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Instrument Rating > Instrumentation, Navigation & Instrument Aids > Flashcards

Instrumentation, Navigation & Instrument Aids Flashcards

1
Q

What are inherent errors with the altimeter?

A
  1. Position error (pitot-static error)
  2. Scale error (manufacturing error; a true 1,000ft reads 1,100ft on altimeter)
  3. Mechanical error (slippage in gears in aneroid itself)
  4. Density error
  5. Hysteresis (material error in aneroids, some material cause friction and error)
  6. Reversal error(abrupt or rapid altitude changes; only momentary)

P SMD H R!

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2
Q

What are performance instruments?

A

Information relating to the performance of an aircraft. It is determined by the airspeed indicator, altimeter, vertical speed indicator, heading indicator, magnetic compass and turn coordinator/bank indicator.

  1. Airspeed indicator
  2. Altimeter
  3. Turn-coordinator
  4. Heading indicator
  5. Vertical speed indicator
  6. Magnetic compass
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3
Q

What are control instruments?

A

Information relating to the aircrafts’ attitude and power settings.

  1. Attitude indicator
  2. Tachometer (power control gauge)
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4
Q

What effects are altimeters subject to?

A
  1. Effect of mountains (due to down or upslope winds which change your airspeed, and subjects itself to Bernoulli’s principle of pressure (fast wind=low pressure=higher altimeter reading, vice versa)
  2. Downdrafts or turbulence occurs usually in mountain regions)
  3. Pressure drop (the drop in pressure when flying through areas of high windspeed)
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5
Q

When departing on a runway heading SID, is the heading flown take into account wind correction?

A

No!

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6
Q

What are the standard holds regarding altitude and time?

A

1 minute outbound under 14,000’ MSL

1 1/2 minutes outbound over 14,000’ MSL

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7
Q

What are the three types of entrys into a holding patern?

A

Direct entry, offset entry, parallel entry.

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8
Q

When a MSA (minimum sector altitude) is posted and there is no established radius, what does it revert to?

A

25NM.

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9
Q

Operation of GNSS:

A

Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS)

Uses one or more satellites, aircraft receivers and system integrity monitoring to determines time and position

PRECISE TIMING AND POSITION TRIANGULATION.

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10
Q

Operation of GPS:

A

Based on satellite ranging. It is determined by measuring distance by precise timing from a of satellite using the aircraft’s GPS’ system clock.

Needs at least 4 satellites!

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11
Q

IFR instrumentation requirements:

A 
A - Attitude indicator
A - Alternate static source
V - Vacuum pressure indicator
V - Vertical speed indicator
O - Outside temperature gauge
P - Pitot-static anti-icing
S - Sufficient two-way radio communication
S - Sufficient radio navigation equipment where applicable

AAVVOPSS

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12
Q

IFR equipment requirements for safety:

A
  • Fire extinguisher
  • Updated navigation charts for any probable divisionary route
  • Timepiece
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13
Q

What are the ground-based navigation systems?

A
  1. ADF
  2. VOR
  3. ILS
  4. DME
  5. VORTAC
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14
Q

NDB errors:

A
  • Night effect (remember LF/MF “sun up freq up”)
  • Mountain effect
  • Quadrantal/banking error
  • Coastal effect (over the sea, water bends the NDB signal)
  • Electrical storms
  • Icing and sleet
  • Precipitation static

NEMPICQ

  • Night effect
  • Electrical storms
  • Mountain effect
  • Precipitation static
  • Icing and sleet
  • Coastal effect
  • Quadrantal effect
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15
Q

How do you calculate the closing angle to re-intercept your track after going over half the distance?

A

Closing angle = Distance off × 60 ÷ Distance to go

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16
Q

How do you calculate range to a VHF facility?

A

Range = (1.25 × √indicated altitude) + (1.25 × √altitude of station)

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17
Q

What is the required accuracy when testing your VOR instrument using the dual VOR test?

A

+/- 4 degrees.

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18
Q

What is the required accuracy when testing your VOR instrument using he airborne geographical location check?

A

using he airborne geographical location check?

+/- 6 degrees.

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19
Q

How do you calculate time to an NDB?

