Engines Flashcards

1
Q

What type of engines does the C-5 have?

A

GE CF6 (CF6-80-C2-L1F)

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2
Q

How much thrust does the CF6 engine produce?

A

Flat-rated engine provides 51,250 lbs up to 35°C, above 35°C thrust
decreases with temperature

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3
Q

__________ is used to measure thrust

A

Fan rotor speed (N1)

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4
Q

Maximum continuous thrust is __________

A

44,830 pounds

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5
Q

The Engine Buildup Unit (EBU) includes the engine sections and all propulsion system components that remain attached to the engine following removal from the airplane pylon engine mounts. The EBU consists of what five sections?

A

Fan, core, high pressure turbine (HPT), low pressure turbine (LPT), accessory drive

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6
Q

The fan section supplies ______ of the total engine thrust?

A

80%

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7
Q

The purpose of the Variable Bleed Valve (VBV) system is to?

A

Improve compressor performance and prevent compressor stalls

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8
Q

The engine core section has ___ stages?

A

14

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9
Q

The core section provides _____ of the engine thrust and drives the accessories mounted on the Accessory Gearbox (AGB).

A

20%

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10
Q

The annular combustor has ____ fuel nozzles and ____ igniters.

A

30; 2

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11
Q

The EEC uses _______as the thrust-setting parameter.

A

Fan speed (N1)

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12
Q

The EEC calculates five reference fan speeds for the appropriate engine rating and based upon ambient conditions, these five speeds include:

A

Idle; maximum takeoff, maximum climb; maximum continuous thrust; maximum reverse

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13
Q

A commanded fan speed (N1CMD) is derived by interpolation from the ___________ input and the five reference fan speeds.

A

Throttle Resolver Angle (TRA)

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14
Q

______ IDLE and ______ IDLE is used for engine start and shutdown.

A

Ground; flight

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15
Q

_________ IDLE is a higher idle setting, commanded by the VIA, that is used to accelerate the engine to take off thrust in 8 seconds to satisfy go-around thrust requirements.

A

Approach

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16
Q

The approach idle parameters are met when the airplane is in air mode and pressure altitude is less than 25,000 feet and either of the following conditions are true:

A

 The left or right flaps indicate greater than 25 degrees
 The nose gear down and locked
 The AFCS ILS approach mode is selected to ON

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17
Q

Once approach idle is set, the discrete will reset when the ground/flight status indicates ground and either:

A

 Two reversers are commanded to deploy
 The left hand or right hand ground spoiler limit switch indicates extend
 The airplane ground speed is less than 60 knots

18
Q

When in BIP, the engines will default to _____ idle and will enter ALT mode.

A

Approach

19
Q

The _____ provides the primary power for the EEC.

A

Permanent magnet alternator

20
Q

The ignition exciter box continues to deliver energy until the engine reaches a self sustaining RPM of approximately _______%.

A

54

21
Q

On the ground, the engine start system can only be energized below ______% N2.

A

20

22
Q

For in-flight starting, the engine start system can be energized below ____% N2 to supplement a windmilling engine if required.

A

30

23
Q

Any number of 5-minute start cycles are allowed. A ______minute minimum cooling period is required after the first two 5-minute cycles and a ____minute cooling period for each subsequent 5-minute cycle.

A

2; 10

24
Q

When the EEC is in the start mode, a ______ box is centered on the respective engine instrument suite.

A

White

25
Q

When the actual N1 exceeds the ___________________ value with one engine on the ground or with all engines in flight, the engine status timer is shown.

A

Maximum Continuous Thrust (MCT)

26
Q

While in flight, if one engine fails or is shut down after one (or more) of the timers has started counting down from ____ minutes, the remaining time on the operating engine timers will increment by ____ minutes up to a total time of _____ minutes at takeoff power.

A

5; 5; 10

27
Q

Each engine is equipped with a ______________ actuated Thrust Reverser (TR) system installed in the fan duct that reverses fan exhaust only.

A

Pneumatically

28
Q

Maximum reverse thrust that is equal to approximately _____ % of total forward thrust.

A

60

29
Q

The inboard TRs may be deployed in-flight but are limited to _________ thrust only.

A

Reverse idle

30
Q

If the TR is not stowed within ________seconds the EEC cancels the stow command and generates an ENG 1 (2, 3, or 4) TR FAIL STOW CWA.

A

15

31
Q

The fire extinguishing system incorporates ____ spherical nitrogen pressurized extinguisher bottles in each engine pylon, connected to a common discharge manifold allowing ____ discharges per engine.

A

Two; two

32
Q

What does pulling an engine fire handle do?

A

 Isolates IDG
 Signals VIA, sends status to EEC (this does not shut down the engine)
 Compressor bleed air shut off through closing the pylon bleed valve
 Hydraulic fluid shut off to engine pumps on forward wing beam and depressurizes pumps
 Exposes fire extinguisher button
 Mechanically close fuel supply on forward wing beam
 Electrically closing Hydro Mechanical Unit HPSOV (fuel) and turning off ignition (This DOES shut down the engine)

33
Q

The APU is controlled by a ___________ which maintains steady state speed at 100 percent RPM under all load conditions.

A

Full Authority Digital Electronic Control (FADEC)

34
Q

What are the indications of an ATM fire?

A

Same as an APU fire. Fire light in the associated APU fire handle and if on the ground, an audible warning horn

35
Q

After a failed engine start, what conditions require the engine to be motored? For how long?

A

 If an engine start is discontinued for any reason after placing the Start Switch to START, motoring must be accomplished if fuel flow was observed and the engine did not reach N2 idle. Once the N2 RPM has dropped below 20 percent, rotate the Start switch to the MOTOR position and hold for 30 seconds.

36
Q

Engine shutdown may be accomplished 1 minute after completion of the landing roll, provided that the final approach was normal with an EGT less than _____C.

A

650

37
Q

Engine shutdown may be accomplished 1 minute after completion of the landing roll, provided that reverse thrust operation was normal with an EGT less than _____C, or reverse thrust was not selected.

A

750

38
Q

Should the engine temperature limits for engine shutdown be exceeded, operate at or near idle for ____ minutes to thermally stabilize the engine hot section. Taxi power is considered idle for this purpose.

A

3

39
Q

Explain takeoff procedure with a loss of an engine at Go.

A

 Ensure throttles are at the planned takeoff thrust setting as a minimum, but they may be advanced to MTO if a MCL takeoff was planned
 When not operating in TOGA, the autothrottles are limited to MCL unless using VNAV; as a result, the autothrottles may need to be disengaged to achieve power levels above MCL.
 Climbout and acceleration with one or more engines inoperative should be accomplished at MTO until expiration of the N1 Engine Status Timer and then at MCT until final level-off altitude is attained.
 Follow TOGA commands. If engine fails at a higher speed, climb at that speed.
 Minimum control speed is based on a bank angle of 5 degrees away from the failed engine
 Do not retract the landing gear before the airplane is definitely airborne and a positive rate of climb is shown
 Bank angles of up to 30 degrees are allowed but climb rate is reduced by approximately 200 fpm.

40
Q

What are the 3 conditions requiring an emergency engine shutdown?

A

 Engine Fire
 Disintegration
 Visible fluids from engine or pylon that can not be stopped

41
Q

Three-engine range will be reduced by approx. _____% if the thrust reverser is left deployed on the inoperative engine.

A

15

42
Q

What is minimum oil pressure?

A

10 psi