Infectious Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

Gram-negative, lactose-fermenting bacillus and a common cause of UTI.

A

E Coli.

(Responsible for 75-95% of UTI, but a normal commensal of large intestine. Transfer to urinary tract can be via bloodstream / lymphatics / direct extension e.g. vesicocolic fistula / ascending transurethral route most common - esp. in women).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Gram-Positive, alpha-haemolytic diplococcus that causes lobar pneumonia.

A

Streptococcus pneumonias.

(90% of pneumonia due to Strep. pneumoniae. Colonies described as “draughtsman shaped” due to their sunken centre. Homeless and alcoholics with poor social/medical care are v prone to lobar pneumonia).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Gram-positive, anaerobic, cytotoxin producing bacillus causing pseudomembranous colitis.

A

Clostridium difficile.

(Toxigenic strain. C diff produces two toxins: Toxin A - enterotoxin responsible for gut symptoms, Toxin B - cytotoxin with cytopathic effect in cell cultures).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

S-shaped urease-positive bacillus, major cause of chronic gastritis and peptic ulcer disease. Stains poorly with gram stain.

A

Helicobacter pylori.

H. pylori is a flagellate bacillus that produces urease and colonises the gastric antrum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Helicobacter pylori is associated with an increased risk of developing which conditions?

A
  • Chronic gastritis.
  • Duodenal ulcer.
  • Gastric adenocarcinoma.
  • Primary gastric lymphoma.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How is Helicobacter pylori tested for?

A
  • Serology for IgG antibodies.
  • Urea breath test.
  • Endoscopy: rapid urease test, microbiological culture, histological identification in gastric biopsy.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How is Helicobacter pylori best visualised?

A

Modified Giemsa stain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Gram negative coliforms.

A
  • E. Coli
  • Klebsiella
  • Enterobacter
  • Proteus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which antibiotic are most gram negative coliforms and Pseudomonas aeruginosa sensitive to?

A
  • Gentamicin.

- Aztreonam.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Extended spectrum beta lactamases are resistant to most of which antibiotic?

A

Penicillins e.g. co-amoxiclav, piperacillin tazobactam, aztreonam.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which antibiotics do extended spectrum beta-lactamases have sensitivity to?

A
  • Temocillin.
  • Pivemcillinam.
  • Meropenem.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Anaerobes are generally sensitive to which antibiotics?

A
  • Metronidazole.

- Co-amoxiclav, Clindamycin, Pip-tazobactam, Meropneme.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Gram positives e.g. Staph aureus, Streptococci and Enterococci are sensitive to?

A

Vancomycin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Beta-haemolytic streps are sensitive to?

A
  • Penicillin.

- Flucloxacillin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which investigations are needed for infection of the CNS?

A
  • Blood cultures.
  • Bacterial and viral throat swabs.
  • EDTA for bacterial PCR.
  • CSF sample if safe to do so.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which organisms are likely to cause epiglottitis?

A
  • Haemophilus influenza.

- Streptococci.

17
Q

Which organisms are likely to cause meningitis in someone >60 y/o?

A

Listeria, meningococcus, pneumococcus.

18
Q

Which investigations are needed for pneumonia?

A
  • Blood cultures.
  • Viral throat swab.
  • Sputum for bacterial culture.
  • BAL or tracheal aspirates if clinically indicated (PCR for legionella or PCP).
19
Q

Likely causative organism in someone with acute native valve endocarditis?

A

Staph. aureus.

20
Q

Likely causative organism in someone with subacute native valve endocarditis?

A
  • Viridans streptococci.

- Enterococci.

21
Q

Likely causative organism in someone with prosthetic valve endocarditis?

A
  • MRSA.

- Coagulase negative Staphylococci.

22
Q

What microbiology samples should be taken from someone with a central venous catheter related infection?

A
  • blood cultures from peripheral site and the line using strict aseptic technique.
  • Swab exit site if infected.
23
Q

Likely causative organism in someone with peritonitis / biliary tract sepsis / intra-abdominal infection?

A
  • Polymicrobial coliforms.
  • Anaerobes.
  • Enterococci.
24
Q

Likely causative organism in someone with spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?

A
  • Coliforms +/- anaerobes.

- Strep. pneumonia.

25
Q

Investigations in someone with suspected E. Coli 0157 infection?

A
  • FBC, U+Es, LDH, CRP.

- Blood film (fragmented blood cells in HUS).

26
Q

Likely causative organism in a female with uncomplicated UTI?

A
  • Coliforms.

- Enterococci.

27
Q

Likely causative organism in a male with UTI (not catheter related)?

A
  • Coliforms.

- Enterococci.

28
Q

Likely causative organism in someone with complicated UTI / pyelonephritis urosepsis?

A
  • Coliforms.
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
  • Enterococci.
29
Q

Likely causative organism in someone with cellulitis?

A
  • Staph. aureus.

- Group A and other beta-haemolytic Streptococci.

30
Q

Likely causative organism in someone with acute diabetic foot infection?

A

Staph aureus.

31
Q

Likely causative organism in someone with acute on chronic polymicrobial diabetic foot infection?

A
  • Staph. aureus.
  • Coliforms.
  • Anaerobes.
32
Q

Why is Ceftriaxone used in CNS infections?

A
  • Need for high CSF levels to be maintained.

- Easy dosing (twice daily).

33
Q

Listeria is resistant to X but sensitive to Y.

A
  • X - Cephalosporin.

- Y - Amoxicillin.