A

time (IN SECONDS) / degrees of relative bearing change = Time to NDB (minutes)

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20
Q

How do you calculate distance to NDB?

A

(Groundspeed × time to NDB (IN MINUTES)) / 60 = Distance to NDB (NM)

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21
Q

What is scalloping?

A

A sudden fluctuation of the cockpit indicators.

Caused by blocked signals like terrain and is normally very short.

BE AWARE OF SCALLOPING WHEN PLANNING OFF-AIRWAY NAVIGATION!

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22
Q

On the CDI and/or HSI, what does each dot represent on either side of the centerline?

A

2 degrees, total of 10 degrees EITHER side of the CDI.

When tuned to an ILS, each dot represents 0.5 degrees!

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23
Q

What is the thickness of the glideslope transmitter beam?

A

1.4 degrees thick.

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24
Q

What is an LP approach?

A

Localizer Performance ( LP ) approaches are non-precision approaches with Wide Area Augmentation System ( WAAS ) lateral guidance.

LP = WAAS

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25
Q

In order to get a position fix using LORAN, at least __ stations are required.

A

3 total stations!

A master then two secondary stations.

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26
Q

LORAN works in the ____ frequency range.

A

Low (LF) range.

LOng RANge navigation!

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27
Q

What are the three types of augmentation systems for GPS?

A
  • ABAS (aircraft based augmentation system)
  • SBAS (satellite based augmentation system)
  • GBAS (ground based augmentation system)
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28
Q

What are the alert limits for Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM)?

A
  • 2 NM en route
  • 1 NM terminal
  • 0.3 NM non-precision approach

If the RAIM system cannot maintain integrity and it passes these limits, RAIM will alert the pilot and look for a way to resolve it. Pilot must not use GNSS approaches when this occurs.

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29
Q

What is an fault detection and exclusion system (FDE)?

A

It is like RAIM, except that it is more specific; it figures out what satellite is faulty and then excludes it from the navigation solution. Allows you to continue using GPS in spite of a failed satellite.

All WAAS-enabled receivers have FDE.

Needs at least 6 satellites to function!

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30
Q

What is WAAS (Wide Area Augmentation System)?

A

Uses a network of ground-based stations that monitor satellite signals and sends it to a master for validation, then corrects its errors.

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31
Q

What are continuous/analog instruments?

A

An aircraft instrument that is circular and is served by a single pointer (i.e. six-pack).

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32
Q

What is a symbolic/qualitative instrument?

A

Data is presented in pictorial or symbolic format (i.e. HSI or attitude indicator).

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33
Q

What is a pictorial instrument?

A

Displays information visually to gain a better picture of the outside world. This is usually found on the EFIS or PFD.

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34
Q

What is a situation information instrument?

A

General orientation of the aircraft (i.e. attitude indicator).

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35
Q

What is a command information instrument?

A

An instrument where the pilot is directed to the next course of action, such as a error that must be rectified. These are usually found in GPS or FMS.

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36
Q

What is a status information instrument?

A

Data that the pilot is not directly concerned with, such as the fuel gauge.

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37
Q

Quantitative instrument reading:

A

Determining the exact numerical value, like an altimeter.

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38
Q

Qualitative instrument reading:

A

Judging the approximate value such as a subtle change in the altimeter.

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39
Q

How does the airspeed indicator work?

A

It reacts to changes between the pitot air and static air.

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40
Q

When are airspeeds most greatest?

A

In slow speeds; position error is noticeable.

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41
Q

How are V-speeds on the airspeed indicator expressed?

A

They are expressed as calibrated airspeed. However, some typical gauge errors may prevail.

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42
Q

How are the colours on a typical airspeed indicator coordinated?

A

White: flap operating range
Green: normal operating range
Yellow (caution) smooth air cruising range
Red: never exceed

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43
Q

How is an indication of feet above sea level possible?

A

By setting the local altimeter.

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44
Q

An aircraft should not have an error of more than ____ when compared to ground elevation at a known aerodrome.

A

50ft.

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45
Q

What are the initial altimeter certification limits?

A

+/- 20ft at sea level

+/- 230ft at 40,000ft

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46
Q

What happens when an aircraft flying in a mountainous region encounters a downdraft?

