Integ Exam #2 Flashcards
1
Q
Which modality is contraindicated for clean, granulating wounds?
- A. Pulsed Lavage
- B. Whirlpool Therapy
- C. Wound Irrigation
- D. Electrical Stimulation
A
- Correct: B. Whirlpool Therapy Whirlpool is contraindicated for clean, granulating wounds as it can disrupt healing tissue.
- Incorrect: A. Pulsed Lavage Pulsed lavage can be used for irrigation and is not contraindicated.
- Incorrect: C. Wound Irrigation Irrigation is suitable for clean wounds.
- Incorrect: D. Electrical Stimulation Electrical stimulation is indicated for granulating wounds.
2
Q
What is the primary effect of pulsed lavage with suction?
- A. Thermal insulation
- B. Reduction of bioburden
- C. Pain management
- D. Enhance oxygen perfusion
A
- Correct: B. Reduction of bioburden Pulsed lavage removes necrotic tissue and debris, reducing bioburden.
- Incorrect: A. Thermal insulation Pulsed lavage does not provide thermal effects.
- Incorrect: C. Pain management Pain relief is not a primary effect of pulsed lavage.
- Incorrect: D. Enhance oxygen perfusion Oxygenation is improved by other modalities like hyperbaric oxygen therapy.
3
Q
Which modality facilitates wound contraction and reduces bioburden using subatmospheric pressure?
- A. Negative Pressure Wound Therapy
- B. Pulsed Lavage
- C. Hyperbaric Oxygen Therapy
- D. Electrical Stimulation
A
- Correct: A. Negative Pressure Wound Therapy NPWT applies subatmospheric pressure, promoting granulation tissue and reducing bioburden.
- Incorrect: B. Pulsed Lavage Pulsed lavage uses irrigation, not subatmospheric pressure.
- Incorrect: C. Hyperbaric Oxygen Therapy HBO involves oxygenation, not pressure reduction.
- Incorrect: D. Electrical Stimulation Electrical stimulation does not involve subatmospheric pressure.
4
Q
Which modality uses monophasic high-voltage pulsed current to stimulate healing?
- A. Electrical Stimulation
- B. Diathermy
- C. Ultrasound
- D. Negative Pressure Wound Therapy
A
- Correct: A. Electrical Stimulation Electrical stimulation uses high-voltage pulsed current to enhance wound healing.
- Incorrect: B. Diathermy Diathermy uses electromagnetic energy, not electrical currents.
- Incorrect: C. Ultrasound Ultrasound uses sound waves, not electrical currents.
- Incorrect: D. Negative Pressure Wound Therapy NPWT involves suction, not electrical stimulation.
5
Q
What is a contraindication for using whirlpool therapy?
- A. Thick eschar
- B. Infected wounds
- C. Clean, granulating wounds
- D. Pain management
A
- Correct: C. Clean, granulating wounds Whirlpool therapy can disrupt healing in clean, granulating wounds.
- Incorrect: A. Thick eschar Whirlpool therapy can help soften eschar.
- Incorrect: B. Infected wounds Whirlpool therapy can aid in managing infected wounds.
- Incorrect: D. Pain management Pain management is a benefit, not a contraindication, of whirlpool therapy.
6
Q
What is the primary purpose of ultraviolet C (UVC) therapy?
- A. Promote oxygen perfusion
- B. Reduce bacterial bioburden
- C. Manage granulation tissue
- D. Enhance scar pliability
A
- Correct: B. Reduce bacterial bioburden UVC therapy is primarily bactericidal and helps reduce bioburden in wounds.
- Incorrect: A. Promote oxygen perfusion Oxygenation is not a primary effect of UVC therapy.
- Incorrect: C. Manage granulation tissue UVC is not focused on granulation tissue.
- Incorrect: D. Enhance scar pliability Scar pliability is not a goal of UVC therapy.
7
Q
Which therapy uses sound waves to facilitate wound debridement and healing?
- A. Pulsed Lavage
- B. Electrical Stimulation
- C. Ultrasound
- D. Diathermy
A
- Correct: C. Ultrasound Ultrasound uses sound waves to facilitate debridement and healing.
- Incorrect: A. Pulsed Lavage Pulsed lavage uses pressurized irrigation, not sound waves.
- Incorrect: B. Electrical Stimulation Electrical stimulation involves electrical currents, not sound waves.
- Incorrect: D. Diathermy Diathermy uses electromagnetic energy.
8
Q
Which therapy is contraindicated for wounds with untreated osteomyelitis?
- A. Negative Pressure Wound Therapy
- B. Electrical Stimulation
- C. Hyperbaric Oxygen Therapy
- D. Wound Irrigation
A
- Correct: A. Negative Pressure Wound Therapy NPWT is contraindicated for wounds with untreated osteomyelitis.
- Incorrect: B. Electrical Stimulation Electrical stimulation may be used with caution in osteomyelitis cases.
- Incorrect: C. Hyperbaric Oxygen Therapy HBO is often used to treat osteomyelitis.
- Incorrect: D. Wound Irrigation Wound irrigation is not contraindicated for osteomyelitis.
9
Q
Which modality enhances healing by increasing oxygen concentration in the wound bed?
- A. Hyperbaric Oxygen Therapy
- B. Electrical Stimulation
- C. Pulsed Lavage
- D. Diathermy
A
- Correct: A. Hyperbaric Oxygen Therapy HBO increases oxygen levels in the wound bed to facilitate healing.
- Incorrect: B. Electrical Stimulation Electrical stimulation does not directly increase oxygen concentration.
- Incorrect: C. Pulsed Lavage Pulsed lavage is for irrigation and bioburden reduction.
- Incorrect: D. Diathermy Diathermy uses heat, not oxygen concentration.
10
Q
Which therapy utilizes electromagnetic energy to heat tissue and promote wound healing?
- A. Diathermy
- B. Ultrasound
- C. Electrical Stimulation
- D. Negative Pressure Wound Therapy
A
- Correct: A. Diathermy Diathermy uses electromagnetic energy to improve circulation, fibroblast activity, and nitric oxide release.
- Incorrect: B. Ultrasound Ultrasound uses sound waves, not electromagnetic energy.
- Incorrect: C. Electrical Stimulation Electrical stimulation uses electrical currents, not heat.
- Incorrect: D. Negative Pressure Wound Therapy NPWT uses suction, not heat.
11
Q
Which modality combines irrigation with suction to facilitate debridement and bioburden reduction?
- A. Pulsed Lavage
- B. Negative Pressure Wound Therapy
- C. Whirlpool Therapy
- D. Ultrasound
A
- Correct: A. Pulsed Lavage Pulsed lavage combines pressurized irrigation with suction to reduce bioburden and debride wounds.
