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Instrument Rating > Air Regulations & Airspace > Flashcards

Air Regulations & Airspace Flashcards

1
Q

CAVOK Meaning

A
  • No cloud below 5,000ft OR below highest minimum sector altitude
  • No cumulonimbus
  • 6 SM or more
  • No precipitation, thunderstorms, shallow fog, drifting snow
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2
Q

If a communication failure occurs while a flight is being vectored at an altitude below the minimum IFR altitudes, the pilot should:

A

climb immediately to the appropriate published minimum altitude.

OR

Unless the flight an continue in VMC.

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3
Q

When flying in snow-covered mountainous terrain, he should select the minimum flight level to:

A

At least 1000ft above the published MEA of each route segment.

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4
Q

PIC can fly a IFR itinerary over a flight plan when the flight is conducted in:

A

Partly or wholly outside controlled airspace.

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5
Q

Pilot should file an IFR flight plan at least __ minutes prior to a proposed departure time.

A

30 minutes.

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6
Q

When departing an uncontrolled aerodrome, when must you get an IFR clearance?

A

Before entering controlled airspace.

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7
Q

Lowest safe altitude you could request in an emergency on an airway:

A

The MOCA.

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8
Q

IFR flight in uncontrolled airspace, a report should contain:

A

Present position, track, altitude, altimeter, next position and ETA.

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9
Q

Contact approach:

A
  • Clear of cloud
  • 1 NM FLIGHT visibility
  • Flown at least 1,000ft above highest obstacle within 5NM
  • Obstacle clearance is up to you!
  • Only available on a runway that has an instrument approach

PILOT MUST REQUEST IT!

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10
Q

Visual approach:`

A
  • Ceiling is 500ft or more above minimum IFR altitude
  • GROUND visibility is 3 SM or more
  • Traffic separation from preceding aircraft is up to you!
  • Wake turbulence separation is up to you!
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11
Q

Straight-in landing minima are published when a normal rate of descent can be made from the FAF to the runway threshold and:

A

When the final approach track intersects the runway extended centreline within 30 degrees (offset).

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12
Q

Circling approach minimum distance from field:

A

Category A: 1.3
Category B: 1.5
Category C: 1.7
Category D: 2.3

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13
Q

Circling approach minimum distance from field category A:

A

1.3

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14
Q

Circling approach minimum distance from field category B:

A

1.5

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15
Q

Circling approach minimum distance from field category C:

A

1.7

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16
Q

Circling approach minimum distance from field category D:

A

2.3

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17
Q

Inadvertently encounter IMC during a circling approach, you should:

A
  • Initiate a climb
  • Turn towards centre of aerodrome
  • Follow missed approach procedure as close as possible
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18
Q

Maximum holding speeds:

A

At or below 6,000ft: 200 KIAS
Above 6,000ft up to and including 14,000ft: 230 KIAS
Above 14,000ft: 265 KIAS
Shuttle climbs: 310 KIAS

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19
Q

What must you obey when doing a shuttle procedure for obstacle clearance?

A

Do not exceed 200 KIAS and no more than 1 minute outbound still air time

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20
Q

Maximum holding speed at or below 6,000ft:

A

200 KIAS

ASL!

21
Q

Maximum holding speed above 6,000ft up to and including 14,000ft:

A

230 KIAS

ASL!

22
Q

Maximum holding speed above Above 14,000ft:

A

265 KIAS

ASL!

23
Q

Maximum holding speed for a shuttle climb:

A

310 KIAS

24
Q

Does minimum fuel condition deemed to be an emergency situation?

A

No, it just means that an emergency situation could prevail if there are any unexpected delays.

25
Q

What is the procedure when a pilot declares a “fuel emergency” to ATC?

A

MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY!

26
Q

What is the circling minimum altitude (MDA)?

A

300ft above highest obstacle.

27
Q

Does the circling MDA altitude provide obstacle clearance?

A

The circling minimum descent altitude (MDA) provides a minimum of 300 feet above all obstacles within the visual maneuvering area for each category.

MDA DOES NOT PROVIDE OBSTACLE CLEARANCE WITHIN THE RESTRICTED SECTOR. (like the greyed out sector at Castlegar)

28
Q

Hierarchy for ready for start & push (controlled)

A

A) RVR of runway in use
B) METAR
C) ATC
D) Pilot

29
Q

Hierarchy for ready for start & push (uncontrolled)

A

A) RVR of runway in use

B) Ground visibility

C) Pilot visibility

Lowest of the 3 must be used.

30
Q

How long of a difference from the time estimate at the next reporting point must you notify ATC at?

A

If the ETA at the next reporting point differs MORE than 3 minutes.

31
Q

A position report must include:

A

CAPTTANS!

Callsign

Altitude or flight level

Position

Time in UTC

Type of flight plan (IFR/VFR)

Additional information

Next reporting point and ETA

Succeeding reporting point

32
Q

Whta is an AMA?

A

Area Minimum Altitude

Provides 1,000ft clearance over obstacles. In ALL mountain regions, it provides 2,000ft of terrain clearance.

33
Q

What does an MSA provide?

A

Minimum Sector Altitude

Provides 1,000ft clearance over obstacles IN ALL REGIONS.

34
Q

What clearance does the minimum safe altitude provide?

A

Provides terrain clearance based on the mountainous and non-mountainous regions.

DMR 1 & 5 = 2,000ft
DMR 2,3,4 = 1,500ft
Non-DMR = 1,000ft

35
Q

What does transition altitudes provide?

A

Provides 1,000ft terrain clearance IN ALL REGIONS (ex. an RNAV approach)

36
Q

When given radar vectors, what clearance does the assigned altitudes provide you with?

A

1,000ft clearance in ALL REGIONS.

37
Q

What are the approach ban exceptions?

A
  1. Aircraft receives weather after the FAF, he may continue
  2. Aircraft is on a training flight that will complete a missed approach
  3. RVR is fluctuating above and below the minima
  4. RVR is lower than minima, but ground visibility is reported to be at least 1/4 SM.
  5. Precision approach the CAT III minima
38
Q

What do you need to remember for the approach ban (when is it authorized to shoot an approach):

A
  1. Lowest RVR is at or above minima, REGARDLESS of ground visibility.
  2. RVR for the runway is fluctuating above and below minima, REGARDLESS of ground visibility
  3. A reported ground visibility of at least 1/4 SM, regardless of RVR for the runway
  4. RVR is unavailable for the landing runway
  5. Training flight to conduct a missed approach
  6. Conducting a CAT III approach
39
Q

When you are cleared for a visual approach, what is the one thing you need to keep in mind?

A

When you execute a missed approach, you are flying in VFR. So stay clear of IMC until ATC either clears you for another IFR approach or you may remain clear of cloud and land as soon as possible.

40
Q

What are the segments of an approach?

A
  • Initial segment
  • Intermediate segment
  • Final approach segment
  • Missed approach segment
41
Q

The initial approach segment provides you with at least ____ft of clearance.

A

1,000ft.

42
Q

The intermediate approach segment provides you with at last ____ft of clearance.

A

500ft.

43
Q

The final approach segment provides you with at least ____ft of clearance.

A

250ft

44
Q

How does a procedure turn affect the initial approach segment?

A

It drops the minimum terrain clearance altitude from at least 1,000ft clearance to 500ft clearance.

45
Q

IFR arrival reporting procedures at uncontrolled airport:

A
  • Five minutes before estimated time of conducting the approach WITH approach intentions and ETA of landing
  • Upon passing a fix for a procedure turn OR if no procedure turn, upon intercepting final approach track
  • Upon passing FAF OR if no FAF exists, 3 minutes before estimated time of landing
  • Upon commencing a circling approach, giving intentions
  • Upon commencing missed approach, giving intentions
46
Q

What is the NDA air to air frequency?

A

123.45

47
Q

What is the SDA air to air frequency?

A

122.75

48
Q

How do the minimum IFR fuel requirements differ from a propeller and a turbine aircraft?

A

Propeller: fly for an additional 45 minutes

Turbine: fly for an additional 30 minutes

49
Q

IFR reporting procedure at uncontrolled (MF) for departure:

A
  1. Report intentions BEFORE moving onto the maneuvering area
  2. Before moving onto the takeoff surface WITH departure procedure intentions
  3. On radio and visually, make sure there is no traffic to impede you
  4. When departing the circuit

Instrument Rating (5 decks)

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