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C-5 Eval Guide > Instruments & Avionics > Flashcards

Instruments & Avionics Flashcards

1
Q

The four VNAV operating sub-modes are:

A

VNAV FLCH; VNAV PTH; VNAV ALC; VNAV ALT

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2
Q

_____ allows manual override of altitude constraints programmed into the FMS or altitude restrictions set in the AFCS ALTITUDE window.

A

ALTITUDE INTERVENE

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3
Q

Altitude and speed intervene functions are only operative when ____ is engaged.

A

VNAV

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4
Q

The ____ acts as a backup bus controller to the two VIA/AIUs and takes control of the buses in the event of power or comm. failure of both VIA/AIUs.

A

Backup Integrating Processor (BIP)

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5
Q

With VOR or TACAN selected on the CNP as the CDI source, each green dot on the CDI scale indicates ____ degrees of deviation from course; with ILS or MLS selected, each dot indicates ____ degrees of deviation.

A

5; 1.25

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6
Q

How many RIUs are on the airplane and what do they do??

A

Six; provide analog and airplane component signals to core processing.

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7
Q

The LNAV terminal area mode is active when the airplane is within ____ NM of the departure or arrival airport, or when the active waypoint is part of a departure or arrival procedure.

A

30

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8
Q

The LNAV approach mode is active when inbound to the destination airport and the active waypoint is part of an instrument approach procedure, or when within ____ NM of the final approach fix.

A

5

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9
Q

The LNAV TRACK OFFSET provides a capability to fly a track parallel to the active waypoint and offset from 1 to ____NM left or right of course. However, the offset distance must be ____ the distance to the active waypoint.

A

99; Less than

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10
Q

Default RNP values are as follows: Enroute is ____, Terminal area is ____, Approach is ____.

A

4; 1; 0.3

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11
Q

Which CWA is displayed when the C-5 is NOT qualified for RNP operations without ATC approval? RNAV may still be possible.

A

UNABLE RNP

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12
Q

The FMS can only be commanded to operate in a dedicated sensor mode when the __________ Caution CWA is displayed and the NAV mode is set to MAN.

A

UNABLE RNP

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13
Q

_______mode represents the highest level of FMS vertical navigation automation for the aircraft. It can only be engaged when the AFCS is already operating laterally in LNAV.

A

VNAV

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14
Q

The _______ mode can be thought of as an automatic FLCH mode since this mode provides the same climb, cruise, and descent functionality as
the FLCH mode with the added feature that it will follow the programmed VNAV CLB, CRZ, and DES speed schedule options displayed on the MCDU VNAV pages.

A

VPRO

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15
Q

The _______ Caution CWA is generated to alert the crew that the airplane is off course and approaching the RNP containment limit.

A

EXCEED RNP (the sum of “nav system error” plus “cross track error” exceeds current RNP)

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16
Q

When does the FMS transition into Terminal mode and what does this mean?

A

 When the aircraft position is within 30NM from the selected destination or when the active waypoint is part of a departure or arrival
 RNP changes to < 1

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17
Q

When does the FMS transition into Approach mode and what does this mean?

A

 When the aircraft position is within 5nm of the final approach fix or the active waypoint is part of an instrument approach procedure
 RNP changes to 0.3

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18
Q

What is RNP?

A

 Required Navigation Performance

 Must be able to achieve navigational accuracy to the RNP value 95% of the time. (Position accuracy)

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19
Q

What is the minimum altitude to engage LNAV

A

50’ AGL

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20
Q

What is the maximum course capture distance for LNAV to engage?

A

2.5NM

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21
Q

What is the minimum altitude to engage VNAV?

A

400’ AGL

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22
Q

Using FMS Time Navigation, ____ targets can be entered to automatically control the arrival time at an associated cruise waypoint.

A

RTA (Required Time of Arrival)

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23
Q

On the ground, a recommended takeoff time is computed and displayed which permit an on time arrival at the first flight plan _____.