- Incorrect: B. Negative Pressure Wound Therapy NPWT applies subatmospheric pressure but does not use irrigation.
- Incorrect: C. Whirlpool Therapy Whirlpool therapy softens necrotic tissue but does not use suction.
- Incorrect: D. Ultrasound Ultrasound uses sound waves, not irrigation and suction.
12
Q
Which modality uses noncontact low-frequency to gently debride wounds?
- A. Ultrasound Mist
- B. High-Frequency Ultrasound
- C. Pulsed Lavage
- D. Electrical Stimulation
A
- Correct: A. Ultrasound Mist Noncontact low-frequency ultrasound (Mist) gently debrides wounds while reducing bioburden.
- Incorrect: B. High-Frequency Ultrasound High-frequency ultrasound is used for deeper tissue effects, not noncontact debridement.
- Incorrect: C. Pulsed Lavage Pulsed lavage involves irrigation, not ultrasound.
- Incorrect: D. Electrical Stimulation Electrical stimulation does not involve ultrasound.
13
Q
Which therapy is most appropriate for a wound with thick eschar and heavy bioburden?
- A. Whirlpool Therapy
- B. Negative Pressure Wound Therapy
- C. Electrical Stimulation
- D. Wound Irrigation
A
- Correct: A. Whirlpool Therapy Whirlpool therapy softens eschar and reduces bioburden, making it effective for wounds with thick necrotic tissue.
- Incorrect: B. Negative Pressure Wound Therapy NPWT requires a clean wound bed and is not suitable for thick eschar.
- Incorrect: C. Electrical Stimulation Electrical stimulation does not soften eschar or reduce heavy bioburden.
- Incorrect: D. Wound Irrigation While useful, irrigation alone is less effective for thick eschar.
14
Q
What is a contraindication for using hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBO)?
- A. Claustrophobia
- B. Gas gangrene
- C. Peripheral ischemia
- D. Crush injuries
A
- Correct: A. Claustrophobia Patients with claustrophobia may struggle with the enclosed environment required for HBO therapy.
- Incorrect: B. Gas gangrene HBO is indicated for gas gangrene.
- Incorrect: C. Peripheral ischemia HBO is used to treat ischemic wounds.
- Incorrect: D. Crush injuries HBO is indicated for crush injuries.
15
Q
Which modality stimulates mitochondria and growth factor production to enhance wound healing?
- A. Low-Intensity Laser Therapy
- B. Electrical Stimulation
- C. Pulsed Lavage
- D. Diathermy
A
- Correct: A. Low-Intensity Laser Therapy Low-intensity laser therapy stimulates cellular activity, including mitochondrial function and growth factor release.
- Incorrect: B. Electrical Stimulation Electrical stimulation attracts cells to the wound site but does not directly stimulate mitochondria.
- Incorrect: C. Pulsed Lavage Pulsed lavage does not affect cellular functions like mitochondria or growth factors.
- Incorrect: D. Diathermy Diathermy promotes circulation but does not target mitochondria or growth factors.
16
Q
What is a primary advantage of cold atmospheric plasma (CAP) therapy?
- A. Promotes fibroblast proliferation
- B. Provides thermal effects
- C. Directly softens necrotic tissue
- D. Increases oxygen delivery
A
- Correct: A. Promotes fibroblast proliferation CAP therapy supports fibroblast and keratinocyte proliferation, promoting wound healing.
- Incorrect: B. Provides thermal effects CAP therapy is not thermal.
- Incorrect: C. Directly softens necrotic tissue CAP does not physically debride tissue.
- Incorrect: D. Increases oxygen delivery Oxygen delivery is not a primary effect of CAP.
17
Q
Which therapy is contraindicated for wounds with exposed organs?
- A. Negative Pressure Wound Therapy
- B. Whirlpool Therapy
- C. Electrical Stimulation
- D. Pulsed Lavage
A
- Correct: A. Negative Pressure Wound Therapy NPWT is contraindicated for wounds with exposed organs unless specialized systems are used.
- Incorrect: B. Whirlpool Therapy Whirlpool therapy does not directly harm exposed organs.
- Incorrect: C. Electrical Stimulation Electrical stimulation is not directly contraindicated for wounds with exposed organs.
- Incorrect: D. Pulsed Lavage Pulsed lavage can be used cautiously but is not contraindicated.
18
Q
Which modality reduces wound edema while promoting angiogenesis and granulation tissue formation?
- A. Negative Pressure Wound Therapy
- B. Hyperbaric Oxygen Therapy
- C. Ultrasound
- D. Electrical Stimulation
A
- Correct: A. Negative Pressure Wound Therapy NPWT decreases edema and promotes granulation and angiogenesis.
- Incorrect: B. Hyperbaric Oxygen Therapy HBO promotes angiogenesis but does not reduce edema.
- Incorrect: C. Ultrasound Ultrasound facilitates healing but does not directly reduce edema.
- Incorrect: D. Electrical Stimulation Electrical stimulation improves circulation but is less effective for edema reduction.
19
Q
Which therapy is particularly useful for reducing bioburden in critically colonized category III/IV pressure ulcers?
- A. Ultraviolet C Therapy
- B. Electrical Stimulation
- C. Low-Intensity Laser Therapy
- D. Whirlpool Therapy
A
- Correct: A. Ultraviolet C Therapy UVC therapy is bactericidal and helps reduce bioburden in critically colonized pressure ulcers.
- Incorrect: B. Electrical Stimulation Electrical stimulation promotes healing but does not directly reduce bioburden.
- Incorrect: C. Low-Intensity Laser Therapy Laser therapy has limited evidence for bioburden reduction.
- Incorrect: D. Whirlpool Therapy Whirlpool therapy is not as specific for bioburden in pressure ulcers.
20
Q
What is the primary goal of using a support surface in pressure relief?
- A. To reduce edema in the lower extremities
- B. To redistribute body weight and protect skin tissue
- C. To prevent heat loss in patients
- D. To assist with pulmonary therapy
A
- Correct: B. To redistribute body weight and protect skin tissue Support surfaces are designed to redistribute pressure and protect vulnerable areas, like bony prominences, from breakdown.
- Incorrect: A. To reduce edema in the lower extremities Edema reduction is not the main goal of support surfaces.
- Incorrect: C. To prevent heat loss in patients Preventing heat loss is unrelated to pressure relief.
- Incorrect: D. To assist with pulmonary therapy Pulmonary therapy may involve different types of support but is not the primary goal here.
21
Q
What tissue interface pressure is considered the threshold for skin breakdown?
