Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

HEMA 2 LAB > Inhibitors, Thrombotic Disorders, and Anticoagulant Drugs > Flashcards

Inhibitors, Thrombotic Disorders, and Anticoagulant Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

Which characteristic describes antithrombin (AT)?
A. It is synthesized in megakaryocytes
B. It is activated by protein C
C. It is a cofactor of heparin
D. It is a pathological inhibitor of coagulation

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q 
2. Which laboratory test is affected by heparin therapy?
A. Thrombin time
B. Fibrinogen assay
C. Protein C assay
D. Protein S assay
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. An abnormal APTT caused by a pathological circulating anticoagulant is:
    A. Corrected with factor VIII–deficient plasma
    B. Corrected with factor IX–deficient plasma
    C. Corrected with normal plasma
    D. Not corrected with normal plasma
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q 
4. The lupus anticoagulant affects which of the following tests?
A. Factor VIII assay
B. Factor IX assay
C. VWF assay
D. Phospholipid-dependent assays
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. Which statement about Coumadin (warfarin) is accurate?
    A. It is a vitamin B antagonist
    B. It is not recommended for pregnant and
    lactating women
    C. It needs antithrombin as a cofactor
    D. APTT test is used to monitor its dosage
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q 
6. Which statement regarding protein C is correct?
A. It is a vitamin K–independent zymogen
B. It is activated by fibrinogen
C. It activates cofactors V and VIII
D. Its activity is enhanced by protein S
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Which of the following is an appropriate screening test for the diagnosis of lupus anticoagulant?
    A. Thrombin time test
    B. Diluted Russell’s viper venom test (DRVVT)
    C. D-dimer test
    D. FDP test
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Which of the following is most commonly
    associated with activated protein C resistance (APCR)?
    A. Bleeding
    B. Thrombosis
    C. Epistaxis
    D. Menorrhagia
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q 
9. A 50-year-old man has been on heparin for the past 7 days. Which combination of the tests is expected to be abnormal?
A. PT and APTT only
B. APTT, TT only
C. APTT, TT, fibrinogen assay
D. PT, APTT, TT
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q 
10. Which of the following drugs inhibits ADP
mediated platelet aggregation?
A. Heparin
B. Warfarin
C. Aspirin
D. Prasugrel
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q 
11. Thrombin-thrombomodulin complex is necessary for activation of:
A. Protein C
B. Antithrombin
C. Protein S
D. Factors V and VIII
A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q 
12. What test is used to monitor heparin therapy?
A. INR
B. APTT
C. TT
D. PT
A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q 
13. What test is commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy?
A. INR
B. APTT
C. TT
D. Ecarin time
A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q 
14. What clotting factors (cofactors) are inhibited by protein S?
A. V and X
B. Va and VIIIa
C. VIII and IX
D. VIII and X
A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q 
15. Which drug promotes fibrinolysis?
A. Warfarin
B. Heparin
C. Urokinase
D. Aspirin
A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. Diagnosis of lupus anticoagulant is confirmed by which of the following criteria?
    A. Decreased APTT
    B. Correction of the APPT by mixing studies
    C. Neutralization of the antibody by high
    concentration of platelets
    D. Confirmation that abnormal coagulation tests are time and temperature dependent
A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q 
17. Which of the following abnormalities is consistent with the presence of lupus anticoagulant?
A. Decreased APTT/bleeding complications
B. Prolonged APTT/thrombosis
C. Prolonged APTT/thrombocytosis
D. Thrombocytosis/thrombosis
A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)?
    A. Generally requires monitoring
    B. Specifically acts on factor Va
    C. Has a longer half-life than unfractionated
    heparin
    D. Can be used as a fibrinolytic agent
A

c

19
Q 
19. Which of the following tests is most likely to be abnormal in patients taking aspirin?
A. Platelet morphology
B. Platelet count
C. Bleeding time
D. Prothrombin time
A

c

20
Q 
20. Which of the following is associated with
antithrombin deficiency?
A. Thrombocytosis
B. Thrombosis
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. Bleeding
A

b

21
Q 
21. Which of the following may be associated with thrombotic events?
A. Decreased protein C
B. Increased fibrinolysis
C. Afibrinogenemia
D. ITP
A

a

22
Q 
22. Aspirin resistance may be associated with:
A. Bleeding
B. Factor VIII deficiency
C. Thrombosis
D. Thrombocytosis
A

c

23
Q 
23. A prolonged thrombin time is indicative of which of the following antithrombotic therapies?
A. Prasugrel
B. Clopidogrel
C. Aspirin
D. Heparin
A

d

24
Q
  1. Screening tests for thrombophilia should be performed on:
    A. All pregnant women because of the thrombotic risk
    B. Patients with a negative family history
    C. Patients with thrombotic events occurring at a young age
    D. Patients who are receiving anticoagulant therapy
A