A

RTA (Required Time of Arrival)

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24
Q

On the legs pages, altitude entries can contain prefixes or suffixes. What do the following indicate?

A

 2500A indicates: At or above 2500

 12000B indicates: At or below 12000

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25
Q

When selecting an alternate from the Alternate pages, the default on the ground is selection of an alternate at the _______ and in flight, the alternate with the _______.

A

shortest distance; earliest ETA

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26
Q

Selection of the DIVERT NOW option does what four things?

A

 Changes destination airport to alternate
 Puts route mod into active flight plan
 Deletes part of original route not on the diversion route
 Deletes all descent constraints

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27
Q

MCDU control of the communications radios, except _______, is accomplished through the COMM TUNE page.

A

HF No. 2

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28
Q

Emission (EMCON) control of the communications radios, except _______ and ______ is provided through the SYS  EMCON page.

A

UHF3; HF No. 2

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29
Q

Which comm. Radios can be tuned using the CNPs?

A

V/UHF No. 1, V/UHF No. 2, UHF No. 3, and HF No. 1

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30
Q

______ and _____ are the only communication radios available in BIP backup mode.

A

UHF No. 3 and HF No. 2

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31
Q

UHF No. 3 mode selections can be accomplished from either the _____ or _______ or from the control panel located in ____________.

A

CNPs; MCDUs; equipment bay No. 3

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32
Q

V/UHF No. 2 may fail when switching from external to APU power. Operation can be recovered by cycling power on the _____ page.

A

CNS POWER

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33
Q

Simultaneous operation of both V/UHF radios on certain discrete freqs may result in interference in one or both receivers. If such interference is encountered, manual MCDU selection of _______ antenna for one radio and ______ antenna for the other radio will remove the interference.

A

UPPER; LOWER

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34
Q

AERO-I SATCOM System communications are available from sea level to 55,000 feet and from ___ degrees north latitude to ___ degrees south latitude.

A

75; 75

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35
Q

The two separate partitions in the VIA computers are used to accomplish datalink applications are?

A

CMF partition and FMS partition

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36
Q

The _____ partition processes and routes all datalink communications and is used to initiate contact with ATS facilities for reception of Terminal Weather Information For Pilots (TWIP) and Air Traffic Information Service (ATIS) data, and predeparture clearances.

A

CMF

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37
Q

The _____ partition datalink functions include the ATC communications application and the FMC communications application. The ATC application is used for direct communications with ATC centers, and the FMC application for interfacing with military command and control networks.

A

FMS

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38
Q

The ATC communications application, contained within the FMS, provides what three functionalities?

A

 Air Traffic Services Facilities Notification (AFN)
 Controller/Pilot Datalink Communications (CPDLC)
 Automatic Dependent Surveillance (ADS)

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39
Q

The _____ is used to establish a connection to an ATC facility, to handle a switchover between two ATC units, and to terminate service with an ATC unit.

A

AFN

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40
Q

_______ is used for direct exchange of messages between the crew and the ATC controller.

A

CPDLC

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41
Q

What three requirements govern CPDLC communications?

A

 Close messages wherever possible
 A message opened by CPDLC must be closed by CPDLC
 A message opened by voice must be closed by voice, not CPDLC

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42
Q

_____ uses automatically generated reports to provide improved flight following and monitoring. Reports are generated at specific time intervals or in response to specific events (waypoint change or deviations from flight plan), or on demand.

A

ADS (Automatic Dependent Surveillance)

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43
Q

The ________ system provides two-way datalink comm between the airplane and the military command and control network. Position reports and route reports may be transmitted manually or in response to a request from TACC. Flight

A

FMC COMM

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44
Q

The ______________ comm system provides two-way datalink comm and position information between the flight crew and government facilities including the TACC, command posts, other DOD facilities, and ATS facilities.

A

Communications Management Function (CMF)

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45
Q

The CMF is required to support Global Air Traffic Management (GATM) operations. Included in this capability is the ____________ subsystem and the _________ subsystem.

