Moderate variability is reassuring
c. May be absent due to sleep

26
Q

EFM

A

Electronic fetal monitoring (EFM

v

27
Q

early decels indicate

A

– happen during height of contraction and they mirror the contraction

  1. Happen d/t head compression
  2. Not concerning as long as they return to baseline

benign

28
Q

variable decels indicate

A

– steep decels happen in line with the uterine contraction and returns to baseline as soon as the contraction is over
1. Happen d/t cord compression

benign

29
Q

late decels

A

NOT BENIGN

happening after the zenith of the uterine contraction
1. Sign of uteroplacental insufficiency – baby is not getting enough O2

get FBG to monitor pH

30
Q

waht are decels

A

periodic FHR changes associated with UCs (uterine contractions)

31
Q

how does fetal electrocardiogram work

A

— bipolar spiral electrode inserted into fetal scalp/second reference electrode is placed upon the maternal thigh to eliminate electrical interference.

b. Detects fetal ECG) and calculates the FHR

32
Q

what to do with non reassuring patterns

A

Call for assistance
Administer O2 via tight fitting mask
Change maternal position (lateral or knees/chest
Administer fluid bolus (lactated Ringer’s)
Perform vaginal exam, fetal scalp stimulation
Consider tocolysis for uterine tetany or hyperstimulation
Discontinue oxytocin if used
Consider amnioinfusion (for variable decels)
Determine if operative intervention is warranted/how urgently

33
Q

VAS

A

ix. Vibroacoustic Stimulation (VAS) – artificial horn

  1. Startles baby - Should ellicit accels
  2. Procedure stimulates the fetus to move, shortening the duration of time needed to produce an acceleration, without compromising the predictive value of a reactive NST.
34
Q

fetal surveillance looks like what before birth

A

i. Goal is to identify fetus at risk of intrauterine death/asphyxia
ii. PMH, family hx, genetic hx, psychosocial hx will all help identify risk factors
iii. Indications for testing include, GDM, HTN/preeclampsia, multiple gestation, decreased fetal movement, hx of prior stillbirth, increased risk for stillbirth, postdates pregnancy, amniotic fluid abnormalities, fetal growth restriction
iv. Fetal movement (FM) awareness, “kick counts”
v. FHR, variability
vi. Uterine growth

35
Q

when should fetal movement be palpable and when would we worry

A

Palpable movement 17-20 weeks “quickening”,

fetal movement decreases in response to hypoxia

36
Q

Amniotic Fluid Analysis

what is ti and what does it look like

A

Amnio or vaginal if ROM) – Testing to determine pulmonary maturity: i.

-Biochemical tests and biophysical tests

37
Q

most useful marker with a fetal surveillance sonogram

A

ii. Nuchal translucency 10-14 wks – most useful marker (trisomy 21), Turners, heart defects, cystic hygroma (may be concerned with trisomy or monosomy X), single umbilical artery

38
Q

on anatomic scan you are looking for

A

looking at femur length, CRL, biparietal diameter

39
Q

how often are abnormal U/S markers associated with normal fetus

A

vi. Abnormal U/S markers can be associated with normal fetuses and should be correlated with prenatal diagnostic testing. Isolated “soft” markers are identified in 11-17% of normal fetuses

40
Q

what are soft markers

A

vii. “Soft” markers include: Increased nuchal translucency, absent nasal bone, echogenic bowel, pyelectasis, shortened long bones, echogenic intracardiac focus.

41
Q

Most common cardiotocographic method of antepartum fetal assessment.

A

Nonstress test (NST)

Most common cardiotocographic method of antepartum fetal assessment. There are no direct maternal or fetal risks from nonstress testing – does not require oxytocin or contractions

42
Q

what is the false postive false negative rates for non-stress test

A
  1. Higher rates of FN (false negatives) and FP (false positive) rates than CST
43
Q

non-stress test that is reactive means

A

“Reactive” meets or exceeds criteria

  1. “Nonreactive” is nonreassuring finding
44
Q

non reactive non-stress tests warrants

A

Nonreactive or inconclusive usually requires f/u w/ BPP or contraction stress test (CST)

45
Q

Most accurate predictor of uteroplacental insufficiency

A

CST (contraction stress test)

Most accurate predictor of uteroplacental insufficiency – a hypoxic fetus will demonstrate recurrent late decels

46
Q

Contraction stress test (CST)-when can it be done

A

)More expensive, takes more time, high false positives

Can be used from 26 weeks on

Used to f/u on NST

47
Q

how do you administer CST

A
  1. Uses oxytocin (pitocin) or nipple stimulation to create uterine contractions
  2. Criteria: 3 UCs/10 min, felt or not
48
Q

CST

A

Negative (good): FHR stable, no late decels

Positive (bad): repetitive late decels with each UC

Equivocal:  unable to obtain satisfactory tracing

few false negative many false positives

49
Q

when do we do a BPP

A

Combined with electronic fetal monitoring nonstress test (NST)

50
Q

Fully oxygenated fetus that is neurologically intact will demonstrate what with a BPP

A

a. Muscle tone
b. Gross movement
c. Respiratory activity
d. And will have:
i. An adequate AFI
ii. A reactive NST
e. >8 = reassuring

51
Q

what is happening in Rh isoimmunization

A

Red cells of the fetus or newborn are destroyed by maternally-derived alloantibodies

52
Q

how does rhogam work

A

Passive immunity

wears off in a few weeks and antibodies will decline to 0

53
Q

when is rhogam NOT given

A

Not given to women who are already D alloimmunized, or biologic father CONFIRMED to be Rh Negative, consider genetic counseling

54
Q

when do we do AB screen

A

AB screen at first prenatal visit

AB screen again at 28 weeks, Prophylaxis at 28 weeks

55
Q

when do we give rhogam

A

After possible placental trauma, SAB, induced abortion, invasive prenatal diagnostics, ectopic, TAB, fetal demise, molar pregnancy
v. Within 72 hours post partum of delivery of D-positive newborn

56
Q

erythroblastis fetalis

A

Alloimmune hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) aka erythroblastis fetalis (when it is of the fetus)

57
Q

Clinical manifestations of alloimmune HDN

A

range from mild, self-limited hemolytic disease (eg, hyperbilirubinemia with mild to moderate anemia) to severe life-threatening anemia (eg, hydrops fetalis).

58
Q

Less severely affected infants with HDN typically present with

A

Hyperbilirubinemia — Less severely affected infants typically present with unexpected hyperbilirubinemia within the first 24 hours of life.

59
Q

anemia in HDN

A

k. The degree of anemia varies depending upon type of HDN (hemolytic disease of newborn)
l. Some infants with Rh or some minor blood group incompatibilities can present with symptomatic anemia that require RBC transfusion.

60
Q

when do we see hydrops fetalis

A

Infants present with skin edema, pleural/pericardial effusion, or ascites.

Infants with Rh(D) and some minor blood group incompatibilities, such as Kell (most immunogenic antigens after Rh and ABO blood group systems), are at risk for hydrops.

ii. Neonates with hydrops may present at delivery with shock/ require emergent transfusion.

61
Q

which antigens are crossing the placenta

A

Antigens that cause IgM antibodies
1. Cannot cross placental barrier (they are too big), only IgG

what types of antibodies cross the placenta

OB (14 decks)

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