Infectious Disease I Flashcards

1
Q

Gram-positive organisms
gram-stain?
cell-wall?

A
  • purple

- thick

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2
Q

Gram-negative organisms
gram-stain?
cell-wall?

A
  • pink

- thin

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3
Q

Gram positive cocci consists of ____ and ___?

A

Cluster and Chains

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4
Q

Name the bacteria?
gram-stain purple
cocci
CLUSTERS

A

Staphylococcus spp.

including MSSA and MRSA

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5
Q

Name the bacteria?
gram-stain purple
CHAINS or PAIRS

A

Strep. pneumoniae
Streptococcus spp.
Enterococcus spp. (including VRE)

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6
Q

Name the bacteria?
gram-stain purple
anaerobes

A

PAC
P-Peptostreptococcus
A-Actinomyces spp.
C- C.diff

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7
Q

Name the bacteria?
Atypicals
gram-stain?

A

Chlamydia spp.
Legionella spp.
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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8
Q

HNPEK

Identify the “gut colonizers” vs. “NON-gut colonizers”

A
H- H. influenzae (non -gut colonizer)
N- Neisseria spp. (Cocci)
P- Proteus (gut colonizer)
E- E. coli (gut colonizer) 
K- Klebsiella spp. (gut colonizer)
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9
Q

CAPES + ____ + ____

Identify the shape (cocci, rod, etc..)

A
C- Citrobacter spp.
A- Acinetobacter baumanni
P- Providencia 
E- Enterobacter
S- Serratia spp. 

MOUTH flora- Peptostreptococcus (gram +) and Actinomyces

Pseudomonas

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10
Q

Cell-wall inhibitors (3)

A
  • Beta-lactams (Penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems)
  • Monobactams
  • Vancomycin
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11
Q

Folic-Acid Inhibitors

A
  • Sulfonamides

- Bactrim

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12
Q

Cell-membrane inhibitors a.k.a Lipoglycopeptides + ____

A
Televancin
Daptomycin
Oritavancin 
PLUS
Polymyxin
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13
Q

DNA/RNA Inhibitors

A
  • Quinolones (floxacins)- DNA gyrase/TOPO IV)
  • Metronidazole
  • Rifampin
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14
Q

Protein Synthesis Inhibitors

A
  • Aminoglycosides
  • Macrolides (mycins)
  • Tetracylcines (doxy,mono,tetra)
  • Clindamycin
  • Linezolid
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15
Q

Name the TIME dependent antibiotics?

A
  • Beta-lactams
  • Penicillins
  • Cephlasporins
  • Carbapenems

Note: all others are CONCENTRATION dependent

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16
Q

What Beta-lactam is commonly used to treat syphilis?

A
Pen G (Bicillin LA)- IM formulation only
This is a lipid emulsion that can be deadly if given IV
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17
Q

What natural penicillin is used to treat gram (+) cocci, anaerobes, and skin infections?

A

Penicillin VK

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18
Q

What Beta-lactams are commonly used to treat AOM? What is the dosing?

A

Amoxicillin and Augmentin
90 mg/kg/day
Note: clavulate is the lowest dose

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19
Q

____ is an Aminopenicillin used to PROPHylactically treat infective endocarditis (dental surgery)?

A

Amoxicillin

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20
Q

What is the only beta-lactam (ESBL) that covers pseudomonas AND CAPES?

A

Zosyn (pipercillin/tazobactam)

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21
Q

All Beta-lactams cover Enterococcus accept for these? Do they require renal dose adjustment?

A

Oxacillin (PO)
Naficillin, Dicloxacillin (IV)
No renal dose adjustment required

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22
Q

Aminopenicillins cover what organisms?

A

HNPEK

23
Q

Penicillin Class Effects

A
  • Beta-lactam allergy

- Risk of seizures (more common in patients with decrease renal fxn which leads to accumulation or Hx of seizures)

24
Q

Name the aminopenicillin + Betalactamase inhibitors (PO and IV formulation) combos and what do they cover?

A

Augmentin- amoxicillin/clavulanate (PO)
Unasyn- ampicillin/sulbactam (IV)

Coverage:
MSSA, HNPEK, B. fragilis

25
Q

What is the only exception when considering initiating penicilin therapy in a patient with a penicillin allergy?

A

Pregnant patients with syphiliis

26
Q

What medications classes/drugs would be inappropriate treatment for a patient with a hx of seizures?

A

Beta-lactams (Penicillins, Cephalosporins,Carbapenems)
Quinolones
Bupropion

27
Q

What monolactam can be used when patient has an allergy to penicillin?

A

Aztreonam

28
Q

When can cephalosporins be used in a child with a penicillin allergy?

A

When the child has AOM

29
Q

1st gen cephalosporins; formulation; coverage?

A

1st Gen Cephalosporins:
Cefazolin (IV); Cephlexin (PO)

Coverage:

  • PEK (gram -)
  • mouth anaerobes (peptostreptococci)
30
Q

Name the 2nd generation cephalosporin that comes in IV/PO/IM. What does it cover?

A

Cefuroxime (Ceftin)

Coverage:
-HNPEK

31
Q

Name the two 2nd generation (IV) cephalosprins and their coverage?

A

CeFOTetan and CeFOXitin

Coverage:
B. fragilis

32
Q

Which 2nd generation (IV) cephalosprins is associated with DISULFIRAM rxns? What is it used to treat?

A

CeFOTetan

Treament for:
AOM
CAP
sinus infection

33
Q

What cephalosporin has strep pneumo coverage + MRSA?

A

Ceftaroline (Teflaro)

34
Q

What IV cephalosporin treats gram +, HNPEK, and CAPES ~ including pseudomonas?

A

4th generation

Cefepime (IV)

35
Q

What IV cephalosporin treats CAP, SBP, and pyelonephritis and does not require renal dose adjustment? contraindications? What is the PO formulation?

A

Ceftriaxone -IV (3rd generation)
- in neonates (0-28 days)
Cefdinir-PO (3rd generation)

36
Q

T/F?

Beta-lactams cover ATYPICALS?

A

False

-beta-lactams are cell-wall inhibitors and atypicals LACK a cell wall.

37
Q

All carbapenems cover psuedomonas except ______?

A

Ertapenem

- DOES NOT cover PEA and must be put in NS

38
Q

Carbapenem class effects?

A
  • ESBL producing organisms

- DO NOT COVER MRSA, VRE or Atypicals

39
Q

What are the 2 major aminoglycoside toxicities?
Traditional dosing?
Extended Interval dosing?
Trough goal?

A

Ototoxicity and Nephrotoxicity
Traditional: 1.5 to 5 mg/kg IV q8h
Extended interval: 4 to 7 mg/kg q24h
Trough goal: < 2 mcg/mL

40
Q

Quinolone Boxed Warnings and additional warnings?

A
  • Tendon rupture
  • Peripheral neuropathy
  • CNS effects (SEIZURES, paranoia, nightmares)
  • QT prolongation
  • HYPER/HYPO -glycemia
  • photosensitivity
  • AVOID in children < 8 years of age, prego, breastfeeding due to teeth discoloration and bone growth retardation
  • LAST LINE TX
41
Q

Name the respiratory quinolones?

A

My Good Lungs
M- Moxifloxacin
G- Gemfloxacin
L-Levofloxacin

42
Q

What do quinolones and Macrolides have in common when considering SE profiles?

A
QT prolongation
Cation interactions (avoid Fe, Mg, Ca, antacids)
43
Q

What 2 quinolones are anti-psuedomonal?

A

levofloxacin and ciprofloxacin

44
Q

Which macrolides are contraindicated with lovastatin and simvastatin?

A

Erythromyin

Clarithromycin

45
Q

What antibiotic is associated with G6PD deficiency and a positive COOMBS test?
What are indications of hemolytic anemia?

A

Bactrim

  • positive Coombs Test
  • decreasing hemoglobin/hematocrit
46
Q

If susceptibility results extended spectrum beta-lactamase positive, what drug classes should be considered? (2)

A

Carbapenems

Cephalosporins + Beta-lactamase inhibitors (Zerbaxa and Avycaz)

47
Q

What macrolide is commonly used to treat gonnorhea, chlamydia, traveler’s diarrhea and MAC?

A

Azithromax
Z-pak (250 mg)
Tri-pak (500 mg)

48
Q

Why is Vancomycin infusions limited to 1 gram over one hour?

A

Red Man Syndrome caused by rapid infusion

-S & S include: rash, pruitus, erythema and, less frequently, hypotension or angiodema

49
Q

What agent is indicated for the treatment of VRE E. faecalis?

A

Daptomycin (Cubicin)

50
Q

What agent covers VRE E. faecium?

A

Synercid (Quinupristin and Dalfopristin)

51
Q

T/F?

Linezolid covers VRE and MRSA.

A

True

52
Q

Drug of choice for Acinetobacter?

A

Merepenem

53
Q

What should be done if a Tobramycin levels are drawn and the peak is 8.4 mcg/mL and the trough is 2.4 mcg/mL?

A

ONLY extend dosing interval

54
Q

What tetracycline is associated with BLE in addition to class related counseling including sun sensitivity and must be taken apart from antacids?

A

MINOcycline