A

Airline Operational Control (AOC); Air Traffic Services (ATS)

46
Q

________ provides for uplink/downlink of flight planning data, position report data, and associated utility data messages with the TACC, command posts, and other DOD facilities.

A

AOC

47
Q

________ provides for request and receipt of predeparture clearances and ATIS and TWIP information.

A

ATS

48
Q

If an EGPWS terrain ______ or ______ occurs, the NAV display format with HDG UP and the active EGPWS overlay is automatically displayed on at least one of the pilot or copilot MFDUs (if not already selected).

A

caution; warning

49
Q

The symbol for an RA is a _____________.

A

solid red square with a data tag

50
Q

The symbol for a TA is a ______________.

A

solid yellow circle with a data tag

51
Q

The symbol for proximate traffic is a ___________.

A

solid white diamond with a data tag

52
Q

The symbol for non-threat traffic is a _____________.

A

white diamond outline with a data tag

53
Q

The EGIs are self-contained all-attitude navigation systems consisting of a ______________ and an _______________.

A

global positioning system (GPS); inertial navigation unit (INU)

54
Q

The ______ component of the EGI provides accurate attitude and position at any location and in any weather.

A

INU

55
Q

The ______ component of the EGI is a space-based radio navigation system that processes satellite RF signals to globally and continuously compute position and velocity.

A

GPS

56
Q

The INU requires an external command defining the ___________ before the transition to another mode can be accomplished.

A

present position

57
Q

An inflight alignment can be performed when the GPS is in the NAV
mode and has a Figure of Merit (FOM) of ____ or less.

A

4

58
Q

The NARF (Navigation Alignment Refining Feature) mode is available when the EGI has completed a GC alignment and the EGI is operating in the ____ mode.

A

NAV

59
Q

NARF mode is auto-selected by the EGI when airplane motion is detected that is interpreted as ______ operations.

A

taxiing

60
Q

In the NAV mode, what three navigation solutions can be selected either manually or automatically for use by the FMS:

A

 Blended INU/GPS solution
 INU only solution
 GPS only solution

61
Q

To support RNAV approach operations, the FMS automatically commands the GPS to perform RAIM availability checks at the _________ and _________.

A

final approach fix; missed approach point

62
Q

The RAIM availability check is executed when the aircraft is _____NM outside the FAF and the pilot is notified through an SP message if either check fails.

A

2 NM

63
Q

When flying RNAV approaches as an RNP airplane, the RAIM check failed SP messages are advisory only and can be disregarded provided the __________CWA is not displayed.

A

UNABLE RNP

64
Q

The Micro IRS (MIRS) is an inertial reference unit, which uses a sensor assembly similar to that of the EGI. The MIRS serves as a third source of _______, _______, ________, and _______, providing a fail-operative capability for systems using these outputs.

A

attitude; rate; acceleration; heading

65
Q

In the __________ navigation mode, the FMS produces a navigation solution by combining heading data from the MIRS, airspeed data, and wind data to extrapolate present position from a selected starting position.

A

dead reckoning

66
Q

The ____________ advisory message is annunciated at GS capture if the localizer receiver has failed to switch from the tail to the nose antenna.

A

NOSE LOC ANT OFF

67
Q

Which has precedence when issuing warnings, TCAS or EGPWS?

A

EGPWS

68
Q

Are you required to respond to a TCAS RA if you have the associated traffic in sight?

A

Yes

69
Q

Which takes precedence, a TCAS RA or an ATC clearance?

A

TCAS RA

70
Q

What is the detection envelope of the TCAS system?

A

80 NM forward, 15 NM either side of the airplane, and 12 NM aft (depending on traffic density)

71
Q

How many aircraft can the TCAS system track?

A

TCAS is capable of tracking a total of 50 TCAS equipped intruders, although only 19 can be displayed on the TCAS overlay at one time.

72
Q

The TCAS processor receives an input from flap position to inhibit the climb maneuver whenever the flaps are extended to _______ or greater.

A

40 percent

73
Q

Increase descent resolution advisories are inhibited when radar altitude is below ________.

A

1450 feet AGL

74
Q

TCAS installation gives ______ higher priority than TCAS.

A

EGPWS

75
Q

The MAP 1 radar mode is used for:

A

Short range terrain mapping.

76
Q

The MAP 2 radar mode provides:

A

Low level terrain definition and short range, air-to-air formation capability

77
Q

The radar INOP lights (ANT or RT) are valid only if what mode is selected?

A

TEST

78
Q

The presentation of radar data is only accurate when the NAV display is in the “_________” mode.

A

heading up

79
Q

To avoid confusion with EGPWS generated terrain data, ______ information cannot be displayed simultaneously with terrain information.

A

weather

80
Q

Does a malfunction of the Co-Pilot’s Stallimeter system affect the Pilot’s Stallimeter system?

A

 No, each stallimiter system side is separately controlled, self-monitored, and contains independent BIT software. Each has dual monitored independent sensors, independent processing, and independently provides signals to actuate the associated control column shaker and stall special alert. Consequently, a malfunction in one side will not affect the performance of the other side. If either side fails, the control column shaker action is provided from the other side through a control column interconnect rod, and the stall special alert is provided by the other side.

81
Q

What do the yellow and red tapes on the PFD indicate?

A

 The top of the yellow band is variable and depends on gross weight, configuration, bank angle, maneuvering load factor and pressure altitude and is based on 1.2 VSTALL.
 The top of the red band is variable and is based on 1.05 VSTALL.

82
Q

Is the stallimeter system accurate for No Slat with Flap approaches?

A

 No, for abnormal flap/slat configurations (as sensed by the stallimeter system), the stick shaker/stall warning may not activate properly and the stall/maneuvering indications on the airspeed tape may be inaccurate.

83
Q

If the airplane approaches a stall and the incoming AOA signals exceed the programmed value, the following two actions occur:

A

 Normal/alternate noseup trim signals to horizontal stab are interrupted
 The control column shakers are activated

84
Q

The stall ______ function actuates the control column shakers to warn of an impending stall.

A

Warning

85
Q

The stall _______ function activates audible and visual indications that the airplane is penetrating the stall envelope.

A

Limiting

86
Q

The programmed stall AOA value is always greater than _____ AOA, and the associated warnings are prevented from preceding this.

A

shaker onset

87
Q

The programmed AOA for the stall warning is adjusted for _______ and when the slats are fully extended, the onset point is shifted and further adjusted for _________.

A

Mach number; stabilizer position

88
Q

Stabilizer position is used to adjust the AOA for the stall warning to compensate for different _______.

A

CGs

89
Q

Shaker onset AOA value is adjusted according to ______.

A

Mach number

90
Q

The shaker onset point is also shifted when either the slats are _______, or inflight, thrust reversers are ______.

A

fully extended; not locked

91
Q

If AOA exceeds shaker onset and penetrates the stall envelope, an audible warning sounds and the _____ annunciation is displayed.

A

STALL

92
Q

How is a GPWS different from an EGPWS?

A

The E stands for Enhanced and the EGPWS incorporates the six alerting modes (Mode 1 through Mode 6) of the basic Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS), plus wind shear alerting (Mode 7) and a Terrain Awareness and Warning System (TAWS).

93
Q

How does the ground proximity warning system work?

A

The EGPWS uses the navigation position in conjunction with the terrain and obstacle database to provide the TAWS function. The accuracy of the position and the quality (resolution) of the database are used by the EGPWS to determine if the TAWS function is operating at a high level of confidence.

94
Q

Mode 7 of the EGPWS, Wind Shear, is only functional below what altitude?

A

1,500’ AGL

95
Q

What is the difference between a Wind Shear Caution and a Wind Shear Warning?

A 
 Caution
Increasing performance wind shear
Amber WIND SHEAR message on the PFD
“CAUTION WIND SHEAR” aural alert
 Warning
Decreasing performance wind shear
Red WIND SHEAR message on the PFD
“WIND SHEAR WIND SHEAR WIND SHEAR” aural alert
96
Q

What do the high-density yellow and red dots indicate on the GPWS terrain display of the MFDU?

A

 Red indicates terrain greater than 2,000’ above your current altitude
 Yellow indicates terrain from 1,000 to 2,000’ above your current altitude

97
Q

The tactical Mode 6B alert is “ALTITUDE, ALTITUDE” when the airplane descends _____ feet below the RA selected with the AFCS MINS/REF SET knob.

A

50

98
Q

If the EGPWS detects an increasing performance wind shear (increasing headwind, decreasing tailwind, or updraft), an _______ “WIND SHEAR” message is displayed in the PFD special alerts window and a “____________” aural alert sounds.

A

Amber; CAUTION WIND SHEAR

99
Q

If a decreasing performance wind shear (increasing tailwind, decreasing headwind, or downdraft) is detected, a _____ “WIND SHEAR” message is displayed in the PFD special alerts window and a “__________” aural alert sounds.

A

Red; WIND SHEAR, WIND SHEAR, WIND SHEAR

100
Q

Penetration of the EGPWS obstacle CAUTION alert boundary results in a “________________,” aural alert and the obstacle is displayed solid yellow.

A

CAUTION OBSTACLE, CAUTION OBSTACLE

101
Q

The aural alert with penetration of the EGPWS obstacle WARNING alert boundary is “________,” and the obstacle is displayed solid red.

A

OBSTACLE, OBSTACLE, PULL UP

102
Q

To avoid unwanted alerts when operating within 15 NM of an airport that is not in the airport database, the TAD/TCF functions should be manually inhibited by selecting _____________ to ON from the EGPWS page.

A

TERRAIN INHIB

103
Q

FYI: Selection of the TACTICAL flight mode on the EGPWS Control Page affects the basic GPWS modes as follows:

A

 Mode 2 is set to the flaps down and gear down conditions and the aural alert is “TERRAIN TERRAIN” only
 Mode 4 warnings are restricted to a “TOO LOW GEAR” or “TOO LOW FLAPS” message when below 150 feet and below 150 knots
 Mode 6: the ‘‘MINIMUMS, MINIMUMS’’ alert is replaced with an ‘‘ALTITUDE, ALTITUDE’’ alert is triggered when the aircraft descends 50 feet below the radar altitude set by the AFCS panel BARO/MINs function.
 The TAD (Terrain/Obstacle Alerting and Display) and TCF (Terrain Clearance Floor) functions are inhibited for terrain and obstacles

104
Q

When the airplane is within _____ feet of the altitude selected on the AFCS Panel, the altitude is captured by the AFCS, the CHECK ALTITUDE special alert is armed, and the command altitude marker is solid.

A

175

105
Q

If the airplane deviates more than _____ feet from the selected altitude, the “CHECK ALTITUDE” audio message sounds and a simultaneous CHECK ALTITUDE special alert text message is displayed.

A

±200

106
Q

At power on, the SAI requires ____ min to initialize.

A

3 MINUTES

107
Q

What are the radar hazard areas?

A

 People & electro-explosives - 34 feet

 Fueling operations - 46 feet

108
Q

What must be deselected when flying an RNAV approach and how do you do this?

A

 INU/RAD Solutions

 Press the LSK adjacent to the solution you want to deselect on the POS page

109
Q

Operating a cabin pressure above ___ feet could cause damage to radar components.

A

20000

110
Q

Radar warm-up time is:

A

3 minutes

111
Q

Thunderstorm avoidance criteria are:

A

 FL 230 and above - 20NM
 Below FL230 - 10NM
 2000 ft above tops
 5NM for tactical and low-level ops (below FL230, if OAT > 0C)

C-5 Eval Guide (17 decks)

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