- A. 15 mmHg
- B. 23 mmHg
- C. 32 mmHg
- D. 45 mmHg
A
- Correct: C. 32 mmHg Tissue interface pressures above 32 mmHg are associated with impaired capillary blood flow, leading to tissue breakdown.
- Incorrect: A. 15 mmHg This pressure is too low to cause significant breakdown.
- Incorrect: B. 23 mmHg This is the range for pressure-relieving devices, not the breakdown threshold.
- Incorrect: D. 45 mmHg This is above the threshold but not a commonly cited value for breakdown risk.
22
Q
What is the purpose of pressure mapping in pressure relief management?
- A. To diagnose existing pressure ulcers
- B. To map patient mobility patterns
- C. To assess how interface pressure affects tissue loading
- D. To design custom support surfaces
A
- Correct: C. To assess how interface pressure affects tissue loading Pressure mapping evaluates tissue loading by measuring interface pressure between the patient and the surface.
- Incorrect: A. To diagnose existing pressure ulcers Diagnosis of ulcers is based on clinical assessment, not pressure mapping.
- Incorrect: B. To map patient mobility patterns Pressure mapping focuses on static pressure, not mobility.
- Incorrect: D. To design custom support surfaces While it provides data, it is not directly used to design surfaces.
23
Q
Which type of support surface provides continuous air circulation to manage heat and moisture?
- A. Low Air Loss
- B. Alternating Pressure
- C. Air-Fluidized Beds
- D. Viscoelastic Foam
A
- Correct: A. Low Air Loss Low air loss mattresses continuously circulate air to manage heat and moisture at the patient-surface interface.
- Incorrect: B. Alternating Pressure Alternating pressure redistributes pressure through cyclic inflation, not air circulation.
- Incorrect: C. Air-Fluidized Beds These beds use air to create a fluid-like medium but do not focus on moisture control.
- Incorrect: D. Viscoelastic Foam Foam does not provide active air circulation.
24
Q
What is a major disadvantage of lateral rotation beds in pressure management?
- A. They are uncomfortable for most patients
- B. They increase the risk of shear injuries
- C. They are ineffective for pulmonary therapy
- D. They are too costly for most healthcare settings
A
- Correct: B. They increase the risk of shear injuries Lateral rotation beds can cause excessive shear forces, increasing the risk of tissue injury.
- Incorrect: A. They are uncomfortable for most patients Discomfort is not commonly cited as a major disadvantage.
- Incorrect: C. They are ineffective for pulmonary therapy These beds are often used for pulmonary therapy.
- Incorrect: D. They are too costly for most healthcare settings While they are costly, this is not their primary disadvantage in pressure management.
25
Q
Which type of support surface is most appropriate for a patient with a stage III or IV pressure ulcer who is bedridden?
- A. Standard Foam Mattress
- B. Low Air Loss Mattress
- C. Air-Fluidized Bed
- D. Alternating Pressure Mattress
A
- Correct: C. Air-Fluidized Bed Air-fluidized beds provide advanced pressure relief and are indicated for stage III or IV pressure ulcers.
- Incorrect: A. Standard Foam Mattress These mattresses do not provide sufficient pressure relief for advanced ulcers.
- Incorrect: B. Low Air Loss Mattress While effective, these are typically used for less severe cases.
- Incorrect: D. Alternating Pressure Mattress Alternating pressure mattresses are appropriate but less effective than air-fluidized beds for advanced cases.
26
Q
Which support surface technology minimizes shear forces while maintaining immersion and envelopment?
- A. Air-Fluidized Beds
- B. Alternating Pressure Mattresses
- C. Low Air Loss Mattresses
- D. Foam Mattresses
A
- Correct: A. Air-Fluidized Beds These beds reduce shear while providing excellent immersion and envelopment.
- Incorrect: B. Alternating Pressure Mattresses These redistribute pressure but do not significantly minimize shear forces.
- Incorrect: C. Low Air Loss Mattresses Low air loss mattresses focus on heat and moisture control rather than shear reduction.
- Incorrect: D. Foam Mattresses Foam mattresses may reduce pressure but are less effective at shear reduction.
27
Q
Which type of positioning is recommended to minimize pressure on the sacrum and coccyx?
- A. Semi-Recumbent
- B. 30-Degree Tilted Side-Lying
- C. 90-Degree Side-Lying
- D. Supine
A
- Correct: B. 30-Degree Tilted Side-Lying This position offloads pressure from the sacrum and coccyx, reducing risk of pressure injury.
- Incorrect: A. Semi-Recumbent This position increases pressure on the sacrum and coccyx.
- Incorrect: C. 90-Degree Side-Lying This position increases pressure on the greater trochanter.
- Incorrect: D. Supine Supine positioning places direct pressure on the sacrum and coccyx.
28
Q
How often should patients who are immobile be repositioned to prevent pressure ulcers?
- A. Every 30 minutes
- B. Every 1–2 hours
- C. Every 4 hours
- D. Every 6 hours
A
- Correct: B. Every 1–2 hours Immobile patients should be repositioned every 1–2 hours to prevent pressure ulcers.
- Incorrect: A. Every 30 minutes While more frequent repositioning is beneficial, it is not standard practice.
- Incorrect: C. Every 4 hours This frequency may increase the risk of pressure injuries.
- Incorrect: D. Every 6 hours This is too infrequent to effectively prevent ulcers.
29
Q
What is the purpose of a viscoelastic foam mattress?
- A. To prevent heat loss
- B. To redistribute pressure and conform to body contours
- C. To reduce shear forces
- D. To enhance moisture evaporation
A
- Correct: B. To redistribute pressure and conform to body contours Viscoelastic foam molds to the body, redistributing pressure.
- Incorrect: A. To prevent heat loss Foam mattresses are not designed for heat management.
- Incorrect: C. To reduce shear forces Foam does not significantly reduce shear forces.
- Incorrect: D. To enhance moisture evaporation Foam does not actively manage moisture.
30
Q
Which type of mattress is most appropriate for patients with multiple stage II pressure ulcers that have not improved with standard care?
- A. Air-Fluidized Mattress
- B. Low Air Loss Mattress
- C. Alternating Pressure Mattress
- D. Viscoelastic Foam Mattress
A
- Correct: B. Low Air Loss Mattress Low air loss mattresses are indicated for patients with stage II ulcers that have not improved with standard care.
- Incorrect: A. Air-Fluidized Mattress These are typically reserved for advanced stage III or IV ulcers.
- Incorrect: C. Alternating Pressure Mattress Alternating pressure mattresses are often a step before low air loss mattresses.
- Incorrect: D. Viscoelastic Foam Mattress Foam mattresses are for prevention and less severe cases.
31
Q
What is the primary advantage of using an alternating pressure mattress?