A
  • Aircraft descends
  • Rate of climb indicates a brief climb
  • Altimeter will indicate a brief rate of climb

Altimeter could over-read by as much as 3,000ft

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47
Q

With a servo/pneumatic altimeter, you should check the following before flight:

A
  1. Set local barometer
  2. Check computer-indicator +/- 50ft of known aerodrome elevation
  3. Select servo/pneumatic RESET mode
  4. Check +/- 50ft on outer-scale, +/- 40ft on computer indicator
  5. Select servo/pneumatic STBY mode
  6. Check +/- 50ft of known elevation
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48
Q

What are the two functions of the VSI?

A

Trend instrument

Rate instrument

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49
Q

What two inherent system errors are found on Central Air Data Computers (CADC)?

A
  1. Position error

2. Scale error (instrument error, aneroids)

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50
Q

How do you calculate range to a VHF facility?

A

Range = (1.25 × √indicated altitude) + (1.25 × √altitude of station)

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51
Q

Operating principle of VOR:

A

A phase difference between 2 transmitter signals.

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52
Q

What is the accuracy course alignment for published VORs?

A

+/- 3 degrees FOR ALL PHASES OF FLIGHT.

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53
Q

Disadvantages of VOR:

A
  • Station overlap at high altitudes
  • Line of sight error
  • Shadow effect (obstructions)
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54
Q

What is the VOR receiver check tolerance?

A

+/- 4 degrees for air AND ground.

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55
Q

What is the VOR check tolerance voer a landmark?

A

+/-6 degrees of published radial.

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56
Q

What is the operating principle of an NDB:

A

Radiates a signal in ALL directions.

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57
Q

What frequencies do NDB operate on?

A

LF/MF frequencies.

58
Q

What is the NDB accuracy:

A

+/- 10 degrees enroute

+/- 5 degrees approach

59
Q

Are NDBs limited by line of sight?

A

NO!

60
Q

What is the accuracy of DME?

A

+/- 0.5NM

61
Q

What frequency does DME operate on?

A

UHF. (Think military, TACAN and VORTAC also use UHF, just like the Thunderbirds COMM channel)

62
Q

Is DME limited to line of sight?

A

Yes. SLANT RANGE

63
Q

Where can you find DME information?

A

Published in CFS and IFR charts in the navigation box.

64
Q

Where can you find TACAN information?

A

Only in the CFS.

65
Q

What is the operating principle for VORTAC?

A

Uses TACAN (DME) and VOR

66
Q

What information does TACAN give?

A

ONLY DME. If you get a radial, it is NOT reliable, it is only OMNIDIRECTIONAL, not radial like a VOR.

67
Q

What is the width of a LOC?

A

Between 3 and 6 degrees.

68
Q

What does an “X” at the beginning of a LOC indicator mean?

A

LOC Alignment is offset by more than 3 degrees. “X” IS BAD

69
Q

What does an “I” at the beginning of a LOC indicator mean?

A

Alignment is les than 3 degrees. “I” IS GOOD

70
Q

If an ILS, VOR or DME is not transmitting an identification, it means:

A

It is unreliable and a NOTAM will be posted.

Pilots are responsible for reporting outages!

71
Q

FM radio waves can affect:

A
  • ILS
  • LOC
  • VOR
72
Q

AM radio waves can effect:

A

ADF. (AM, only one type, its the oldest!)

73
Q

VORs are:

A

Ground-based, short-distance navigation aid.

74
Q

What is the reception/altitude for a VOR?

A

1,500ft to 50NM.

75
Q

What is the operating principle of DME?

A

Two-way transmission; sent from aircraft to ground station, the ground station sends back “paired pulses” back to aircraft, then aircraft DME unit outputs the distance.

76
Q

DME frequency range:

A

UHF

77
Q

Can radial information be received from TACAN?

A

No, only DME. Any radial that is seen shall be deemed unreliable.

78
Q

On an ILS, what is full-scale deflection?

A

2.5 degrees.

79
Q

What is the normal reliable coverage for a LOC?

A
  • 18NM within 10 degrees either side

- 10NM within 35 degrees either side

80
Q

What is the beam width of a GP?

A

1.4 degrees (up and down).

81
Q

Operating principle of GPS:

A

Based on precise timing.

82
Q

How many satellites are needed to calculate a 3-dimensional position:

A

4 satellites.

83
Q

What is key for GPS accuracy?

A

Good satellite geometry: when they’re widely spread, its more accurate.

84
Q

What is RAIM and FDE?

A

They are ABAS.

Aircraft-Based Augmentation System

85
Q

What does RAIM provide for GPS?

A

Integrity (accuracy) for enroute, terminal and NPA approaches.

86
Q

What does RAIM need to function?

A

Minimum of 5 satellites.

87
Q

RAIM alert limits:

A

En route: 2 NM
Terminal: 1 NM
Approach: 0.3 NM (NPA)

88
Q

What does FDE (Fault Detection and Exclusion) need to function?

A

Minimum of 6 satellites.

89
Q

Vertical guidance on RNAV equipment requirements:

A

Lateral guidance: GPS or WAAS

Vertical guidance: WAAS or baro-VNAV

90
Q

If you are flying an RNAV (GNSS) with baro-VNAV, can you fly to APV minimums?

A

No, baro-VNAV on a APV can only be used as an advisory.

91
Q

In reference to baro-VNAV, how does temperature affect the glide path?

A 
Warm = steeper glidepath
Cold = shallow glidepath
92
Q

What is KGPS NOTAM?

A

This is the NOTAM you search for to find satellite to predict the accuracy of your GPS.

93
Q

Can you use GPS in IFR when RAIM becomes unavailable?

A

No, you must use traditional navigation avionics and alert ATC.

94
Q

What is the difference between VASI and AVASI?

A

AVASI is 2 lights, one on top of each other for glideslope.

VASI is 4 total lights with two on top of the other two for glideslope.\

On glideslope = RED ON WHITE!

95
Q

VASI System EWH:

A

AV: 0ft - 10ft
V1: 0ft - 0ft
V2 10ft - 25ft

96
Q

PAPI system EWH:

A

AP: 0ft - 10ft
P1: 0ft - 10ft
P2: 10ft - 25ft
P3: 25ft - 45ft

97
Q

When is the VASI/PAPI turned off?

A

When it is not aligned with the glideslope and if the weather conditions are less than 500ft ceiling and/or 1 SM.

98
Q

What are the holding speed restrictions in Canada?

A

200KIAS - at or below 6,000ft
230KIAS - 6,000-14,000ft
265KIAS - above 14,000ft

99
Q

ADF night effect occurs when:

A

Changes in the earth’s ionosphere at night (ADF uses this to reflect signals). Most bad just before sunrise and just after sunset.

WORST ADF DISADVANTAGE!

Ionosphere is higher at night and lower in the day time. Larger skip zone at night!

100
Q

NDB systems are maintained by Nav Canada to an accuracy of:

A

+/- 5 degrees approach

+/- 10 degrees en route

101
Q

ADF thunderstorm effect causes erratic fluctuations causing:

A

The ADF pointer to point towards a thudnerstorm.

102
Q

ILS LOC reliable coverage either side:

A

18NM, 10 degrees

10NM. 35 degrees

103
Q

When ATC says “radar identified” what radar is he using?

A

Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR).

104
Q

What is a contact approach?

A

Where an aircraft on an IFR flight plan or flight itinerary having an ATC clearance is operating clear of clouds with at least 1 NM flight visibility and a reasonable expectation of continuing to the destination airport in those conditions, may deviate from the IAP (instrument approach procedure) and proceed to the destination airport by visually.

MUST BE CLEAR OF CLOUD, AT LEAST 1 NM VIS

105
Q

What causes RAIM outages?

A
  • Satellite geometry

- Satellite range error

106
Q

What causes RAIM outages?

A
  • Satellite geometry

- Satellite range error

107
Q

Aircraft with sensitive pressure altimeter with alternate static source is legal for IFR if the altimeter can read within __ft of of the touchdown zone elevation:

A

50ft!

108
Q

When readjusting the heading indicator, we go to straight-and-level flight to minimize this error:

A

Magnetic dip error!

109
Q

What are the 4 unknowns a GPS must solve to find a 3-D fix?

A

Longitude, latitude, altitude, time.

110
Q

What are the full CDI deflections?

