INSTRUMENT FLYING HANDBOOK AND FAIR/AIM Flashcards
1
Q
Holding pattern timing
A
At or below 14,000’ MSL – 1 minute
Above 14,000’ MSL – 1.5 minutes
2
Q
Max holding speeds
A
Up to 6000’ MSL – 200 KIAS
6001’-14,000’ MSL – 230 KIAS
Above 14,000’ MSL – 265 KIAS
May be restricted to 175 KIAS on some inst. approach procedures.
At Airforce fields – 310 KIAS*
At Navy fields – 230 KIAS* *unless otherwise depicted
3
Q
Standard IFR takeoff minimums
A
1-2 engines: 1 SM visibility
More than 2 engines: ½ SM visibility
4
Q
Aircraft approach speed A
A
<90
5
Q
Aircraft approach speed B
A
91-120
6
Q
Aircraft approach speed C
A
121-140
7
Q
Aircraft approach speed D
A
141-165
8
Q
Aircraft approach speed E
A
>165
9
Q
Standard circling radius A
A
1.3
10
Q
Standard circling radius B
A
1.5
11
Q
Standard circling radius C
A
1.7
12
Q
Standard circling radius D
A
2.3
13
Q
Standard circling radius E
A
4.5
14
Q
Expanded circling radius A
A
1.3 at 1000’ or less
15
Q
Expanded circling radius B
A
1.7 at 1000’ or less
16
Q
Expanded circling radius C
A
2.7 at 1000’ or less
17
Q
Expanded circling radius D
A
3.6 at 1000’ or less
18
Q
Expanded circling radius E
A
4.5 at 1000’ or less
19
Q
Runway environment
A
a. The approach light system, except you may descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone only if the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also visible and identifiable.
b. The threshold.
c. The threshold markings.
d. The threshold lights.
e. The runway end identifier lights.
f. The visual approach slope indicator.
g. The touchdown zone or its markings.
h. The touchdown zone lights.
i. The runway or runway markings.
j. The runway lights.
20
Q
When must VOR checks be made?
A
every 30 calendar days
21
Q
What are the VOR checks and their allowable errors?
A
VOT: ±4°
Ground checkpoint: ±4°
Airborne check: ±6°
Dual check: ±4°
22
Q
Full scale deflection on a VOR
A
10°
23
Q
Localizer fan
A
35° out to 10 NM then 10° out to 18 NM
24
Q
Outer Marker distance and morse code
A
4-7 miles out - should intercept the GS here
Blue - - -
25
Middle Marker distance and morse code
approx. 3,500 ft from the runway/200 ft above touchdown zone elevation.
Where GS meets DH.
Amber . - . -
26
Inner marker distance and morse code
Btwn the MM and the runway threshold.
Where the GS meets the DH on a CAT II
White . . .
27
RVSM
Reduced vertical separation minima or minimum (RVSM) is the reduction of the standard vertical separation required between aircraft flying between FL290 (29,000 ft) and FL410 (41,000 ft) inclusive, from 2,000 feet to 1,000 feet (or between 8,850 and 12,500 m from 600 m to 300 m)
28
FIH Lost Comm
Heading: Assigned (Your last assigned heading)
Vectored (If nothing is assigned fly your last vector)
Expected (If no vector fly what was expected in your clearance)
Filed (Finally fly what you filed)
Altitude: Fly the HIGHEST of the following:
Assigned altitude
Minimum
Expected
29
Aldis Lamp
Steady Green
On Ground: cleared for takeoff
In Flight: cleared to land
30
Aldis Lamp
Flashing Green
On Ground: Cleared to taxi
In Flight: return for landing (to be followed by a steady green at the proper time)
31
Aldis Lamp
Steady Red
On Ground: Stop
In Flight: Give way to other aircraft and continue circling
32
Aldis Lamp
Flashing Red
On Ground: Taxi clear of landing area or runway in use
In Flight: Airport unsafe - do not land
33
Aldis Lamp
Flashing White
On Ground: Return to starting point on airport
In Flight: N/A
34
Aldis Lamp
Alternating Red and Green
On Ground: Exercise extreme caution
In Flight: Exercise extreme caution
35
When a radio beacon is used in conjunction with the Instrument Landing System markers, it is called a \_\_\_.
Compass Locator
36
Voice transmissions are made on radio beacons unless the letter “\_\_” (without voice) is included in the class designator
W
37
NDBs are subject to disturbances that may result in erroneous bearing information. Such disturbances result from such factors as \_\_\_. At night, radio beacons are vulnerable to interference from \_\_\_.
lightning, precipitation static, etc distant stations
38
VORs are subject to ___ restrictions, and the range varies proportionally to the ___ of the receiving equipment.
line-of-sight
altitude
39
The accuracy of course alignment of the VOR is excellent, being generally plus or minus __ degree.
1
40
VOT test
tune in the VOT frequency on your VOR receiver. With the CDI centered, the omni−bearing selector should read 0 degrees with the to/from indication showing “from” or the omni−bearing selector should read 180 degrees with the to/from indication showing “to.”
