Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Instrument Rating > Air Law & Procedures > Flashcards

Air Law & Procedures Flashcards

1
Q

Flight experience requirements for Instrument rating:

A
  • 50hrs PIC cross-country
  • 40hrs instrument
    • Max 20 in sim
  • At least 15hrs with IFR instructor
  • One dual cross-country under simulated OR actual IMC of at least 100NM
    - With approaches at two different locations on an IFR flight plan
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Validity of INRAT:

A

Valid for 24 months following flight test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Recency of INRAT:

A

After 12 months after a flight test, the 6-month rule becomes active. Within 6 months following an IFR flight, you must complete:

  • 6hrs instrument time
  • 6hrs approaches to minimums
    - Can be conducted in aircraft or with an approved FTD instructor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does the Designated Airspace Handbook provide?

A

The horizontal and vertical limits of airspace and their respective classifications.

Also provides procedures for operation of an aircraft in an airspace.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the high level airspaces?

A

Southern Control Area (SCA)
Northern Control Area (NCA)
Arctic Control Area (ACA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the Southern Control Area?

A

it is 18,000’ ASL and above and all air traffic is controlled.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the Northern Control Area?

A

It is FL230 and above, which is controlled. Class G airspace exists between 18,000’ MSL and below FL230.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the Arctic Control Area?

A

It is FL270 and above, class G airspace exists between 18,000’ MSL and below FL270.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are control zones?

A

Controlled airspace extending from the surface of the earth to 3000’ AAE unless otherwise specified with a radius of 5 NM.

Control zones within TCA have a 7 NM radius and military aerodromes have a 10 NM radius

Control Zones are class B, C, D, or E airspace.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are control area extensions?

A

Controlled airspace of defined dimensions within the Low Level Airspace extending upwards from 2200’ AGL unless otherwise specified.

Is used to separate IFR departures and arrivals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a transition area?

A

Normally based at 700’ AGL extending to the base of the overlying controlled airspace with a radius of 15NM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Requirements for use of an aerodrome at night:

A

Fixed steady WHITE lights to mark take-off and landing areas. fixed red lights to mark unserviceable areas and the windsock must be lighted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

VHF airways vertical profile dimensions:

A
  • Base at 2,200’ AGL up to 17,999’ ASL

- From 12,500’ to 18,000’ in B class airspace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

VHF airway segment VOR to VOR:

A
  • 4NM either side of centreline
  • 50.8NM
  • 4 1/2 degrees

ALWAYS “NM” not “SM”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

VHF airway segment VOR to NDB:

A
  • 4.34NM either side of centreline
  • 49.66NM
  • 5 degrees
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Low frequency airways (LF/MF) dimensions:

A
  • 4.34NM either side of centreline
  • 49.66NM
  • 5 degrees
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Low-level air routes dimensions:

A

Surface up to but not including 18,000’; UNCONTROLLED.

Low-Level Air root; from the ground!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

To whom are low-level airspaces designated to?

A

En-route traffic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the aeronautical information publications?

A
  • Canada Air pilot
  • Canada Flight Supplement
  • Waterdrome Supplement
  • A.I.P. Canada\

CAP, CFS, WDS, AIP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a NOTAMR?

A

A replacing NOTAM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a NOTAMC?

A

A cancelling NOTAM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is a NOTAMJ?

A

RSC/CFRI NOTAM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a NOTAMQ?

A

A query/response NOTAM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When intercepted, you should:

A
  • Follow instructions from visual signals
  • Notify appropriate air traffic services
  • Establish radio contact to interceptor on 121.5
  • Select mode A Code 7700 on transponder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The vertical dimensions of the ADIZ are from:

A

Surface to FL600.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Low-level airways dimensions:

A

2,200’ AGL up to but no including 18,000’ ASL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is a sterile cockpit?

A

Focusing strictly on flying the aircraft with no unnecessary conversation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is high level airspace?

A

All airspace from 18,000 feet ASL and above.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is low level airspace?