A

Enroute (>30 NM from approach) = 5 NM
Terminal (30-2 NM from approach) = 1 NM
Approach (2 NM - FAF) = 0.3 NM

111
Q

Can localizer approaches me GPS overlay?

A

NO!

112
Q

What is baro-aiding subject to?

A

Altimeter errors and atmospheric temperature errors.

113
Q

GPS approach alternate criteria:

A

Where a GPS approach is to be used at both the arrival and alternate aerodrome, they must be separated by 100 NM to avoid sensing a jammer, therefore knocking out both approaches. (100 NM STANDARD)

Alternate and arrival airport north of 56 degrees north can be 75 NM apart.

You MAY use an alternate airport less than 100 NM away if you specifically state that there is no IFR approach available

114
Q

What are 2 errors regarding the VSI?

A

Reverse sensing and lag error.

114
Q

What are 2 errors regarding the VSI?

A

Reverse sensing and lag error.

115
Q

What happens to the airspeed indicator when you have a partial-blocked pitot tube?

A

Airspeed indicator will go back to zero (drain hole is still open).

116
Q

What happens to an attitude indicator when you accelerate for takeoff?

A

False nose-up attitude will appear.

117
Q

How do you calculate angle of bank?

A

TAS (knots) / 10 + 7

or

TAS (mph) / 10 + 5

118
Q

What is the difference between a VOR and a TACAN?

A

VOR is VHF and TACAN is UHF.

119
Q

What does a ground wave do?

A

Follows curvature of the earth and bends around terrain and loses attenuation (strength) when it reflects off terrain, making a weaker signal. Lower attenuation = lower signal

120
Q

What does a skywave do?

A

Travels up and reflects back down from the ionosphere.

121
Q

What is a skip zone?

A

Occurs with skywaves; the point where ground waves end and the reflected waves strike the earth (the part where the beams “hop” over terrain when it is going UP to the ionosphere and back DOWN to the surface, like a triangle).

122
Q

What is a costal effect rule of thumb for pilots?

A

Pilots should not use an NDB that crosses a shoreline an an angle greater than 30 degrees.

123
Q

Does VORTAC give radial information?

A

NO! Its only omnidirectional, it does NOT provide you a reliable radial information.

124
Q

What frequency range does an ILS work on?

A

UHF

125
Q

What frequency range does a LOC work on?

A

VHF (not as accurate as ILS!)

126
Q

What is the ILS offset maximum offset?

A

3 degrees, when it is over this, the airport will address this in the plate.

127
Q

What is full scale deflection of the ILS glideslope?

A

0.7 degrees above or below the glideslope.

128
Q

How do you calculate descent rate on an ILS with a 3 degree glideslope?

A

Groundspeed x 5!

129
Q

What is the range of Primary Surveillance Radar?

A

80NM.

130
Q

What is the range of Secondary Surveillance Radar?

A

250NM.

131
Q

How does primary surveillance radar work?

A

Ground station shoots beam to aircraft, then it reflects back a signal, called an echo.

132
Q

How does secondary surveillance radar work?

A

Ground station shoots beam to aircraft, aircraft transponder can reply and send back its information.

“WHO IS SHY SHEN AND HOW DO WE FIND HIM?” - Sends interrogation

“TIRER!” - Responds with information

133
Q

DME operates in the ___ frequency band and utilizes ____ radar.

A

UHF, secondary radar!

134
Q

What is the zone of flexibility for a holding pattern?

A

5 degrees.

135
Q

What is quadrantal error?

A

When your aircrafts instruments are magnetically affecting the ADF reader.

136
Q

On a three-bar VASI, how would a wide-body aircraft view it?

A

Ignore the downwind bar. Focus on the middle and upwind bar.

big plane with downs

137
Q

On a three-bar VASI flying a light aircraft, how would you view the glideslope?

A

Ignore the upwind bar. Focus on the middle and downwind bar.

138
Q

If you were a wide-body aircraft flying a three-bar VASI, how would you know you are on glide?

A

White
Red
Red (ignore)

139
Q

If you were a light aircraft flying a three0-bar VASI, how would you know you are on glide?

A

White (ignore)
White
Red

Instrument Rating (5 decks)

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