41
VORTAC, which provides three individual services: VOR \_\_, TACAN __ and TACAN __ at one site.
VOR azimuth, TACAN azimuth, and TACAN distance
42
TACAN Reliable signals may be received at distances up to __ NM at line−of−sight altitude with an accuracy of better than __ mile or __ percent of the distance, whichever is greater.
199 NM
1/2 mile
3%
43
ILS system can be divided into 3 parts:
(a) Guidance information: localizer, glide slope;
(b) Range information: marker beacon, DME;
(c) Visual information: approach lights, touchdown and centerline lights, runway lights.
44
The localizer signal is transmitted at the ___ end of the runway. It is adjusted for a course width of (full scale fly−left to a full scale fly−right) of ___ feet at the runway threshold.
far
700 ft
45
The glide slope transmitter is located between __ feet and __ feet from the approach end of the runway (down the runway) and offset __ to __ feet from the runway centerline. It transmits a glide path beam __ degrees wide (vertically).
750 and 1250
250 to 650
1.4
46
The glide slope is normally usable to the distance of __ NM.
10
47
ATC issues control instructions to avoid interfering operations within ILS critical areas at controlled airports during the hours the Airport Traffic Control Tower (ATCT) is in operation as follows: (a) Weather Conditions. Less than ceiling __ feet and/or visibility __ miles. (1) Localizer Critical Area. Except for aircraft that land, exit a runway, depart or miss approach, vehicles and aircraft are not authorized in or over the critical area when an arriving aircraft is between the ILS final approach fix and the airport. Additionally, when the ceiling is less than __ feet and/or the visibility is RVR __ or less, vehicle and aircraft operations in or over the area are not authorized when an arriving aircraft is inside the ILS \_\_.
800 ft
2 miles
200 ft
2000 MM
48
ALS configuration of signal lights starting at the landing threshold and extending into the approach area \_\_to\_\_ feet for precision runways \_\_to\_\_ feet for non precision runways
2400-3000
1400-1500
49
What is the runway width if you see 4 stripes?
60 feet
50
What is the runway width if you see 6 stripes?
75 ft
51
What is the runway width if you see 8 stripes?
100 ft
52
What is the runway width if you see 12 stripes?
150 ft
53
What is the runway width if you see 16 stripes?
200 ft
54
Displaced Threshold: what can and cannot do on it?
available for takeoffs in either direction and for landing rollout from opposite direction
cannot land on it
55
Describe REIL
consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights located laterally on each side of the runway threshold.
56
Mode C Required Airspace
(from the surface to 10,000’ MSL) within 30 NM radius of the primary airport(s) for which a Class B is designated, is depicted by a solid magenta line.
Mode C is required, but not depicted for operations within and above all Class C up to 10,000’ MSL.
57
What is a runway hotspot?
a location on an aerodrome movement area with a history or potential risk of collision or runway incursion and where heightened attention is necessary
58
What is this?
ILS critical area hold short
59
What is RVR (runway visual range)
represents the horizontal distance a pilot sees down the runway from the approach end
60
What are the 2 types of Departure Procedures?
ODP (obstacle departure procedure)
SID (standard instrument departure)
61
What is a diverse departure?
cross the departure end of the runway at 35 ft, climbing to 400 ft before making an initial turn, and maintaining a minimum climb gradient of 200 ft/nm
62
When does a departure procedure have to be an ODP?
if an obstacle penetrates the 40:1 Obstacle Clearance Surface (OCS)
If no obstacle penetrates this surface, the standard 200 ft/NM climb gradient provides a minimum of 48 ft/NM of clearance
63
If a departure is an ODP, what are some ways the departure will be designed in order to allow the pilot to avoide the obstacle?
1. incorporate a climb gradient greater than 200 ft/NM
2. increase the standard takeoff minimums to allow aircraf to "see and avoid" the obstacles
3. standard climb of 200 ft/NM with a specified reduced takeoff length
4. combination of the above and a specific departure route
64
What is a low, close-in obstacle?
What are some ways a pilot might avoid one?
obstacles that are located within 1 NM of the DER and penetrate the 40:1 OCS
see it and maneuver around it, early liftoff and climb performace allow you to cross over it, if you cant see it then preplan a route to execute immediately after takeoff to avoid it
65
How do you know a departure is an ODP?
includes the word "Obstacle" in the parentheses in the title
66
Can an ODP be established at an airport that does not have instrument approach procedures?
No
67
Is the primary goal of a SID obstacle protection or reducing ATC/pilot workload?
reducing ATC/pilot workload
68
A clearance for a SID which contains published altitude restrictions may be issued using the phraseology "\_\_\_"
"climb via"
69
When is a Visual Climb Over Airport departure required?
when obstacles farther than 3 SM from the airport require a climb gradient of more than 200 ft/NM
70
How wide are airways?
8 NM
71
What is the lowest altitude a Victor Airway can be?
1200 ft AGL
72
What altitudes do Jet Routes use?
FL180 to FL450
73
2-10 in instrument procedures handbook
2-10 in instrument procedures handbook