A

Is airspace up to but not including 18,000 feet ASL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When may an aircraft exceed the speed limit order?

A
  • Operated within a special flight operations certificate

- Where the minimum safe speed for the flight configuration is above speed limit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the lowest “useable” flight level when the altimeter is 29.92” or higher?

A

FL180.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the lowest “useable” flight level when the altimeter is 29.91” to 28.92”?

A

FL190.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the lowest “useable” flight level when the altimeter is 28.91” to 27.92”?

A

FL200.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the requirements to enter class B airspace?

A
  • 2-way radio
  • Appropriate navigation equipment
  • Transponder and automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment
  • IFR or CVFR flight plan
  • ATC Clearance

Position reports may be required!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the requirements to enter class C airspace?

A
  • 2-way radio
  • Appropriate navigation equipment
  • Transponder and automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment
  • Clearance from ATC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the requirements to enter class D airspace?

A
  • 2-way radio
  • Appropriate navigation equipment
  • Transponder and automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment
  • Clearance from ATC

Only difference from class C airspace is that traffic separation is only given to IFR aircraft!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What does class D airspace become when an ATC unit is not in operation?

A

Class E.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What does class C airspace become when an ATC unit is not in operation?

A

Class E.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the requirements to enter class E airspace?

A
  • IFR and/or VFR operation is permitted however separation is only provided to IFR aircraft
  • Aircraft are required to be equipped with a transponder and automatic pressure altitude equipment to operate in Class E airspace that is specified as transponder airspace
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

May IFR traffic fly through advisory airspace?

A

No, unless they have specific approval from the operator of the airspace.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

May IFR traffic fly through class F airspace?

A

No, unless they have obtained permission from the user agency to enter the airspace, or:

  • The aircraft is operating on an Altitude Reservation Approval (ALTRV APVL)
    OR
  • The aircraft has been cleared for a contact or visual approach
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the transponder airspaces?

A

Any A, B or C airspace and designated D and E airspace.

Includes all Class E airspace extending upwards from 10,000’ ASL up to and including 12,500’ ASL within radar coverage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What shall you squawk in Low Level Controlled Airspace?

A

With mode A and C, squawk 1000.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What shall you squawk in High Level Controlled Airspace?

A

Mode A and C and squawking code 2000.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is an Airport Control Service?

A

Is provided by airport control towers to aircraft and vehicles on the maneuvering area of an airport and to aircraft operating in the vicinity of the airport.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is an Area Control Service?

A

Is provided by ACC’s (area control centres) to IFR and CVFR flights operating within specified control areas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is a Terminal Control Service?

A

Is additional service provided by IFR units (ACC’s) to VFR aircraft operating within Class C airspace.

Toronto Terminal; talks with CVFR and IFR in controlled airspace.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is alerting service?

A

Notified appropriate organizations regarding aircraft in need of Search and Rescue Services, or alerts crash equipment, ambulances, doctors, and any other safety services.

Notifies SAR!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is an altitude reservation service?

A

Coordinates with ACC’s in providing reserved altitude for specified air operations in controlled and uncontrolled airspace.

ACC allows you to reserve altitude in controlled and uncontrolled airspace.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is an Aircraft Movement Information Service?

A

Is provided by ACC’s of aircraft movement information for use by air defense units relative to flights operating into or within the Canadian ADIZ.

“aircraft movement, roll em’ out!” - Military

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What do flight service stations provide?

A
  • Navigation aids monitoring service
  • NOTAM service
  • PIREPs
  • Fixed telecommunication service
  • Domestic paid air-ground message service (DPAG)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is a Domestic Paid Air-Ground Message Service?

A

FSS relays Flight Regulatory Messages between aircraft and the aircraft operating agency and vice versa when subscribed to by the agency for an annual cost.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

When should you call for IFR clearance?

A

IFR aircraft should call no sooner than 5 minutes before engine start
The call should be directed to “Clearance Delivery”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

When shall you pick up IFR clearance on clearance delivery frequency?

A

IFR clearances should not be obtained more than:

10 min before taxi or 5 min before engine start.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

When may an ATC unit clear you for an approach upon departure?

A
  1. No other traffic is expected
  2. Estimated en route time is less than 25 minutes
  3. Distance between airports is 75NM or less
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

When can a SID be cancelled?

A

When reaching the last/termination fix or if ATC explicitly says “SID cancelled”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Where can noise abatement be found?

A
  • CAP gen

- AIP RAC 7.6.3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the standard takeoff minima (visibility)?

A

1/2 statue mile (RVR 2600).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

With an RVR departure, when is it not possible to use the reported RVR?

A

When RVR is fluctuation above and below takeoff minimums.
Then you shall refer to the reported visibility.
Then it becomes either PIC or ATC discretion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the hierarchy for departures AND arrivals minima’s regarding a controlled aerodrome?

A
  1. Reported RVR shall be used
  2. Reported ground visibility (METAR, etc.)
  3. Tower observation
  4. Pilot observation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

How can you tell localized phenomena is occurring at an aerodrome?

A

When the RVR is reading less than the reported ground visibility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

In terms of departure procedures, what does it ensure?

A
  • Aircraft will cross at least 35ft above departure end of runway
  • Climb on runway heading to 400’ AAE before turning
  • Maintain a climb gradient of at least 200’ per NM throughout climb to minimum altitude for en route operations

35ft, 400’ AAE, 200’ per NM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Wat is BPOC?

A

Before Proceeding On Course

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

How can you depart off a runway where it has not been assessed for IFR operations?

A
  • Experience with the airfield (local)
  • Follow VFR navigation charts
  • Climb visual to minimum IFR altitude (based on category [A,B,C,D] )
  • Fly an approach backwards
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Gradient calculations:

A

Groundspeed ÷ 60 = NM / min

ft / min ÷ NM / min = CLIMB GRADIENT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is SPEC VIS regarding a departure?

A

Climb visual, with SPECified VISibility.

SPEC VIS procedures will tell you how high you need to climb while remaining visual. This does NOT include a gradient requirement.

Visibility is dependent on aircraft category (based on speed).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What speed and visibility are category A aircraft?

A

Up to 90kts and includes all rotary aircraft.

SPEC VIS: 1SM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What speed and SPEC VIS are category B aircraft?

A

91kts to 120kts.

SPEC VIS: 1 1/2 SM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What speed and SPEC VIS are category C aircraft?

A

121kts to 140kts

SPEC VIS: 2SM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What speed and SPEC VIS are category D aircraft?

A

141kts to 165kts

SPEC VIS: 2 SM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What are all SPEC VIS minimums regarding category A, B, C, and D aircraft?

A

1
1 1/2
2
2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What speed and SPEC VIS are category D aircraft?

A

above 165kts.

SPEC VIS: 2 SM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are the speed intervals in regards to aircraft categories?

A

91 to 120
121 to 140
141 to 165
165 to ∞

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

When do you have to report to ATC about any true airspeed changes in cruise?

A

If the TAS changes by more than 5% or if mach number changes by 0.01 or more.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the MOCA clearance above terrain in non-mountainous regions?

A

1,000ft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is the MOCA clearance above terrain in mountain regions 2, 3 and 4?

A

1,500ft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is the MOCA clearance above terrain in mountain regions 1 and 5?

A

2,000ft.

78
Q

What does the MEA provide while flying IFR?

A

Radar coverage & terrain clearance altitude.

79
Q

What is MRA?

A

Minimum reception altitude. Published AT waypoints when the MRA is higher than the MEA along the segment.

80
Q

While being vectored by ATC, who has responsibility of terrain clearance?

A

PIC is relived and ATC assumes responsibility. This is the only time where this happens.

81
Q

When ATC instructs an aircraft to change altitude, its shall be commenced immediately at a rate of:

A

500fpm piston engine

1000fpm by turbine engine

82
Q

What are the restrictions when ATC gives you “1,000’ on top” clearance?

A
  • 1,000ft above any fog, haze, smoke, etc.
  • Visibility above phenomena is at least 3SM
  • Tops are well defined
  • Altitude orders (heading) are complied with
  • Aircraft will be in class B airspace at or below 12,500 ASL, C D or E class airspace
83
Q

Speed limitations on holds with altitude:

A

At or below 6,000ft: 200 KIAS
Above 6,000ft up to and including 14,000ft: 230 KIAS
Above 14,000ft: 265 KIAS
Shuttle climbs: 310 KIAS

84
Q

What must you obey when doing a shuttle procedure for obstacle clearance?

A

Do not exceed 200 KIAS and no more than 1 minute outbound still air time

85
Q

Circling approach minimum distance from field:

A

Category A: 1.3
Category B: 1.5
Category C: 1.7
Category D: 2.3

86
Q

In a radar environment, under what conditions may you get radar-vectored flight for a visual approach?

A
  • The reported ceiling is at least 500ft above minimum vectoring altitude
  • The pilot is in sight of the airport OR
    At a controlled aerodrome, the pilot has visual contact with the preceding aircraft from which separation must be maintained
87
Q

What is the H&L on an IFR preferred routing chart?

A

High and low level airspace; divided by 18,000’.

Low: Surface to 17,999’
High: 18,000’ and above

88
Q

Does a published MOCA assure radio coverage at the given altitude?

A

Yes, but only when within 22 NM of a VOR.

89
Q

Does a published MOCA assure radio coverage at the given altitude?

A

Yes, but only when within 22 NM of a VOR.

90
Q

What are the fuel requirements for an IFR flight plan?

A

Fuel to destination, to execute an approach and missed approach, fly to your alternate, then fly for 45 minutes.

For the approach and missed approach, add 15 minutes of fuel.

91
Q

What are the alternate weather minima requirements?

HAT = Height Above Decision Height
HAA = Height Above Airport
A

Two more more precision approaches:

400-1 or 200-½ above lowest usable HAT and visibility, whichever is greater

One usable precision approach:

600-2* or 300-1 above lowest usable HAT and visibility, whichever is greater

Non-precision approach only available:

800-2* or 300-1 above lowest usable HAT/HAA and visibility, whichever is greater

No IFR approach available:

Forecast weather must be no lower than 500ft above minimum IFR altitude that will permit a VFR approach and landing

92
Q

What is the standard alternate minima?

A

*600-2 and 800-2.

93
Q

ALTERNATE MINIMA: Two or more usable precision approaches:

A

400-1 or 200-½ above lowest usable HAT and visibility, whichever is greater.

94
Q

ALTERNATE MINIMA: One usable precision approach:

A

600-2* or 300-1 above lowest usable HAT and visibility, whichever is greater.

95
Q

ALTERNATE MINIMA: Non-precision approach only available:

A

800-2* or 300-1 above lowest usable HAT/HAA and visibility, whichever is greater

96
Q

ALTERNATE MINIMA: No IFR approach available:

A

Forecast weather must be no lower than 500 feet above minimum IFR altitude that will permit a VFR approach and landing.

97
Q

For helicopters (approach minima):

A

Ceiling 200 feet above minima for the approach to be flown, and visibility at least 1 SM but never less than the minimum visibility for the approach to be flown.

98
Q

What does an unspecified departure procedure imply?

A

If IFR departure is “not assessed” it is PIC responsibility for terrain avoidance, no less than 1/2 SM.

99
Q

What is a specified departure procedure?

A

IFR departures are considered “assessed”.

After departure, IFR aircraft will:

  • Cross departure end of a runway by 35’
  • Climb straight ahead to 400’ AAE prior to turning on course
  • Maintain a climb gradient of 200’ per NM to minimum IFR altitude
100
Q

How do you determine IFR minimum altitude?

A

It is based off the regions!

1,000 above highest obstacle in non-mountainous regions
1,500 above highest obstacle in mountain region 2, 3 and 4 & within 5NM
2,000 above highest obstacle in mountain regions 1 and 5 & within 5NM

If not along airway/air route, look for AMA (area minimum altitude) on LO chart

101
Q

Explain NADP1:

Write this out

A

Closer to the airport!

  • Initial climb to 800’ AAE (power set, flaps set, climb at V2 + 10 / 20kts)
  • At 800’ AAE (power reduce, MAINTIAN flaps set, climb V2 + 10 / 20kts)
  • At/below 3,000’ AAE (climb thrust, flaps retract, climb speed)
  • At 3,000’ AAE resume normal climb speed
102
Q

Explain NADP2:

Write this out

A

Further from the airport!

  • Initial climb to 800’ AAE (power set, flaps set, climb at V2 + 10 / 20kts)
  • At 800’ AAE (climb thrust to Vzf; reduce power after flaps up 1 or flaps up)
  • Climb to 3,000’ AAE at Yzf + 10 /20kts
  • At 3,000’ resume normal climb
103
Q

What shall a position report include?

A

a) identification
b) position
c) time over reporting point
d) altitude/flight level
e) type of flight plan/itinerary
f) name of next designated reporting point and ETA UTC
g) Name of the next reporting point along the route
h) any other information requested by ATC

104
Q

What are low visibility operations?

A

Means operations below RVR 1200 (1/4 SM).

105
Q

What are reduced visibility operations?

A

Means a plan that calls for specific procedures established by the aerodrome operator and/or ATC when aerodrome visibility is below RVR 2600 (½ SM) down to and including RVR 1200 (¼ SM).

106
Q

What is the standard minimum visibility required for ground operation and take-off at an aerodrome?

A

RVR 2600 (1/2 SM).

107
Q

What are all SPEC VIS minimums regarding category A, B, C, and D aircraft?

A

A: 1
B: 1 1/2
C: 2
D: 2

108
Q

For departures at an uncontrolled aerodrome, how do you select which minima to take:

A

Take the lowest of any of these:

  • METAR
  • Any RVR
  • Pilot observed
109
Q

What is the hierarchy of minima’s regarding arrivals at an uncontrolled aerodrome?

A
  1. RVR of runway in use
  2. METAR
  3. Pilot visibility
110
Q

What are the INRAT privileges?

A

Fly in IFR conditions and hold a VFR OTT rating.

111
Q

When would you file an IFR itinerary over a flight plan?

A

If the majority of the flight is taken place outside of controlled airspace or if inadequate radiocommunications

112
Q

When filing an IFR itinerary or flight plan, what changes need to be addressed to an FICS unit?

A
  1. Cruising altitude/flight level
  2. Route of flight
  3. Destination aerodrome

Where a flight plan is filed, 5% or more of a TAS change
OR
A change in Mach by at least .01

113
Q

What are the types of approaches?

A

Precision approach (PA)
Non-precision approach (NPA)
Approach with vertical guidance (APV)

114
Q

What are the precision approaches?

A
  1. Instrument Landing System (ILS) - CAT I, II, III
  2. Ground Based Augmentation System (GBAS) - based on GPS signals!
  3. Precision Approach Radar (PAR)
115
Q

When you are “radar identified”, what does this mean?

A

You are responsible for

116
Q

What is the authorized alternate minima and where can you find the weather information to meet these requirements?

A

Found by TAF or GFA.

NON-PRECION APPROACH ONLY - 800ft - 2SM

ONE USABLE PRECISION APPROACH - 600ft - 2SM

TWO OR MORE USABLE PRECISION APPROACH - 400ft - 1SM

NO IFR APPROACH AVAILABLE: - No weather below 500ft; VFR apply

117
Q

An aircraft’s sensitive pressure altimeter with an alternate static source is legal for IFR flight if the altimeter is within ___ of the TDZE at the departure airport.

A

20ft

118
Q

Radar environment - heavy following heavy:

A

4 miles separation

119
Q

Radar environment - light following heavy:

A

6 miles separation

120
Q

Radar environment - medium following heavy

A

5 miles separation

121
Q

Radar environment - light following medium:

A

4 miles separation

122
Q

Maximum Assessed Holding Indicated Airspeeds for Holding Patterns

A

At or below 6,000ft - 200KIAS
6,000ft to 14,000ft - 230KIAS
Above 14,000ft - 265KIAS

Shuttle Climbs (all) - 310KIAS

123
Q

Categories of aircraft based on speed on approach chart:

A 
Speeds are based on how the pilot will maneuver the approach or Vref.
A or copter :up to 90kts
B: 91kts to 120kts
C: 121kts to 140kts
D: 141kts to 165kts
E: above 165kts
124
Q

If you meet the standard alternate minima (600-2* and 800-2*) what are permitted to?

A

Lower minima!

For 600-2*:

700-1 1/2
800-1

For 800-2*:

900-1 1/2
1000-1

125
Q

If there is no airport weather report, What must the condition’s meet on the GFA for you to use a particular airport as a IFR alternate?

A
  • No CLOUD below 5000’ ASL
  • Visibility of not less than 3 SM
  • No forecast of cumulonimbus
126
Q

ATC should be advised when you apply cold weather corrections to:

A
  1. FAF crossing altitude
  2. Procedure turn altitude
  3. Missed approach altitude
127
Q

When you pass the FAF and a new weather report is issued, can you continue? (Approach ban)

A

Yes, passed the FAF you can continue in to land.

128
Q

What are the approach ban exceptions?

A
  1. If the aircraft is already passed the FAF when a below limit RVR or vis is reported
  2. If the VR is fluctuating above and below the approach ban limits
  3. The pilot informs ATC that it is a training flight and they plan to conduct a missed approach
129
Q

What happens if the RVR is below minimums but the visibility is above 1/4 mile?

A

FOR GA ONLY: The approach ban does not apply!

130
Q

A “current altimeter setting” is an altimeter that:

A

Is useable for up to 90 minutes from the time of observation.

131
Q

A “current altimeter setting” is an altimeter that:

A

Is useable for up to 90 minutes from the time of observation.

132
Q

RVR reports to a pilot that he should see:

A

Along the first 3000ft of the runway OR the first 1/3 of the runway

133
Q

Mandatory broadcasts when commencing an approach:

A
  1. Five minutes before commencing the approach
  2. Intercepting the final approach TRACK
  3. Intercepting the FAF
  4. In the event of a missed approach
134
Q

Mandatory broadcasts when commencing an approach:

A
  1. Five minutes before commencing the approach
  2. Intercepting the final approach TRACK
  3. Intercepting the FAF
  4. In the event of a missed approach
135
Q

How are ceiling minima calculated?

A

They are rounded up based on 20.

220ft = 200ft
225ft = 300ft
136
Q

A pilot can take credit for a GNSS approach when:

A
  1. A usable approach is served with a traditional NAVAID
  2. approach-level RAIM or WAAS integrity will be available at ETA
  3. Successful RAIM check is performed once before midpoint of flight AND at least approach-level RAIM is available
  4. Only published LNAV minima can be used determining alternate weather minima!
137
Q

If you’re filing an alternate on a GNSS overlay approach, what must you take into account?

A

When applying alternate minima, USE THE LNAV MINIMAS!

138
Q

When an airport has an aerodrome advisory forecast that you wish to use as an alternate, the minima are:

A
  • 500ft above lowest HAT or HAA

- 3 SM

139
Q

Can you use the PROB30 or PROB40 when determining IFR alternate minima?

A

Yes, as long as it is not below the minima.

140
Q

Can you use the TEMPO or BECMG in a TAF when determining alternate minima?

A

Yes, these condition must ALWAYS meet the selected alternate minima.

141
Q

What publications must be carried on board when flying on an IFR flight plan?

A
  • CFS
  • CAP
  • En-route and terminal charts
142
Q

Closing a flight plan:

A

Control tower, FSS or RAAS, flight plan is closed automatically

Uncontrolled, the pilot closes the flight plan

143
Q

What changes when you close the IFR flight plan while airborne?