- A. Continuous air circulation
- B. Cyclic redistribution of pressure
- C. Reduced moisture at the wound site
- D. Enhanced immersion and envelopment
A
- Correct: B. Cyclic redistribution of pressure Alternating pressure mattresses cyclically inflate and deflate to redistribute pressure across different body areas.
- Incorrect: A. Continuous air circulation This is a feature of low air loss mattresses, not alternating pressure systems.
- Incorrect: C. Reduced moisture at the wound site Moisture management is not the primary function of alternating pressure.
- Incorrect: D. Enhanced immersion and envelopment This is more typical of air-fluidized beds.
32
Q
Which positioning technique reduces pressure on the ischial tuberosities in a wheelchair?
- A. Reclining backward
- B. Side-lean
- C. Forward lean
- D. Push-up pressure relief
A
- Correct: C. Forward lean Leaning forward effectively offloads the ischial tuberosities.
- Incorrect: A. Reclining backward Reclining may redistribute pressure but does not specifically offload the ischial tuberosities.
- Incorrect: B. Side-lean Side-lean redistributes pressure to one side but not from the ischial tuberosities.
- Incorrect: D. Push-up pressure relief This offloads the buttocks entirely, not specifically the ischial tuberosities.
33
Q
What is the purpose of the 30-degree tilted side-lying position?
- A. To offload the greater trochanter
- B. To reduce moisture accumulation
- C. To minimize shear forces
- D. To facilitate pulmonary drainage
A
- Correct: A. To offload the greater trochanter The 30-degree tilted side-lying position reduces pressure on the greater trochanter.
- Incorrect: B. To reduce moisture accumulation This position does not directly address moisture control.
- Incorrect: C. To minimize shear forces Shear reduction is not the primary goal of this position.
- Incorrect: D. To facilitate pulmonary drainage Pulmonary drainage is not the intended outcome.
34
Q
What type of support surface uses air-filled bladders to redistribute pressure evenly?
- A. Low Air Loss Mattress
- B. Fluid-Filled Bladders
- C. Air-Fluidized Mattress
- D. Alternating Pressure Mattress
A
- Correct: B. Fluid-Filled Bladders Fluid-filled bladders evenly distribute pressure across the surface area.
- Incorrect: A. Low Air Loss Mattress These manage heat and moisture but do not use fluid-filled bladders.
- Incorrect: C. Air-Fluidized Mattress These create a fluid-like medium using air, not fluid bladders.
- Incorrect: D. Alternating Pressure Mattress These rely on cyclic inflation and deflation, not fluid-filled components.
35
Q
Which type of support surface is contraindicated for patients with active bleeding?
- A. Air-Fluidized Mattress
- B. Alternating Pressure Mattress
- C. Low Air Loss Mattress
- D. Foam Mattress
A
- Correct: A. Air-Fluidized Mattress Air-fluidized beds are contraindicated for patients with active bleeding due to their effect on moisture evaporation and potential for bleeding exacerbation.
- Incorrect: B. Alternating Pressure Mattress These are not contraindicated for active bleeding.
- Incorrect: C. Low Air Loss Mattress Low air loss mattresses are suitable for patients with active bleeding.
- Incorrect: D. Foam Mattress Foam mattresses are not contraindicated.
36
Q
How often should wheelchair-bound patients perform pressure relief techniques?
- A. Every 15–30 minutes
- B. Every 1–2 hours
- C. Every 4 hours
- D. Every 6 hours
A
- Correct: A. Every 15–30 minutes Wheelchair users should perform pressure relief techniques every 15–30 minutes to prevent pressure injuries.
- Incorrect: B. Every 1–2 hours This frequency is recommended for bed-bound patients, not wheelchair users.
- Incorrect: C. Every 4 hours This is too infrequent to prevent pressure injuries.
- Incorrect: D. Every 6 hours This is insufficient to prevent pressure injuries.
37
Q
Which type of ulcer requires elevation and offloading of the heels to prevent further damage?
- A. Trochanteric ulcer
- B. Sacral ulcer
- C. Heel ulcer
- D. Coccygeal ulcer
A
- Correct: C. Heel ulcer Elevating and offloading the heels is critical for managing and preventing further damage to heel ulcers.
- Incorrect: A. Trochanteric ulcer Trochanteric ulcers require offloading from the greater trochanter, not the heels.
- Incorrect: B. Sacral ulcer Sacral ulcers require offloading from the sacrum.
- Incorrect: D. Coccygeal ulcer Coccygeal ulcers also require offloading but not from the heels.
38
Q
What is a disadvantage of gel overlays used in support surfaces?
- A. They are costly to manufacture
- B. They retain body heat and can warm over time
- C. They lack pressure redistribution capabilities
- D. They are ineffective for multiple pressure ulcers
A
- Correct: B. They retain body heat and can warm over time Gel overlays absorb body heat, initially feeling cool but warming over time, which can cause discomfort.
- Incorrect: A. They are costly to manufacture Cost is not a primary disadvantage.
- Incorrect: C. They lack pressure redistribution capabilities Gel overlays do provide pressure redistribution.
- Incorrect: D. They are ineffective for multiple pressure ulcers Gel overlays can be effective for multiple ulcers.
39
Q
What is a key feature of lateral rotation beds that makes them beneficial for pulmonary therapy?
- A. Pressure redistribution
- B. Cyclic inflation and deflation
- C. Positioning one lung higher than the other
- D. Managing heat and moisture
A
- Correct: C. Positioning one lung higher than the other Lateral rotation beds assist in pulmonary therapy by positioning one lung higher to prevent pneumonia.
- Incorrect: A. Pressure redistribution While they redistribute pressure, this is not specific to pulmonary therapy.
- Incorrect: B. Cyclic inflation and deflation This is a feature of alternating pressure beds, not lateral rotation beds.
- Incorrect: D. Managing heat and moisture This is not the primary function of lateral rotation beds.
40
Q
What is the primary function of the tunica media in arteries?
- A. Protect vessel walls from trauma
- B. Regulate vessel diameter
- C. Facilitate oxygen exchange
- D. Provide structural support
A
- Correct: B. Regulate vessel diameter The tunica media, composed of smooth muscle, modulates vessel diameter to regulate blood flow.
- Incorrect: A. Protect vessel walls from trauma This is the function of the tunica externa.
- Incorrect: C. Facilitate oxygen exchange Oxygen exchange occurs at the capillaries.
- Incorrect: D. Provide structural support Structural support is the role of the tunica externa.
41
Q
Which condition is the most common cause of arterial ulcers?
- A. Diabetes mellitus
- B. Arteriosclerosis
- C. Thromboangiitis obliterans
- D. Trauma
A
- Correct: B. Arteriosclerosis Arteriosclerosis leads to thickening and hardening of the arterial walls, decreasing perfusion and causing ulcers.
- Incorrect: A. Diabetes mellitus Diabetes contributes to arterial insufficiency but is not the most common direct cause.
- Incorrect: C. Thromboangiitis obliterans This is a rare condition associated with arterial ulcers.
- Incorrect: D. Trauma Trauma may precipitate arterial ulcers but is not the primary cause.
42
Q
What is intermittent claudication?
- A. Pain at rest caused by ischemia
- B. Activity-induced discomfort relieved by rest
- C. Burning pain exacerbated by elevation
- D. Pain caused by venous insufficiency
A
- Correct: B. Activity-induced discomfort relieved by rest Intermittent claudication is ischemic pain triggered by activity and relieved within minutes of rest.
- Incorrect: A. Pain at rest caused by ischemia This describes ischemic rest pain, not claudication.
- Incorrect: C. Burning pain exacerbated by elevation This also describes ischemic rest pain.
- Incorrect: D. Pain caused by venous insufficiency Claudication is specific to arterial insufficiency, not venous issues.
43
Q
Where are arterial ulcers most commonly located?
- A. Medial malleolus
- B. Anterior leg and lateral malleolus
- C. Popliteal fossa
- D. Thigh
A
- Correct: B. Anterior leg and lateral malleolus Arterial ulcers are typically found in the lower extremities, particularly the anterior leg and lateral malleolus.
- Incorrect: A. Medial malleolus This is a common location for venous ulcers.
- Incorrect: C. Popliteal fossa Arterial ulcers are rarely found in this area.
- Incorrect: D. Thigh Arterial ulcers are uncommon in the thigh.
44
Q
Which symptom is most indicative of arterial insufficiency?
- A. Swelling and edema
- B. Dependent rubor and elevational pallor
- C. Varicose veins
- D. Warm skin temperature
A
- Correct: B. Dependent rubor and elevational pallor These signs indicate impaired arterial perfusion and are hallmark symptoms of arterial insufficiency.
- Incorrect: A. Swelling and edema These are more indicative of venous insufficiency.
- Incorrect: C. Varicose veins These are associated with venous insufficiency.
- Incorrect: D. Warm skin temperature Cool skin temperature is a characteristic of arterial insufficiency.
45
Q
What are the characteristic features of arterial ulcers?
- A. Irregular, shallow wounds with heavy exudate
- B. Well-defined, dry, and “punched out” wounds
- C. Circular, moist wounds with granulation tissue
- D. Large, weeping wounds above the knee
A
- Correct: B. Well-defined, dry, and “punched out” wounds Arterial ulcers often have smooth edges and are associated with dry necrosis.
- Incorrect: A. Irregular, shallow wounds with heavy exudate These are features of venous ulcers.
- Incorrect: C. Circular, moist wounds with granulation tissue Moist wounds are more indicative of pressure or mixed ulcers.
- Incorrect: D. Large, weeping wounds above the knee Arterial ulcers are usually located below the knee.
46
Q
What is the primary purpose of measuring the Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI)?
- A. Assess oxygenation of tissues
- B. Diagnose venous insufficiency
- C. Determine the severity of arterial insufficiency
- D. Identify neuropathic involvement
A
- Correct: C. Determine the severity of arterial insufficiency ABI compares upper and lower extremity pressures to evaluate arterial perfusion.
- Incorrect: A. Assess oxygenation of tissues Oxygenation is measured with tcpO2, not ABI.
- Incorrect: B. Diagnose venous insufficiency ABI assesses arterial insufficiency, not venous issues.
- Incorrect: D. Identify neuropathic involvement ABI is unrelated to neuropathic assessment.
47
Q
Which dressing is most appropriate for an arterial ulcer with dry necrotic tissue and adequate perfusion?
- A. Hydrogel with a secondary dressing
- B. Foam dressing
- C. Alginate
- D. Hydrocolloid
A
- Correct: A. Hydrogel with a secondary dressing Hydrogel provides moisture to the wound bed, softening necrotic tissue for autolytic debridement.
- Incorrect: B. Foam dressing Foam dressings are not typically used for dry necrotic wounds.
- Incorrect: C. Alginate Alginate is better suited for wounds with heavy exudate.
- Incorrect: D. Hydrocolloid Hydrocolloids are not ideal for arterial ulcers with dry necrosis.
48
Q
What is a contraindication for debridement of arterial ulcers?
- A. Presence of slough
- B. ABI < 0.5
- C. Toe pressure >50 mmHg
- D. Moderate exudate
A
- Correct: B. ABI < 0.5 Debridement is contraindicated when perfusion is insufficient to support healing (ABI < 0.5).
- Incorrect: A. Presence of slough Slough may require debridement if perfusion is adequate.
- Incorrect: C. Toe pressure >50 mmHg This indicates sufficient perfusion for debridement.
- Incorrect: D. Moderate exudate Exudate level does not contraindicate debridement.
49
Q
What is the recommended intervention goal for arterial ulcers with impaired perfusion?
- A. Apply compression therapy
- B. Maintain warmth and avoid compression
- C. Aggressively debride necrotic tissue
- D. Use foam dressings for heavy exudate
A
- Correct: B. Maintain warmth and avoid compression Maintaining warmth supports circulation, while compression is contraindicated for impaired perfusion.
- Incorrect: A. Apply compression therapy Compression is contraindicated in arterial insufficiency.
- Incorrect: C. Aggressively debride necrotic tissue Debridement is contraindicated with impaired perfusion.
- Incorrect: D. Use foam dressings for heavy exudate Foam dressings are not ideal for dry wounds.
50
Q
Which risk factor is most strongly associated with the progression of arterial insufficiency ulcers?
- A. Smoking
- B. Advanced age
- C. Trauma
- D. Hypertension
A
- Correct: A. Smoking Smoking significantly contributes to arterial insufficiency by causing vasoconstriction, increasing clot formation, and reducing oxygen availability.
- Incorrect: B. Advanced age While age is a risk factor, smoking has a stronger association with progression.
- Incorrect: C. Trauma Trauma is often a precipitating factor but not the primary contributor to progression.
- Incorrect: D. Hypertension Hypertension contributes but less significantly than smoking.
51
Q
What is the purpose of the Rubor of Dependency test?
- A. Assess venous reflux
- B. Evaluate arterial flow in the lower extremities
- C. Determine capillary refill time
- D. Measure oxygenation in tissues
A
- Correct: B. Evaluate arterial flow in the lower extremities The Rubor of Dependency test evaluates arterial blood flow by observing color changes with leg elevation and dependency.
- Incorrect: A. Assess venous reflux This test does not evaluate venous function.
- Incorrect: C. Determine capillary refill time Capillary refill is assessed separately using nail bed pressure.
- Incorrect: D. Measure oxygenation in tissues Tissue oxygenation is measured with tcpO2, not this test.
52
Q
Which finding indicates severe arterial insufficiency on an Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI) test?
- A. ABI ≥ 1.3
- B. ABI 0.95–1.0
- C. ABI 0.5–0.8
- D. ABI < 0.5
A
- Correct: D. ABI < 0.5 An ABI value below 0.5 indicates severe arterial insufficiency, often associated with rest pain or tissue loss.
- Incorrect: A. ABI ≥ 1.3 This suggests calcified, non-compressible vessels, common in diabetes or CKD.
- Incorrect: B. ABI 0.95–1.0 This range is considered normal.
- Incorrect: C. ABI 0.5–0.8 This range indicates moderate arterial disease.
53
Q
What adjunctive modality is most appropriate for arterial ulcers with adequate perfusion?
- A. Negative Pressure Wound Therapy
- B. Hyperbaric Oxygen Therapy
- C. Low-Intensity Laser Therapy
- D. Electrical Stimulation
A
- Correct: B. Hyperbaric Oxygen Therapy HBO improves oxygenation and promotes healing in well-perfused arterial ulcers.
- Incorrect: A. Negative Pressure Wound Therapy NPWT is contraindicated for poorly perfused wounds.
- Incorrect: C. Low-Intensity Laser Therapy While helpful, HBO is more directly beneficial for arterial ulcers.
- Incorrect: D. Electrical Stimulation Electrical stimulation is useful but secondary to HBO in arterial ulcers.
54
Q
What is the clinical significance of dependent rubor in arterial insufficiency?
- A. Indicates venous congestion
- B. Suggests collateral circulation is intact
- C. Demonstrates arterial insufficiency with reactive hyperemia
- D. Confirms the presence of neuropathy
A
- Correct: C. Demonstrates arterial insufficiency with reactive hyperemia Dependent rubor is a classic sign of arterial insufficiency and indicates poor perfusion.
- Incorrect: A. Indicates venous congestion Venous congestion does not cause dependent rubor.
- Incorrect: B. Suggests collateral circulation is intact Dependent rubor suggests inadequate arterial perfusion, not sufficient collateral circulation.
- Incorrect: D. Confirms the presence of neuropathy Neuropathy does not typically cause dependent rubor.
55
Q
What is the primary indication for transcutaneous oxygen pressure (tcpO2) testing in arterial ulcers?
- A. To assess venous insufficiency
- B. To evaluate oxygen diffusion across the skin
- C. To measure ankle pressure
- D. To determine the risk of neuropathy
A
- Correct: B. To evaluate oxygen diffusion across the skin TcpO2 measures oxygen diffusion to assess tissue perfusion.
- Incorrect: A. To assess venous insufficiency TcpO2 is used for arterial, not venous, evaluation.
- Incorrect: C. To measure ankle pressure Ankle pressures are measured using ABI, not tcpO2.
- Incorrect: D. To determine the risk of neuropathy TcpO2 does not assess neuropathy risk.
56
Q
What is the recommended treatment goal for arterial ulcers with ischemic rest pain?
- A. Aggressive debridement
- B. Revascularization
- C. Compression therapy
- D. Autolytic debridement
A
- Correct: B. Revascularization Revascularization is essential to restore blood flow and relieve ischemic rest pain.
- Incorrect: A. Aggressive debridement Debridement is contraindicated without adequate perfusion.
- Incorrect: C. Compression therapy Compression is contraindicated in arterial insufficiency.
- Incorrect: D. Autolytic debridement Autolytic debridement is not effective without adequate perfusion.
57
Q
Which dressing is contraindicated for arterial ulcers with dry necrosis and inadequate perfusion?
- A. Hydrocolloid
- B. Non-adherent foam
- C. Hydrogel
- D. Alginate
A
- Correct: A. Hydrocolloid Hydrocolloids are occlusive and not recommended for dry necrotic arterial ulcers.
- Incorrect: B. Non-adherent foam Foam dressings are suitable for protecting dry necrotic areas.
- Incorrect: C. Hydrogel Hydrogel is appropriate for moistening dry necrotic tissue.
- Incorrect: D. Alginate Alginate is inappropriate for dry wounds but is not contraindicated.
58
Q
Which factor contributes most significantly to arterial ulcer progression?
- A. Hyperlipidemia
- B. Impaired wound healing
- C. Smoking
- D. Poor glycemic control
A
- Correct: C. Smoking Smoking exacerbates arterial insufficiency by increasing clot formation, vasoconstriction, and reducing oxygen delivery.
- Incorrect: A. Hyperlipidemia While significant, hyperlipidemia contributes less directly than smoking.
- Incorrect: B. Impaired wound healing Impaired healing is a consequence, not a primary contributor.
- Incorrect: D. Poor glycemic control Glycemic control impacts arterial health but less than smoking.
59
Q
What is the best initial step in managing arterial ulcers with ABI < 0.5?
- A. Compression therapy
- B. Surgical debridement
- C. Revascularization consultation
- D. Apply hydrogel dressing
A
- Correct: C. Revascularization consultation Immediate revascularization is required for severe arterial insufficiency.
- Incorrect: A. Compression therapy Compression is contraindicated with ABI < 0.5.
- Incorrect: B. Surgical debridement Debridement is unsafe without adequate perfusion.
- Incorrect: D. Apply hydrogel dressing Hydrogel does not address perfusion issues.
60
Q
What is the primary cause of neuropathic ulcers in patients with diabetes?
- A. Venous insufficiency
- B. Peripheral neuropathy
- C. Arterial insufficiency
- D. Pressure injuries
A
- Correct: B. Peripheral neuropathy Peripheral neuropathy leads to loss of sensation, making patients unaware of injuries and pressure, which can lead to ulceration.
- Incorrect: A. Venous insufficiency Venous insufficiency causes different types of ulcers.
- Incorrect: C. Arterial insufficiency Arterial insufficiency is not the primary cause of neuropathic ulcers.
- Incorrect: D. Pressure injuries Pressure injuries can contribute but are secondary to neuropathy.
61
Q
Which factor contributes most significantly to delayed wound healing in patients with diabetes?
- A. Poor glycemic control
- B. Advanced age
- C. Inadequate protein intake
- D. Lack of exercise
A
- Correct: A. Poor glycemic control Hyperglycemia impairs immune function, collagen synthesis, and angiogenesis, delaying wound healing.
- Incorrect: B. Advanced age While age is a factor, poor glycemic control is more significant in diabetes.
- Incorrect: C. Inadequate protein intake Protein deficiency affects healing but is not the primary issue in diabetes.
- Incorrect: D. Lack of exercise Exercise affects overall health but is less directly linked to delayed wound healing.
62
Q
What is the hallmark characteristic of a neuropathic ulcer?
- A. Irregular edges with heavy exudate
- B. Well-defined margins with surrounding callus
- C. Painful wound with erythematous base
- D. Punched-out appearance with dry necrosis
A
- Correct: B. Well-defined margins with surrounding callus Neuropathic ulcers typically have well-defined margins and callus around the wound due to repetitive trauma and pressure.
- Incorrect: A. Irregular edges with heavy exudate These are characteristics of venous ulcers.
- Incorrect: C. Painful wound with erythematous base Neuropathic ulcers are often painless due to sensory loss.
- Incorrect: D. Punched-out appearance with dry necrosis This describes arterial ulcers.
63
Q
Where are neuropathic ulcers most commonly located?
- A. Dorsum of the foot
- B. Medial malleolus
- C. Plantar aspect of the foot
- D. Popliteal fossa
A
- Correct: C. Plantar aspect of the foot Neuropathic ulcers commonly occur on weight-bearing areas like the plantar surface.
- Incorrect: A. Dorsum of the foot This location is less typical for neuropathic ulcers.
- Incorrect: B. Medial malleolus This is a common site for venous ulcers.
- Incorrect: D. Popliteal fossa Neuropathic ulcers do not typically occur in this area.
64
Q
What is the purpose of a 10-gram monofilament test? * A. Assess motor neuropathy * B. Evaluate arterial blood flow * C. Identify loss of protective sensation * D. Determine autonomic dysfunction
A
- Correct: C. Identify loss of protective sensation The monofilament test assesses sensory function to identify areas of diminished sensation. * Incorrect: A. Assess motor neuropathy Motor neuropathy involves muscle weakness, not sensory loss. * Incorrect: B. Evaluate arterial blood flow The monofilament test does not assess circulation. * Incorrect: D. Determine autonomic dysfunction The test does not evaluate autonomic functions.
65
Q
What is the gold standard off-loading device for neuropathic ulcers? * A. Total contact cast * B. Diabetic shoes * C. Gel heel cushion * D. Knee scooter
A
- Correct: A. Total contact cast Total contact casting evenly redistributes pressure, protecting the ulcer and promoting healing. * Incorrect: B. Diabetic shoes Diabetic shoes are effective for prevention but not the gold standard for treatment. * Incorrect: C. Gel heel cushion Heel cushions reduce pressure locally but are not comprehensive solutions. * Incorrect: D. Knee scooter Knee scooters are used for mobility, not pressure off-loading.
66
Q
Which type of neuropathy is responsible for autonomic dysfunction in diabetic patients? * A. Sensory neuropathy * B. Motor neuropathy * C. Autonomic neuropathy * D. Mixed neuropathy
A
- Correct: C. Autonomic neuropathy Autonomic neuropathy affects involuntary functions, such as sweat production and blood flow, contributing to diabetic wound pathology. * Incorrect: A. Sensory neuropathy Sensory neuropathy involves loss of protective sensation, not autonomic function. * Incorrect: B. Motor neuropathy Motor neuropathy causes muscle weakness, not autonomic dysfunction. * Incorrect: D. Mixed neuropathy While mixed neuropathy may involve autonomic dysfunction, the specific cause here is autonomic neuropathy.
67
Q
What is the significance of elevated plantar pressure in diabetic patients? * A. Increased risk of arterial insufficiency ulcers * B. Decreased callus formation * C. Increased risk of neuropathic ulcers * D. Improved blood flow to the toes
A
- Correct: C. Increased risk of neuropathic ulcers Elevated plantar pressure exacerbates tissue damage, leading to ulcer formation in patients with sensory loss. * Incorrect: A. Increased risk of arterial insufficiency ulcers Arterial ulcers are not caused by plantar pressure. * Incorrect: B. Decreased callus formation Plantar pressure increases callus formation. * Incorrect: D. Improved blood flow to the toes Elevated pressure does not improve circulation.
68
Q
What is a contraindication for total contact casting? * A. Plantar ulcers with moderate exudate * B. Presence of infection or osteomyelitis * C. Neuropathic ulcers in non-weight-bearing areas * D. Patients with normal sensation
A
- Correct: B. Presence of infection or osteomyelitis Total contact casting is contraindicated when infection or osteomyelitis is present, as it can exacerbate the condition. * Incorrect: A. Plantar ulcers with moderate exudate Total contact casting can still be used for exudative ulcers with appropriate dressings. * Incorrect: C. Neuropathic ulcers in non-weight-bearing areas Off-loading is not required for non-weight-bearing areas. * Incorrect: D. Patients with normal sensation Total contact casting is primarily for those with sensory loss.
69
Q
What is the recommended frequency for diabetic foot inspections to prevent ulcer development? * A. Weekly * B. Biweekly * C. Daily * D. Monthly
A
- Correct: C. Daily Diabetic patients should inspect their feet daily to identify early signs of injury or ulceration. * Incorrect: A. Weekly Weekly inspections may miss early signs of injury. * Incorrect: B. Biweekly This frequency is insufficient for high-risk patients. * Incorrect: D. Monthly Monthly inspections are not frequent enough for prevention.
70
Q
What is the role of autonomic neuropathy in the development of diabetic foot ulcers? * A. Increases tissue oxygenation * B. Reduces sweat production, causing dry and cracked skin * C. Enhances vascular dilation * D. Strengthens plantar muscles
A
- Correct: B. Reduces sweat production, causing dry and cracked skin Autonomic neuropathy reduces sweat production, leading to dry skin and fissures that increase ulcer risk. * Incorrect: A. Increases tissue oxygenation Autonomic dysfunction reduces perfusion rather than improving oxygenation. * Incorrect: C. Enhances vascular dilation It impairs vascular regulation, not dilation. * Incorrect: D. Strengthens plantar muscles Motor neuropathy affects muscles, not autonomic neuropathy.
71
Q
What is the first step in managing a diabetic foot ulcer with signs of infection? * A. Apply an alginate dressing * B. Start broad-spectrum antibiotics * C. Perform surgical debridement * D. Initiate total contact casting
A
- Correct: B. Start broad-spectrum antibiotics Antibiotics address infection, which must be managed before other interventions like debridement or casting. * Incorrect: A. Apply an alginate dressing Dressings alone do not manage infections. * Incorrect: C. Perform surgical debridement Debridement can spread infection if not controlled first. * Incorrect: D. Initiate total contact casting Casting is contraindicated in the presence of infection.
72
Q
Which test is most commonly used to evaluate protective sensation in diabetic patients? * A. Tuning fork test * B. 10-gram monofilament test * C. Ankle-brachial index (ABI) * D. Transcutaneous oxygen pressure (tcpO2)
A
- Correct: B. 10-gram monofilament test The monofilament test is the gold standard for identifying loss of protective sensation. * Incorrect: A. Tuning fork test The tuning fork evaluates vibratory sensation, not protective sensation. * Incorrect: C. Ankle-brachial index (ABI) ABI assesses arterial perfusion, not sensation. * Incorrect: D. Transcutaneous oxygen pressure (tcpO2) TcpO2 measures tissue oxygenation, not sensory function.
73
Q
What is a primary characteristic of motor neuropathy in diabetic patients? * A. Loss of sensation * B. Muscle atrophy and foot deformities * C. Increased sweat production * D. Elevated plantar pressures
A
- Correct: B. Muscle atrophy and foot deformities Motor neuropathy causes intrinsic muscle weakness, leading to deformities like claw toes. * Incorrect: A. Loss of sensation This is a feature of sensory neuropathy, not motor neuropathy. * Incorrect: C. Increased sweat production Autonomic neuropathy reduces, not increases, sweat production. * Incorrect: D. Elevated plantar pressures This results from foot deformities caused by motor neuropathy but is not a direct characteristic.
74
Q
What is the purpose of a Charcot restraint orthotic walker (CROW)? * A. Enhance vascular flow to the foot * B. Off-load pressure and immobilize the foot * C. Improve ankle joint mobility * D. Reduce sweat production in autonomic neuropathy
A
- Correct: B. Off-load pressure and immobilize the foot The CROW device redistributes pressure and immobilizes the foot to facilitate healing. * Incorrect: A. Enhance vascular flow to the foot It does not improve vascular flow. * Incorrect: C. Improve ankle joint mobility The CROW is designed for immobilization, not mobility. * Incorrect: D. Reduce sweat production in autonomic neuropathy It does not address autonomic dysfunction.
75
Q
Which intervention is most effective in preventing recurrence of neuropathic ulcers? * A. Total contact casting * B. Daily foot inspections and protective footwear * C. Routine whirlpool therapy * D. Application of hydrogel dressings
A
- Correct: B. Daily foot inspections and protective footwear Regular inspections and appropriate footwear prevent injury and reduce recurrence risk. * Incorrect: A. Total contact casting Casting is effective for treatment but not prevention. * Incorrect: C. Routine whirlpool therapy Whirlpool therapy is not indicated for prevention. * Incorrect: D. Application of hydrogel dressings Dressings are for wound management, not prevention.
76
Q
What is the best strategy to reduce plantar pressures in diabetic patients? * A. Custom-molded orthotics * B. Heel cushions * C. Increased walking activity * D. Surgical intervention
A
- Correct: A. Custom-molded orthotics Orthotics redistribute plantar pressure, reducing the risk of ulceration. * Incorrect: B. Heel cushions Cushions only address localized pressure and are not sufficient alone. * Incorrect: C. Increased walking activity Excessive activity may increase plantar pressures and injury risk. * Incorrect: D. Surgical intervention Surgery is reserved for severe cases or deformities.
77
Q
Which sign is most indicative of infection in a diabetic foot ulcer? * A. Presence of granulation tissue * B. Increased exudate and erythema * C. Dry wound bed * D. Reduced wound size
A
- Correct: B. Increased exudate and erythema These signs indicate inflammation and possible infection in a diabetic ulcer. * Incorrect: A. Presence of granulation tissue Granulation tissue is a sign of healing, not infection. * Incorrect: C. Dry wound bed A dry wound bed does not necessarily indicate infection. * Incorrect: D. Reduced wound size Reduction in size is a sign of healing.
78
Q
Which off-loading device is appropriate for a patient who cannot tolerate total contact casting? * A. Charcot restraint orthotic walker (CROW) * B. Diabetic shoes with custom inserts * C. Gel heel cushion * D. Ankle-foot orthosis (AFO)
A
- Correct: A. Charcot restraint orthotic walker (CROW) The CROW is an alternative off-loading device for patients unable to tolerate casting. * Incorrect: B. Diabetic shoes with custom inserts These are preventive measures, not substitutes for casting. * Incorrect: C. Gel heel cushion Cushions provide localized relief but are insufficient for significant off-loading. * Incorrect: D. Ankle-foot orthosis (AFO) AFOs are used for support but do not redistribute pressure.
79
Q
What is the ideal ABI range for safe compression therapy in diabetic patients? * A. 0.9–1.2 * B. 0.8–1.0 * C. 0.5–0.7 * D. <0.5
A
- Correct: B. 0.8–1.0 ABI values in this range indicate sufficient arterial perfusion for safe compression. * Incorrect: A. 0.9–1.2 While normal, this range may not include all diabetic patients. * Incorrect: C. 0.5–0.7 This range indicates moderate arterial insufficiency, making compression risky. * Incorrect: D. <0.5 ABI below 0.5 is contraindicated for compression therapy.
80
Q
What is the primary function of venous valves? * A. Propel blood forward using muscle contraction * B. Prevent backflow of blood * C. Facilitate oxygen exchange * D. Regulate venous blood pressure
A
- Correct: B. Prevent backflow of blood Venous valves ensure unidirectional flow of blood toward the heart. * Incorrect: A. Propel blood forward using muscle contraction Propulsion is achieved by the muscle pump, not valves. * Incorrect: C. Facilitate oxygen exchange Oxygen exchange occurs in capillaries, not veins. * Incorrect: D. Regulate venous blood pressure Pressure regulation involves multiple factors, not solely valves.
81
Q
Which of the following is a primary risk factor for venous insufficiency? * A. Prolonged standing * B. Low blood pressure * C. Sedentary lifestyle * D. Low BMI
A
- Correct: A. Prolonged standing Standing for extended periods increases venous pressure and contributes to valve dysfunction. * Incorrect: B. Low blood pressure Low blood pressure does not cause venous insufficiency. * Incorrect: C. Sedentary lifestyle While relevant, it is less directly linked than prolonged standing. * Incorrect: D. Low BMI High BMI is a more significant risk factor.
82
Q
What is the hallmark clinical sign of venous insufficiency? * A. Intermittent claudication * B. Dependent edema * C. Cool, pale skin * D. Thickened toenails
A
- Correct: B. Dependent edema Dependent edema is a hallmark of venous insufficiency, caused by increased venous pressure and fluid leakage. * Incorrect: A. Intermittent claudication This is associated with arterial insufficiency. * Incorrect: C. Cool, pale skin These symptoms suggest arterial disease. * Incorrect: D. Thickened toenails Thickened toenails are not a primary sign of venous insufficiency.