c

25
Q
  1. Prothrombin G20210A is characterized by which of the following causes and conditions?
    A. Single mutation of prothrombin molecule/bleeding
    B. Single mutation of prothrombin molecule/thrombosis
    C. Decreased levels of prothrombin in plasma/thrombosis
    D. Increased levels of prothrombin in plasma/bleeding
A

b

26
Q 
26. Factor V Leiden promotes thrombosis by
preventing:
A. Deactivation of factor Va
B. Activation of factor V
C. Activation of protein C
D. Activation of protein S
A

a

27
Q 
27. What is the approximate incidence of
antiphospholipid antibodies in the general
population?
A. <1%
B. 2%
C. 10%
D. 20%
A

b

28
Q 
28. Which of the following laboratory tests is helpful in the diagnosis of aspirin resistance?
A. APTT
B. PT
C. Platelet count and morphology
D. Platelet aggregation
A

d

29
Q 
29. Which of the following complications may occur as a result of decreased tissue factor pathway inhibitor (TFPI)?
A. Increased hemorrhagic episodes
B. Increased thrombotic risk
C. Impaired platelet plug formation
D. Immune thrombocytopenia
A

b

30
Q 
30. Factor VIII inhibitors occur in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ of patients with factor VIII deficiency?
A. 40%–50%
B. 30%–40%
C. 25%–30%
D. 10%–20%
A

d

31
Q
  1. Which therapy and resulting mode of action are appropriate for the treatment of a patient with a high titer of factor VIII inhibitors?
    A. Factor VIII concentrate to neutralize the
    antibodies
    B. Recombinant factor VIIa (rVIIa) to activate factor X
    C. Factor X concentrate to activate the common pathway
    D. Fresh frozen plasma to replace factor VIII
A

b

32
Q 
32. The Bethesda assay is used for which
determination?
A. Lupus anticoagulant titer
B. Factor VIII inhibitor titer
C. Factor V Leiden titer
D. Protein S deficiency
A

b

33
Q 
33. Hyperhomocysteinemia may be a risk factor for:
A. Bleeding
B. Thrombocythemia
C. Thrombosis
D. Thrombocytopenia
A

c

34
Q 
34. Which drug may be associated with deep venous thrombosis (DVT)?
A. Aspirin
B. tPA
C. Oral contraceptives
D. Plavix (clopidogrel)
A

c

35
Q 
35. Argatroban may be used as an anticoagulant drug in patients with:
A. DVT
B. Hemorrhage
C. TTP
D. Thrombocytosis
A

a

36
Q 
36. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) 
results from:
A. Antibodies to heparin
B. Antibodies to platelets
C. Antibodies to PF4
D. Antibodies to heparin-PF4 complex
A

d

37
Q
  1. Which laboratory test is used to screen for activated protein C resistance?
    A. Mixing studies with normal plasma
    B. Mixing studies with factor-deficient plasma
    C. Modified APTT with and without activated
    protein C
    D. Modified PT with and without activated
    protein C
A

c

38
Q 
38. Ecarin clotting time may be used to monitor:
A. Heparin therapy
B. Warfarin therapy
C. Fibrinolytic therapy
D. Hirudin therapy
A

d

39
Q 
39. Which of the following may interfere with the activated protein C resistance (APCR) screening test?
A. Lupus anticoagulant
B. Protein C deficiency
C. Antithrombin deficiency
D. Protein S deficiency
A

a

40
Q 
40. Thrombophilia may be associated with which  of the following disorders?
A. Afibrinogenemia
B. Hypofibrinogenemia
C. Factor VIII inhibitor
D. Hyperfibrinogenemia
A

d

41
Q 
41. Which of the following anticoagulant drugs can be used in patients with HIT?
A. Warfarin
B. Heparin
C. Aspirin
D. Lepirudin
A

d

42
Q 
42. Which of the following is the preferred method to monitor heparin therapy at the point of care during cardiac surgery?
A. APTT
B. Activated clotting time test (ACT)
C. PT
D. TT
A

b

43
Q 
43. Mrs. Smith has the following laboratory results, and no bleeding history:
APTT: prolonged
APTT results on a 1:1 mixture of the patient’s plasma with normal plasma:
Preincubation: prolonged APTT
2-hour incubation: prolonged APTT
These results are consistent with:
A. Factor VIII deficiency
B. Factor VIII inhibitor
C. Lupus anticoagulant
D. Protein C deficiency
A

c

44
Q 
44. Which test may be used to monitor LMWH therapy?
A. APTT
B. INR
C. Anti-Xa heparin assay
D. Activated clotting time
A

c

HEMA 2 LAB (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions