Infectious Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

What is low grade fever?

A

99 to 102 (37.2 to 38.8)

hi-grade > 102 (39.4)

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2
Q

Normal Range: WBC

A

4 to 10k

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3
Q

What are signs of systemic infection?

A
  1. Fever
  2. Chills
  3. Malaise
  4. Elevated WBC

May see tachycardia and mental confusion

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4
Q

What are two common respiratory signs of infection?

A
  1. Cough
  2. Abnormal lung sounds
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5
Q

What are two common GI signs of infection?

A
  1. Vomiting
  2. Diarrhea
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6
Q

What are two common GU signs of infection?

A
  1. Urine color
  2. Dysuria (pain)
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7
Q

What are four common skin signs of infection?

A
  1. Warm
  2. Red
  3. Tender
  4. Purulent discharge
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8
Q

Four nursing interventions for infection

A
  1. Temperature q4h
  2. Increase fluid intake
  3. Increase food intake*
  4. Provide light blanket (assists w/ symptoms such as chills)

Infections take up a lot of energy

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9
Q

Which host cell is attacked by HIV?

A

CD4 (T-Lymphocyte)

Viruses replicate within CD4 then destroys the cell

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10
Q

What are the four class of HIV medications?

A
  1. Reverse transcription inhibitors
  2. Integrase inhibitors
  3. Fusion/entry inhibitors
  4. Protease inhibitors
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11
Q

What is MOA of NRTI/NNRTI?

Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor

A

Stops enzyme that allows virus from replicating.

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12
Q

Which medication inhibits HIV “integration” process?

A

Dolutegravir

Integrase inhibitors

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13
Q

What medication class is Truvada?

A

Combination of two NRTI

Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor

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14
Q

What is the goal of ART?

Anti-Retro viral Therapy

A

To suppress the HIV viral load

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15
Q

What is the difference b/w taking Truvada alone versus in conjunction w/ Dolutegravir?

A
  • Truvada alone is for HIV prevention. (PrEP)
  • Truvada + Dolutegravir for suppressing HIV viral load. (ART or PEP)
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16
Q

Truvada

A
  1. Tx for HIV (2 NRTI’s in one med)
  2. GI SE (temporary)
  3. Hepatic (liver) damage (review ALT/AST)
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17
Q

When must PEP be given?

Post-exposure Prophylaxis

A

within 72 hours of suspected HIV exposure

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18
Q

What is the duration of PEP?

Post-exposure Prophylaxis

A

30 days

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19
Q

How does Latent HIV reservior affect ART regimen?

A
  • HIV can go dormant (not replicating),
  • ART works when virus is actively replication
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20
Q

Normal Range: CD4 (t-lymphocyte)

A

500 to 1500

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21
Q

What CD4 range causes a concern for opportunistic infection?

A

CD4 < 200

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22
Q

What is considered an undetectable viral load range?

A

< 40 viral copies/ml

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23
Q

What does U=U mean?

A
  • undetectable = untransmissible
  • If their viral load is considered undetectable; it is safe that they will not transmit the virus to their partner.
24
Q

How many drugs would would someone on ART be on?

25
1. What regimen would someone diagnosed w/ HIV be on? 2. How about HIV negative? 3. How about suspected HIV exposure?
1. Anti-Retro viral Therapy (**ART**) 2. Pre-exposure Prophylaxis (**PrEP**) 3. Post-exposure Prophylaxis (**PEP**)
26
What are 5 nursing diagnosis for HIV care?
1. Risk for infection 2. Imbalanced nutrition 3. Diarrhea (r/t disease or med) 4. Deficient knowledge 5. Social Isolation
27
What is the #1 cause of infectious disease in the world?
Tuberculosis
28
What % of latent TB becomes active?
10%
29
* Does a positive TB screening, indicate you currently have active TB? * Does it mean your are infectious?
No
30
What are the 3 names of the TB skin test?
1. Purified Protein Derivative (**PPD**) 2. Mantoux 3. tuberculin skin test (**TST**)
31
A TB skin test with an Induration ≥ 5 mm would be positive for which patients?
immunocompromised (HIV)
32
A TB skin test with an Induration ≥ 10 mm would be positive for which patients?
Patients w/ risk factors for TB (*clinicians, travel to endemic regions, AIDS*)
33
A TB skin test with an Induration ≥ 15 mm would be positive for which patients?
All patients
34
A TB skin test must be assessed within what time frame?
2 days
35
What are the signs of TB disease
1. **Night sweats** 2. **productive cough** 3. **Fever** 4. Chest pain 5. Dyspnea 6. Weight-loss
36
When is the best time to collect sputum?
In the morning
37
what infection control precautions does TB fall under?
Airborne precautions
38
What are the four drugs used to treat TB?
1. **R**ifampicin 2. **I**soniazid 3. **P**yranzinamid 4. **E**thambutol | RIPE
39
What side effects are associated w/ Rifampicin?
Turns urine, sweat orange/reddish (no harm)
40
Isoniazid
* Taken for TB tx (R**I**PE) * Hepatic impairment (check ALT/AST) - no alcohol * peripheral neuropathy (give B6 pyridoxine [neuroprotective])
41
What is the duration of TB medication?
* 6 to 9 months total * First 3 months take all 4, only RIF and INH after sputum conversion.
42
* How is Malaria transmitted? * Where does the organism reside?
* Saliva of **female** Anopheles mosquito * Parasite grows in liver cells & then RBC
43
Is malaria a contagious disease?
No
44
Malaria is the greatest risk to which patients?
~2 to 5 yo & pregnant
45
What are the symptoms of malaria
1. Fever 2. chills 3. Flu-like symptoms (*aches*) 4. Possible **anemia**
46
What is the duration of prohylaxis malaria medication?
1 day before leaving, then daily, followed by 7 days after coming back
47
What are **standard** precautions?
1. Hand washing 2. Gloves **only** **when** coming in **contact w/ infectious fluids**. | *anything that comes out of the person's body; blood, mucus*
48
What are **Airborne** precautions?
**Standard precautions PLUS**: * Negative air-pressure room * N-95 Respirator * Surgical mask on patient if must be transported | TB, Measles, SARS/COVID, Varicella
49
What is the difference in transmission b/w Airborne and Droplet?
* Airborne = Transmission by **aerosolized**, airborne droplet nuclei * Droplet = transmission by **close contact with large, particle droplets** from respiratory tract
50
1. What are **Droplet** precautions? 2. What are the diseases?
**Standard precautions PLUS:** * Surgical mask, Gown, **eye cover**, glove within 3-6 feet of patient * Door may remain open * Isolation preferred, or roommate with similar infection | COVID, Meningitis, H1N1 Influenze, Drug-Resistant Pneumonia
51
1. What are **Contact** precautions? 2. What are the diseases
**Standard precautions PLUS:** * Gown and gloves required * **Patient-dedicated equipment** * Door may remain open & **masks are not required** * Isolation preferred, or roommate with similar infection | MRSA, C-Diff, Shingles (disseminated)
52
How should equipment that has potentially been contaminated be cleaned?
bleach or chlorhexidine
53
What is the cleaning process for *C. diff* | *Clostridium difficile*
1. Must wash hands with soap and water (**alcohol non-effective**) 2. Clean equipment with bleach or chlorhexidine
54
1. How is *C. diff* diagnosed? 2. How is it treated? 3. Treatment for re-occurring cases? | *Clostridium difficile*
1. Diagnose w/ stool sample 2. **vancomycin** or metronidazole 3. Fidaxo**mycin** or Fectal Microbiotia Transplantation | -mycin family
55
What are the 5 **drug resistant** bacteria to look out for?
1. *Methicillin-Resistant* Staphylococcus aureus (**MRSA**) 2. *Vancomycin-Resistant* Enterococcus (**VRE**) 3. *Carbapenem-Resistan*t Enterobactericaea (**CRE**) 4. Pseudomonas Aeruginosa 5. Acinetobacter Baumanii
56
Which vein should be avoided if possible for central lines? Why?
Avoid femoral vein near the crouch, increases likely to infect
57
mefloquine (Lariam)
1. Prophylaxis malaria medication 2. Neuro side effects (severe nightmares, mental breaks)