A
  • Termination of all alerting services with SAR

- Arrival report within 1 hour of the last ETA (flight plan) / Arrival report within 24 hours (flight itinerary)

144
Q

What changes when you cancel IFR in flight?

A

You are now operating VFR and must follow VFR procedures to close flight plan.

145
Q

Can you file any stops on an IFR flight plan?

A

No, but you may file a stop on an IFR itinerary, as long as the stops are in uncontrolled airspace.

146
Q

When doesn’t the pilot need to readback an IFR clearance?

A

If a SID is assigned or if received via datalink.

147
Q

Minimum descent altitude (MDA) applies to:

A

A specified height for a non-precision approach where an aircraft may not descend below until they have visual of the airport.

MDA = NON-PRECISION, you scud run until you see the airport!

148
Q

Decision altitude (DA) applies to:

A

A specified altitude where a missed approach must be initiated during a precision approach if you don’t have visual reference to land.

DA = PRECISION, you are gliding in and need to make a precise decision!

149
Q

What must be considered when the pilot considers a GNSS approach at an alternate aerodrome?

A
  1. Approach-level RAIM or WAAS integrity will be available at ETA (both for destination and alternate)
  2. For GPS TSO C129/C129a avionics, the RAIM function must be tested at least once before the midpoint of the flight
  3. Where a satellite approach is to be used at both destination and alternate, the must be separated by:
    - 100 NM in Canada
    - 70 NM for north of 50 degrees in Quebec or Labrador and all of Nunavut
150
Q

Group 1 rating:

A

Multi engine aircraft OTHER THAN centre-line thrust.

151
Q

Group 2 rating:

A

Centreline multi-engine aircraft.

152
Q

Group 1 rating:

A

All multi-engine aircraft, the best one.

153
Q

What is the difference between a movement area and a maneuvering area?

A

Movement area - ALL parts of an aerodrome used for the movement of aircraft

Maneuvering area - Parts of an airport used for takeoff and landing, including taxiways (everything but aprons)

154
Q

Can you use a displaced threshold for landing?

A

Yes, you can use it for:

  • Taxiing
  • Initial takeoff roll
  • Landing rollout
  • Can use it for touchdown, but pilot must ensure obstacle clearance
155
Q

What are the runway edge light requirements for night operations?

A

2 parallel rows of white edge lights that are visible for at least 2 NM in all directions, spaced no more than 200ft apart for at least 1400ft (totaling 8 total nights)

156
Q

What does VASIS approach lighting insure in landing?

A

Safe obstacle clearance to a minimum of 6 to 9 degrees either side of the EXTENDED runway centreline out to 4.1 NM.

Only at certified airports!

Descent using VASIS should not be commenced until aircraft is aligned with centreline.

157
Q

What are the windsock indications?

A

Windsock 30 degrees below horizon = 6kts or less

Windsock horizonal = 15kts or more

158
Q

During a hold in the standard pressure region, to what do you set your altimeter to?

A

29.92 until immediately prior to descending below the lowest flight level at which the hold can be conducted at.

159
Q

Low-level controlled airspace consists of:

A
  1. Low-level airways
  2. Control area extensions
  3. Terminal control areas
  4. Control zones
  5. Transition areas
160
Q

What are the obstacle clearances on T-routes?

A

4NM primary (for physical features) plus 2NM secondary (for GPS errors)

T-routes airspace are 10 NM on each side of centreline! They DO NOT splay like an airway!

161
Q

What is the horizontal protection for a published MEA?

A

10NM each side.

162
Q

What is the horizontal protection for a published MOCA?

A

6NM each side.

163
Q

What is the difference between a T-route and an L-route?

A

T is controlled, L is uncontrolled.

BLACK is controlled, GREEN is uncontrolled in all facets of a LO chart.

164
Q

What is RVSM and non-RVSM?

A

The application of 1,000ft vertical separation between aircraft in cruise, compared to the standard non-RVSM of at least 2,000ft separation.

Comes into effect between FL290 and FL410.

165
Q

What must an aircraft have to be considered RVSM certified?

A
  1. Minimum of 2 primary altitude alerting systems
  2. Automatic altitude keeping device (autopilot)
  3. Altitude alerting service
166
Q

What is the maximum tolerance between two altimeters on the aircraft?

A

75ft. If you don’t have this you are not RVSM certified.

167
Q

When flying on minimum IFR altitudes in a designated mountain region, pilots should remain _____ above minimum IFR altitude when there are large temperature/pressure variations.

A

1,000ft.

168
Q

What does cancelling IFR do?

A

ATC no longer provides IFR separation, aircraft is now VFR and you MUST close the flight plan or itinerary on your own after landing!

169
Q

What do you do if you encounter a communication failure on a vector SID?

A

On a vector, climb to sector, go director!

170
Q

What do you do if you encounter a communication failure on a vector SID?

A

On a vector, climb to sector, go director!

171
Q

What is the altitude range of RVSM?

A

FL290 up to and including FL410.

172
Q

What is the maximum tolerance between two altimeter sources to be RVSM-compliant?

A

75ft.

173
Q

Minimum vectoring altitudes provide a clearance of _____ft obstacle clearance.

A

1,000ft.

174
Q

How much clearance does an AMA give you depicted on a LO chart?

A

1,000ft, and 2,000ft in ALL MOUNTAIN REGIONS.

175
Q

What do DMR altitude clearances apply to?

A

MOCA, MEA, 100 NM safe. The LO chart altitudes and the very first altitude you see on an approach plate.

176
Q

What clearance does the MSA give you?

A

1,000ft in all regions.

177
Q

What obstacle clerance do you get with transition altitudes?

A

1,000ft in all regions.

178
Q

What obstacle clearance are you guaranteed for when being radar vectored?

A

1,000ft in all regions.

179
Q

What are T-routes?

A

Low-level FIXED controlled RNAV routes.

Protection Area:
4 NM primary PHYSICAL protection
2 NM secondary GPS protection

MOCA protection represents 6 NM each side
MEA protection represents 10 NM each side

180
Q

What is an L-route?

A

Uncontrolled, low-level RNAV fixed airway

181
Q

What are approaches governed by?

A

RVR

182
Q

What are landings governed by?

A

MDA/DH

183
Q

If a pilot is unsure if a runway is obstructed, what applies?

A

Circling minima apply!

Remember to round up of the tens column of numbers is over 20.

184
Q

When you descend out of controlled airspace, you are unable to cancel IFR due to not getting VFR requirements. You proceed to descend to the MOCA and ATC will _____

A

Protect the MEA for 30 minutes.

185
Q

What frequency band does the glideslope and the LOC operate on?

A

Glideslope: UHF (ULTRA important)
Localizer: VHF (not as important, also falls under the same thing as a VOR, VHF)

186
Q

Localizer and glideslope beam:

A

1.4 degrees and +/- 5 degrees.

187
Q

What is the zone of entry for holding patterns?

A

20 degrees.

188
Q

Before taxi, what is the hierarchy at a controlled AND an uncontrolled aerodrome?

A

Controlled:

RVR for runway in use
METAR
Tower
Pilot

Uncontrolled:
RVR for runway in use
METAR
Pilot
(use the lowest of any of these values!!!!!!!! If one of them is bad, YOU CANNOT TAXI!)
189
Q

Traffic separation (non-radar environment):

A

All traffic behind heavy is 2 minutes. Extended to 3 minutes if taking off at an intersection behind heavy.

190
Q

Traffic separation (radar environment):

A

Heavy following heavy: 4
Medium following heavy: 5
Light following heavy: 6
Light following medium: 4

4,5,6,4 (biggest to smallest)

191
Q

Alternate minima with no TAF:

A

Assume the GFA:

1,000ft above lowest HAT/HAA
3 SM
No cumulonimbus

Instrument Rating (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions