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Med Surg 1 > Infectious Diseases > Flashcards

Infectious Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

What is low grade fever?

A

99 to 102 (37.2 to 38.8)

hi-grade > 102 (39.4)

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2
Q

Normal Range: WBC

A

4 to 10k

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3
Q

What are signs of systemic infection?

A
  1. Fever
  2. Chills
  3. Malaise
  4. Elevated WBC

May see tachycardia and mental confusion

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4
Q

What are two common respiratory signs of infection?

A
  1. Cough
  2. Abnormal lung sounds
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5
Q

What are two common GI signs of infection?

A
  1. Vomiting
  2. Diarrhea
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6
Q

What are two common GU signs of infection?

A
  1. Urine color
  2. Dysuria (pain)
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7
Q

What are four common skin signs of infection?

A
  1. Warm
  2. Red
  3. Tender
  4. Purulent discharge
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8
Q

Four nursing interventions for infection

A
  1. Temperature q4h
  2. Increase fluid intake
  3. Increase food intake*
  4. Provide light blanket (assists w/ symptoms such as chills)

Infections take up a lot of energy

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9
Q

Which host cell is attacked by HIV?

A

CD4 (T-Lymphocyte)

Viruses replicate within CD4 then destroys the cell

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10
Q

What are the four class of HIV medications?

A
  1. Reverse transcription inhibitors
  2. Integrase inhibitors
  3. Fusion/entry inhibitors
  4. Protease inhibitors
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11
Q

What is MOA of NRTI/NNRTI?

Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor

A

Stops enzyme that allows virus from replicating.

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12
Q

Which medication inhibits HIV “integration” process?

A

Dolutegravir

Integrase inhibitors

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13
Q

What medication class is Truvada?

A

Combination of two NRTI

Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor

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14
Q

What is the goal of ART?

Anti-Retro viral Therapy

A

To suppress the HIV viral load

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15
Q

What is the difference b/w taking Truvada alone versus in conjunction w/ Dolutegravir?

A
  • Truvada alone is for HIV prevention. (PrEP)
  • Truvada + Dolutegravir for suppressing HIV viral load. (ART or PEP)
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16
Q

Truvada

A
  1. Tx for HIV (2 NRTI’s in one med)
  2. GI SE (temporary)
  3. Hepatic (liver) damage (review ALT/AST)
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17
Q

When must PEP be given?

Post-exposure Prophylaxis

A

within 72 hours of suspected HIV exposure

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18
Q

What is the duration of PEP?

Post-exposure Prophylaxis

A

30 days

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19
Q

How does Latent HIV reservior affect ART regimen?

A
  • HIV can go dormant (not replicating),
  • ART works when virus is actively replication
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20
Q

Normal Range: CD4 (t-lymphocyte)

A

500 to 1500

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21
Q

What CD4 range causes a concern for opportunistic infection?

A

CD4 < 200

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22
Q

What is considered an undetectable viral load range?

A

< 40 viral copies/ml

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23
Q

What does U=U mean?

A
  • undetectable = untransmissible
  • If their viral load is considered undetectable; it is safe that they will not transmit the virus to their partner.
24
Q

How many drugs would would someone on ART be on?

A

3+

25
Q
  1. What regimen would someone diagnosed w/ HIV be on?
  2. How about HIV negative?
  3. How about suspected HIV exposure?
A
  1. Anti-Retro viral Therapy (ART)
  2. Pre-exposure Prophylaxis (PrEP)
  3. Post-exposure Prophylaxis (PEP)
26
Q

What are 5 nursing diagnosis for HIV care?

A
  1. Risk for infection
  2. Imbalanced nutrition
  3. Diarrhea (r/t disease or med)
  4. Deficient knowledge
  5. Social Isolation
27
Q

What is the #1 cause of infectious disease in the world?

A

Tuberculosis

28
Q

What % of latent TB becomes active?

A

10%

29
Q
  • Does a positive TB screening, indicate you currently have active TB?
  • Does it mean your are infectious?
A

No

30
Q

What are the 3 names of the TB skin test?

A
  1. Purified Protein Derivative (PPD)
  2. Mantoux
  3. tuberculin skin test (TST)
31
Q

A TB skin test with an Induration ≥ 5 mm would be positive for which patients?

A

immunocompromised (HIV)

32
Q

A TB skin test with an Induration ≥ 10 mm would be positive for which patients?

A

Patients w/ risk factors for TB
(clinicians, travel to endemic regions, AIDS)

33
Q

A TB skin test with an Induration ≥ 15 mm would be positive for which patients?

A

All patients

34
Q

A TB skin test must be assessed within what time frame?

A

2 days

35
Q

What are the signs of TB disease

A
  1. Night sweats
  2. productive cough
  3. Fever
  4. Chest pain
  5. Dyspnea
  6. Weight-loss
36
Q

When is the best time to collect sputum?

A

In the morning

37
Q

what infection control precautions does TB fall under?

A

Airborne precautions

38
Q

What are the four drugs used to treat TB?

A
  1. Rifampicin
  2. Isoniazid
  3. Pyranzinamid
  4. Ethambutol

RIPE

39
Q

What side effects are associated w/ Rifampicin?

A

Turns urine, sweat orange/reddish (no harm)

40
Q

Isoniazid

A
  • Taken for TB tx (RIPE)
  • Hepatic impairment (check ALT/AST) - no alcohol
  • peripheral neuropathy (give B6 pyridoxine [neuroprotective])
41
Q

What is the duration of TB medication?

A
  • 6 to 9 months total
  • First 3 months take all 4, only RIF and INH after sputum conversion.
42
Q
  • How is Malaria transmitted?
  • Where does the organism reside?
A
  • Saliva of female Anopheles mosquito
  • Parasite grows in liver cells & then RBC
43
Q

Is malaria a contagious disease?

A

No

44
Q

Malaria is the greatest risk to which patients?

A

~2 to 5 yo & pregnant

45
Q

What are the symptoms of malaria

A
  1. Fever
  2. chills
  3. Flu-like symptoms (aches)
  4. Possible anemia
46
Q

What is the duration of prohylaxis malaria medication?

A

1 day before leaving, then daily, followed by 7 days after coming back

47
Q

What are standard precautions?

A
  1. Hand washing
  2. Gloves only when coming in contact w/ infectious fluids.

anything that comes out of the person’s body; blood, mucus

48
Q

What are Airborne precautions?

A

Standard precautions PLUS:
* Negative air-pressure room
* N-95 Respirator
* Surgical mask on patient if must be transported

TB, Measles, SARS/COVID, Varicella

49
Q

What is the difference in transmission b/w Airborne and Droplet?

A
  • Airborne = Transmission by aerosolized, airborne droplet nuclei
  • Droplet = transmission by close contact with large, particle droplets from respiratory tract
50
Q
  1. What are Droplet precautions?
  2. What are the diseases?
A

Standard precautions PLUS:
* Surgical mask, Gown, eye cover, glove within 3-6 feet of patient
* Door may remain open
* Isolation preferred, or roommate with similar infection

COVID, Meningitis, H1N1 Influenze, Drug-Resistant Pneumonia

51
Q
  1. What are Contact precautions?
  2. What are the diseases
A

Standard precautions PLUS:
* Gown and gloves required
* Patient-dedicated equipment
* Door may remain open & masks are not required
* Isolation preferred, or roommate with similar infection

MRSA, C-Diff, Shingles (disseminated)

52
Q

How should equipment that has potentially been contaminated be cleaned?

A

bleach or chlorhexidine

53
Q

What is the cleaning process for C. diff

Clostridium difficile

A
  1. Must wash hands with soap and water (alcohol non-effective)
  2. Clean equipment with bleach or chlorhexidine
54
Q
  1. How is C. diff diagnosed?
  2. How is it treated?
  3. Treatment for re-occurring cases?

Clostridium difficile

A
  1. Diagnose w/ stool sample
  2. vancomycin or metronidazole
  3. Fidaxomycin or Fectal Microbiotia Transplantation

-mycin family

55
Q

What are the 5 drug resistant bacteria to look out for?

A
  1. Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
  2. Vancomycin-Resistant Enterococcus (VRE)
  3. Carbapenem-Resistant Enterobactericaea (CRE)
  4. Pseudomonas Aeruginosa
  5. Acinetobacter Baumanii
56
Q

Which vein should be avoided if possible for central lines?
Why?

A

Avoid femoral vein near the crouch, increases likely to infect

57
Q

mefloquine (Lariam)

A
  1. Prophylaxis malaria medication
  2. Neuro side effects (severe nightmares, mental breaks)

Med Surg 1 (7 decks)

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