Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Medicine Year 5 > Infectious Diseases > Flashcards

Infectious Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

Antibiotics for respiratory infections

A

Amoxicillin
Clarithromycin if allergic or atypical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Antibiotics for HAP presenting after 5 days

A

Piperacillin with tazobactam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Antibiotics for urinary tract infections

A

UTI: trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin
Pyelonephritis/Prostatitis: Broad spectrum Quinolone / Cephalosporin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Antibiotics for skin infections

A

Flucloxacillin or Co-amoxiclav

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

1st line for MRSA

A

Vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Antibiotics for ENT infections

A

Phenoxymethylpenicillin for throat
Amoxicillin/Flucloxacillin for ears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Antibiotics for gonorrhoea

A

IM ceftriaxone
Oral cefixime + Azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Antibiotics for chlamydia

A

Doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Antibiotics for PID

A

IM ceftriaxone + Oral doxycycline + Oral metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Antibiotics for syphilis

A

Benzylpenicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Antibiotics for bacterial vaginosis

A

Metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Antibiotics for GI infections

A

Ciprofloxacin
Clarithromycin for campylobacter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Antibiotics for C. Diff

A

Vancomycin 1st then Fidaxomicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

treatment of a UTI in pregnancy and breastfeeding

A

pregnancy: nitrofurantoin
breast feeding: trimethoprim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

watery stool, abdominal cramps and nausea in travellers with a 12-48 hour indubation

A

E.coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

prolonged non bloody diarrhoea and lactose intolerance with a 7 day incubation

A

giardiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

profuse watery diarrhoea and dehydration causing weight loss which is rare in travellers

A

cholera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

bloody diarrhoea, vomiting and abdominal pain with a 48-72 hour incubation

A

shigella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

severe vomiting with a short incubation of 1-6 hours

A

staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

flu prodrome followed by crampy abdominal pain, fever and bloody diarrhoea which mimics appendicitis and is associated with a 48-72 hour incubation period

A

campylobacter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

which bug is associated with guillian barre

A

campylobacter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

vomiting within 6 hours due to rice or diarrhoea after 6 hours

A

bacillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

gradual onset of bloody diarrhoea, abdominal pain and tenderness for weeks with a 7 day incubation

A

amoebiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

abdominal pain, watery diarrhoea, possible perforation, systemic upset. ROSE spots on the abdomen, cough and recent travel with a 12-48 hour incubation

A

salmonella typhi
TYPHOID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

bloody diarrhoea, RUQ pain, fever and anchovy sauce liver appearance due to abscess

A

E. Histolytica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

which clostridium infection causes pseudomembranous colitis after broad spectrum abx

A

C. difficle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

which clostridium infection causes flaccid paralysis due to Ach blockage from canned foods or honey

A

C. botulinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

which clostridium infection causes spastic paralysis of the spinal cord

A

C. tenani

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

which clostridium infection causes gangrene, haemolysis and sepsis in T2DM

A

C. perfringes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

antibiotic of choice for invasive and severe diarrhoea

A

ciprofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

which antibody is produced early and late in the immune response

A

early = IgM
late = IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

URTI + amoxicillin causing a rash

A

Glandular Fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

which organism causes bronchiolitis

A

RSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

which organism causes croup

A

parainfluenza virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

which organism causes the common cold

A

rhinovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

which organism causes tonsillitis

A

streptococcus pyrogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

which organism causes the flu

A

influenza virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

which organism causes CAP

A

strep pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

which organism causes CAP, bronchiectasis and acute epiglottitis

A

H influenzae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

which organism causes post influenzae pneumonia

A

staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

which organism causes flu symptoms with a dry cough associated with erythema multiforme and haemolytic anaemia in a young person

A

mycoplasma pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

which organism causes a dry cough, flu, confusion, reduced WCC and Na, deranged LFTs after air conditioning

A

legionella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

treatment for legionella

A

macrolide e.g. clarithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

which organism causes exertional dyspnoea, fever, cough and SOB in patients with HIV

A

pneumocystis jiroveci

45
Q

management of HIV patients with a CD4 below 200

A

co-amoxiclav prophylaxis for pneumocystis jiroveci

46
Q

management of pneumocystis jiroveci

A

co-trimoxazole

47
Q

which organism causes cough, night sweats and weight loss

A

mycobacterium tuberculosis

48
Q

stain for TB

A

zeiehl-neelsen

49
Q

latent TB on CXR

A

calcified gohn complex

50
Q

what can be found in the lung cavity after secondary TB

A

aspergilloma

51
Q

what must you measure before starting TB treatment

A

FBC, U&E, LFT and visual acuity

52
Q

what can long term prednisolone cause during the mantoux test

A

false negative mantoux

53
Q

what must you do before the BCG

A

tuberculin skin test

54
Q

testing for HIV

A

combination test for antigens and antibodies after 4 weeks

55
Q

how long after can you give PEP for HIV

A

72 hours

56
Q

first line treatment of HIV

A

2 nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors
1 protease inhibitor

57
Q

which HIV drug has the suffix ‘navir’

A

protease inhibitors

58
Q

which virus causes kaposi’s sarcoma

A

human herpes virus 8

59
Q

which two conditions can present in HIV with neurological symptoms and brain lesions
how can you tell the difference

A

CNS lymphoma: homogenous lesions
Toxoplasmosis: ring enlargement

60
Q

which meningitis stains with India ink

A

cryptococcus neoformans (yeast)

61
Q

which medication improves neurological outcomes in bacterial meningitis

A

dexamethasone

62
Q

when would you do the LP in relation to ABx for meningitis

A

LP before antibiotics unless more than 1 hour for LP, rapidly deteriorating, raised ICP or high risk of a bleed

63
Q

what medication is given for prophylaxis of meningococcal meningitis

A

ciprofloxacin or rifampicin

64
Q

what is the main treatment for bacterial meningitis

A

IV cefotaxime or ceftriaoxone

65
Q

which medication would you add to cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) in under 3m or over 50y

A

amoxicillin

66
Q

medication for meningitis caused by listeria

A

IV amoxicillin and gentamicin

67
Q

how long do you treat males for UTI

A

7 days

68
Q

woman over 65 years with UTI

A

send an MSU sample

69
Q

do you treat asymptomatic bacteria in catheterised patients

A

no

70
Q

management of regular UTI after sex

A

post-coital antibiotic prophylaxis

71
Q

how do you manage pregnant women with UTIs

A

send off a MSU for test of cure

avoid trimethoprim in 1st trimester (give nitrofurantoin)
avoid nitrofurantoin in 3rd trimester (give amoxicillin/cefalexin)

72
Q

side effect of trimethoprim

A

tubular dysfunction causing raised potassium and creatinine

73
Q

thin white discharge with clue cells and pH below 4.5

A

bacterial vaginosis

74
Q

management of bacterial vaginosis

A

metronidazole (safe in pregnancy)

75
Q

strawberry cervix

A

trichomonas vaginalis

76
Q

non specific dysuria and discharge

A

chlamydia

77
Q

investigation for chlamydia

A

NAAT on first catch urine for men

vulvo-vaginal swab for women (also for gonorrhoea)

78
Q

management of chlamydia

A

doxycycline

treat partner even if negative

79
Q

triad of a gonococcal disseminated infection

A

tenosynovitis
migratory polyarthritis
dermatitis

80
Q

presentation of genital herpes

A

painful genital ulcers

81
Q

management of genital herpes

A

NAAT
Aciclovir

82
Q

which herpes causes oral and genital ulcers

A

HSV1 - oral
HSV2 - genital

83
Q

presentation of the ulcers in syphilis

A

painless ulcer with indurated centre and associated lymphadenopathy

84
Q

most common organism in central line infection

A

Staph epidermidis

85
Q

most common organism causing diabetic ulcers

A

pseudomonas

86
Q

which medication causes a black hairy tongue

A

tetracyclines

87
Q

which vaccination is given in chronic hepatitis and 2 weeks prior to splenectomy

A

pneumococcal

88
Q

management of necrotising fasciits

A

IV ABX
immediate surgical debridement

89
Q

which organism is treated with topical chlorhexadine or nasal mupirocin

A

MRSA

90
Q

which organism is treated with praziquantel

A

schistosomiasis

91
Q

which medication increases the anticoagulant effect of warfarin and should be avoided with alcohol

A

metronidazole

92
Q

what are these vaccinations examples of: BCG, MMR, oral polio, oral typhoid, yellow fever

A

liver attenuated vaccinations

93
Q

fever on alternative days

A

malaria

94
Q

management of rabies

A

immunoglobulin and vaccination post exposure

95
Q

management of lyme disease

A

no treatment if asymptomatic
if symptomatic then doxycycline

96
Q

which organism causes trismus (lockjaw), lethargy, spasms and back arching

A

clostridum tetani (TETANUS)

97
Q

management of tetanus

A

vaccination status unknown: ig and vaccination
vaccinated: ig
more than 5 vaccinations, the last within 10 years: nothing

98
Q

fever, rigors and vomiting followed by jaundice, haematemesis and oliguria with a 2-14 day incubation

A

yellow fever

99
Q

which organism causes fever, hypotension and desquamating rash in patients using tampons

A

staphylococcus toxic shock syndrome

100
Q

which disease can mimic EBV in immunocompromised patients presenting with fever, lymphadenopathy and malaise post food poisoning

A

toxoplasmosis

101
Q

which hepatitis is self-limiting causing flu, RUQ pain and tenderness, jaundice and deranged LFTs with a 2-4 week incubation

how is it spread

A

A

faecal oral

102
Q

deterioration of hepatitis B can indicate what

A

hepatocellular carcinoma

103
Q

which hepatitis is a differential in an acute flare of chronic hepatitis B

A

hepatitis D

104
Q

which hepatitis can cause mild jaundice and systemic upset 3-8 weeks after eating undercooked pork

how is it spread

A

E

faecal oral

105
Q

which disease can cause cardiomyopathy if severe

A

chagas

106
Q

which disease causes bilateral conjunctivitis, calf pain, myalgia, high fevers (flu, AKI, hepatitis, meningitis) and is spread by rat urine in the tropics

A

leptospirosis

benpen/doxy

107
Q

which disease is spread by sandflys in the americas and causes crusty lesions needing bon marrow aspirates

A

leishmaniasis

108
Q

which disease causes thrombophlebitis of the internal jugular vein due to oropharyngeal infection

A

lemierre’s

Medicine Year 5 (27 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions