Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Boards > Infectious disease > Flashcards

Infectious disease Flashcards

1
Q

How to reduce surgical site infection

A

Evaluate for staph aureus nasal carriage 2 weeks before surgery and decolonize if positive (most surgical site infections are due to s. aureus). If positive, patients need preoperative decolonization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Preoperative antibiotic prophylaxis for surgical site infection

A
  • Cefazolin 1-2 hours before incision (unless MRSA nasal carriage, then vanc)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Coccidoidomycosis clinical features

A

similar to TB + peripheral eosinophilia + California

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Coccidoidomycosis treatment

A

fluconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Empiric CAP treatment in patient requiring ICU

A

Use agent active against legionella (macrolide or quinolone) instead of atypical coverage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

B-lactams

A

ampicillin-sulbactam
cefotaxime
ceftriaxone
ceftaroline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

pseudomonal RF’s

A

Health care interaction

Previous antibiotic use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Workup of fever of unknown origin

A 
(TB, bacteremia, HIV, abdominal infection)
CBC, CMP
3 blood culture sets
Urine culture
ESR
TB testing
HIV
CT abdomen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Criteria for Fever uf unknown origin

A

Fever of 100.9 or greater for 3 or more weeks undiagnosed after 2 visits in the ambulatory setting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Leptospirosis clinical features

A

Hawaii + uveitis + rash + sepsis + LAD + kidney injury + HSM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is acute retroviral syndrome?

A

Acute symptomatic illness when patients develop HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Management of complicated fulminant (severe) C diff infection

A

Oral vanc + IV flagyl (reduced absorption)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Severe c diff defined as

A

serum Cr >1.5 or WBC >15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

complicated fulminant c diff defined as

A

Complicated by ileus, hypotension, shock, or toxic megacolon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Post lyme disease syndrome clinical features

A

Persistent fatigue + headache + myalgia + arthralgia following lyme disease treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

hallmark of babesiosis

A

hemolytic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

presentation of late stage lyme disease

A

inflammatory arthritis involving larger joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

presentation of mycobacterium fortuitum

A

Chronic, non healing ulcers and wounds that don’t respond to antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

most common cause of pulmonary disease from NTM

A

MAC (mycobacterium avium complex)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Leprosy clinical features

A

chronic skin lesions + sensory loss in extremities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

PID features

A

lower abdominal pain + vaginal discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Outpatient/ED treatment of PID

A

Single dose of IM CTX + oral doxycycline for 14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Only indications for treating ASB

A

1) Pregnancy

2) medical clearance before an invasive urologic procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Postexposure prophylaxis and testing for person who has needle stick from HIV positive patient (components)

A
  • 3 drug regimen for 1 month
    Tenofovir + emtricitabine + either dolutegravir or raltegravir
  • test immediately, 4-6 weeks later, and 3 months after exposure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

management of acute, uncomplicated pyelo with transient bacteremia

A

Complete oral antibiotic course outpatient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

patient groups susceptible to giardia

A

1) Selective IgA deficiency

* **Preschool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Salmonella features

A

most common cause of foodborne illness + non bloody diarrhea + self-limited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Listeria clinical features

A

headache + fever + non bloody watery diarrhea + pain in muscles and joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How to test for possible Zika exposure

A

If exposure more than 2 weeks previously, test for IgM antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Most frequent manifestation of Zika in newborne

A

microcephaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Management of pregnant woman with proven zika

A

Serial US q3-4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is Ramsay Hunt syndrome + pathogen

A

Ear pain + vesicular rash in the external ear + ipsilateral peripheral facial palsy + deafness
(reactivation of herpes zoster in the geniculate ganglion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Problem with live attenuated zoster vaccine

A

Has 64% efficacy that decreases to 36% after 6 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Bell palsy clinical features

A

Isolated paralysis of the facial nerve + complete unilateral facial paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Cause of bell Palsy

A

HSV 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Features of Q fever pneumonia

A
  • exposure to livestock/farm animals (farmers, veterinarians, and abattoir workers)
  • mild pneumonia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Infection and clinical features associated with chlamydia psitacci infection

A
  • Psittacosis
  • PNA associated with abrupt onset of fever + HA + dry cough
  • inhalation of dried bird droppings
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Clinical features + reservoir of infection due to yersinia pestis

A
  • Pneumonic plague
  • rodent exposure
  • sudden high fever + pleuritic chest pain + productive cough + hemoptysis + (patients are very very sick)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Antibiotics for an infected cat bite

A

Unasyn + vanc IF RF’s for MRSA (pus forming) (infections are caused by both organisms from animals mouth flora and the host’s skin flora)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Ehrlichiosis infection clinical features

A

Febrile illness + leukopenia + thrombocytopenia + elevated liver enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Management of health care-associated ventriculitis (after neurosurgery)

A

Remove ventricular device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Treatment of disseminated histo

A

Liposomal amphotericin B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Signs of disseminated histo

A

Oral ulcerations + hepatosplenomegaly + pancytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

empyema diagnosis

A

thora with purulent or foul-smelling material OR a positive gram stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

organism causing most malaria

A

Plasmodium falciparum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

typhoid fever clinical features

A

Fever + diarrhea + transient small blanching skin lesions (rose spots)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

leptospirosis presentation

A

Fever + myalgias + HA + conjunctival suffusion (conjunctival injection without exudate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

When you should never use daptomycin

A

lung pathogens (binds to surfactant)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Initial management of new diagnosis of HIV

A
  • Viral load
  • Genotypic viral resistance testing
  • Start HAART as soon as patient is ready
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Most common causes of meningitis during different seasons

A 
Enterovirus = May-November
Winter = HSV-2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

CSF findings in viral meningitis

A

Normal glucose
Lymphocytic pleocytosis (High WBC’s in CSF)
Mildly elevated protein level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Management of patient testing positive for hep B surface antigen + negative for hep B surface antibody

A

Patient has had HBV infection and would have no benefit from immunization with HBV vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is neuroborreliosis

A

sequela of lyme disease due to CNS involvement (nuchal rigidity, headache, facial nerve involvement)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Management of lyme disease with CNS features

A

LP before treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Treatment of neuroborreliosis

A

parenteral therapy – CTX, cefotaxime or penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Management of anthrax exposure

A

IF no known direct exposure, no need to test or quarantine (don’t need to separate members of household)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Postexposure ppx for anthrax

A

ABX for 60 days (cipro, levo, or doxy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Prep administration and components

A

Tenofovir + emtricitabine once daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

PREP monitoring

A

need to check kidney function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Indications for amputation with diabetic foot infections

A
  • persistent sepsis
  • not tolerating antibiotics
  • progressive bone destruction despite therapy
  • bone destruction compromising mechanical integrity of the foot
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

management of patient with positive treponemal serology and negative nontreponemal test (RPR)

A

no treatment (this is successfully treated syphilis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

nontreponemal test

A

RPR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Leading cause of swimming pool-related outbreaks of diarrheal illness

A

cryptosporidium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

How to reduce central line associated infections

A
  • assess daily for continued necessity

- NO routine replacement of central lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Treatment of cyclospora infection

A

Oral bactrim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Management of HIV meds in pregnant woman

A

Continue same regimen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Hep A vaccination protocol

A

Single injection 2-4 weeks before travel to an endemic region (but single dose at any time before travel provides adequate protection)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

management of ESBL UTI

A

Carbapenems (even if culture suggests some sensitivity to zoey or other antibiotic, this is low sensitivity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

monitoring for daptomycin

A

Weekly creatinine + CK

should discontinue statin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Cause of kaposi sarcoma

A

HHV type 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Treatment for kaposi

A

ART
Local therapies (RT, intralesional chemo, cryotherapy, retinoids)
Chemo or INF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Treatment of MSSA osteoporosis associated with orthopedic hardware

A

IF hardware can’t be removed –> Rifampin (synergistic) + anti staphylococcal agent (cefazolin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

When to treat animal bites

A
  • immunosuppressed patients (cirrhotics, asplenia)
  • wound with edema
  • venous insufficiency
  • crush injury
  • wound involving joint or bone
  • deep puncture wound
  • face, genitalia, or hand involvement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Antibiotic used for multi-drug resistant intra-abdominal infection

A

Ceftolozane-tazobactam and colistine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Antibiotic used for UTI’s caused by multidrug-resistant organisms

A

Fosfomycin

76
Q

When to treat influenza with tamiflu

A

IF hospitalized or outpatient w/ severe or progressive illness –> as soon as possible regardless of illness duration
IF otherwise healthy –> only if started within 48 hours of symptom onset

77
Q

Board answer to additional study needed for urosepsis

A

kidney ultrasound or CT with contrast if Cr okay

78
Q

Test results in Acute HIV

A
  • Negative antibody differentiation immunoassay (prior to antibody development)
  • positive HIV-1 nucleic acid amplification test
79
Q

What is urethritis?

A

Dysuria + purulent discharge,

80
Q

Treatment of urethritis

A

Empiric ceftriaxone + azithromycin

81
Q

Prophylaxis for transplant patients

A

Bactrim
Posaconazole
*Acyclovir while neutropenic

82
Q

Why acyclovir is given for transplant patients during periods of neutropenia

A

Reduce reactivation of HSV

83
Q

Preferred agent for antibacterial prophylaxis during neutropenia and why

A

Cipro (active against most gram-negative bacteria)

84
Q

Treatment of TB meningitis

A

RIPE + dexamethasone (mortality benefit)

85
Q

Most common causes of chronic meningitis

A

TB and cryptococcus

86
Q

When to suspect TB meningitis

A
  • endemic country (eg mexico) **lymphocytic meningitis (high lymphocytes in CSF)
  • *cranial neuropathies + VERY low CSF glucose level
  • Acid-fast bacilli stains and cultures are insensitive and may take up to 6 weeks to grow
87
Q

Treatment for latent TB

A
  • INH + rifapentine once weekly for 3 months
  • 4 months of rifampin
  • 3 months of INH + rifampin daily
88
Q

treatment of gonorrhea

A

CTX + single dose of azithromycin (even if chlamydia negative due to growing resistance to CTX)

89
Q

Finding on blood stain with babesiosis

A

intraerythrocytic tetrad forms (maltese cross)

90
Q

Finding on blood stain with anaplasmosis and ehrlichiosis

A

Morulae (basophilic inclusion bodies)

91
Q

Examples of TMAS

A

HUS

TTP

92
Q

Oral antibiotics that can be used for osteo

A

Ciprofloxacin

  • Metronidazole
  • both have excellent bioavailability and will penetrate bone adequately
93
Q

Management of candidemia

A

Empiric treatment ASAP with echinocandin (anidulafungin, caspofungin, or micafungin) (high mortality rate)

  • deescalate to fluconazole if susceptible for 14 day course
  • receive CVC
94
Q

recommended duration of treatment for vertebral osteo

A

6 weeks

95
Q

Caveat about meningococcal vaccine

A

Quadrivalent vaccine doesn’t include serogroup B, which accounts for 40% of meningitis, so could still have meningitis despite being vaccinated

96
Q

Niesseria bacterial type

A

Gram-negative diplococci

97
Q

Treatment of proctitis in patient at risk for sexually transmitted infections

A

CTX + doxycycline (often due to chlamydia and gonorrhea, and HSV)

98
Q

Presentation of CMV

A

thrombocytopenia + organ-specific disease (CMV pneumonia, colitis, esophagitis, hepatitis)

99
Q

Empiric treatment of CMV

A

Ganciclovir

100
Q

How to determine risk of CMV in transplant patient

A

Serologic status of donor and recipient (high if donor or recipient are seropositive)

101
Q

CMV pneumonia on CXR

A

diffuse bilateral lung involvement

102
Q

Mortality/prognosis of CMV pneumonia

A

Poor prognosis, significant mortality

103
Q

Management of MRSA bacteremia when vanc resistant

A

daptomycin

104
Q

Management of patient with terminal complement deficiency

A

Meningococcal vaccination
Pneumococcal vaccination
Haemophilus influenza vaccine

105
Q

management of mild, non purulent cellulitis

A

Clindamycin
Penicillin
Cephalexin
Dicloxacillli

106
Q

organism in mild, non purulent cellulitis

A

streptococci

107
Q

Clinical features of chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)

A

Recurrent or severe infections with aspergillum, staph aureus, nocardia, serratia

108
Q

mycobacterium marinum clinical features

A

Granulomatous + skin infection (violaceous or erythematous papule or nodule that may ulcerate)

109
Q

When bactrim can be discontinued for PCP prophylaxis

A

CD4>200 for more than 3 months

110
Q

antibiotic duration for VAP

A

7 days

111
Q

Anti-NMDA receptor encephalitis presentation

A
  • Altered mood and behavior (psychosis) + seizures
  • teratoma
  • choreoathetosis
112
Q

First step with patient presenting with TB

A

Obtain sputum for AFB’s and culture BEFORE starting abx (need to perform susceptibility testing because resistance is increasing to isoniazid and rifampin)

113
Q

Treatment + duration for active TB

A

RIPE for 8 weeks, then continue INH and rifampin for 18 weeks

114
Q

Animals carrying nontyphoidal salmonella

A

Reptiles, amphibians

115
Q

Management of persistent staph aureus bacteremia

A

Eval for source control issue (endocarditis, osteo, intra-abdominal infection) –> TTE, CT abdomen

116
Q

Preferred antibiotic for MSSA

A

Cefazolin

117
Q

Management of aeromonos hydrophila

A
  • surgery

- gram negative abx (doxycycline + ciprofloxacin)

118
Q

When is bacterial transmission likely to occur with tick bites?

A

Only after 36 hours

119
Q

Management of smallpox exposure

A

Vaccinia immunization

120
Q

Next step for young patient with herpes zoster

A

Test for HIV

121
Q

Sporadic creutzfeldt-jakob disease clinical features

A

Rapid progression of apparent dementia + ataxia + myoclonus + MRI abnormalities

122
Q

CSF finding for creutzfeldt-jakob

A

14-3-3 T-tau protein

123
Q

IDSA recommended antibiotic course for uncomplicated CAP

A

5-7 days (assuming defervescence for 48h and not validated if pseudomonas or staph RF’s)

124
Q

Initial imaging for suspected osteo

A 
Plain radiography (low sensitivity but high specificity)
- Then MRI after if plain radiography negative
125
Q

Workup of osteo if MRI contraindicated

A

Contrast-enhanced CT

126
Q

Treatment of EHEC and why

A

Supportive (antibiotics will increase risk of HUS)

127
Q

HUS presentation

A

MAHA + thrombocytopenia + kidney injury + more common in kids than adults

128
Q

Prevalence of latent CMV in adults

A

60-90% (this is why disease reactivation is so common)

129
Q

Highest risk of CMV scenario in transplant recipient

A

seronegative recipient receives organ from seropositive donor

130
Q

CMV presentation

A

retinitis + pneumonitis + hepatitis + bone marrow suppression + colitis with bloody diarrhea + esophagitis + adrenalitis

131
Q

First-line agent for CMV

A

valganciclovir

132
Q

Evaluation of surgical site infection

A

Gram stain and culture of incision site drainage

133
Q

Treatment of choice for cryptococcal meningitis

A

Liposomal amphotericin B + flucytosine

134
Q

Treatment of oropharyngeal candidiasis + duration

A

Oral fluconazole (regardless of whether it extends into esophageus. If it does, need longer course (14-21 days)

135
Q

Presentation of acute kidney infarction

A

flank pain or generalize abdominal Pain = N/V + hematuria + often cardioembolic from AF + wedge shaped perfusion defect on CT

136
Q

Diagnosis of genital herpes

A

Nucleic acid amplification testing for HSV-1 and HSV-2

137
Q

Treatment of nec fasc due to group A strep

A

Combined penicillin + clindamycin after surgical debridement

138
Q

Toxic shock syndrome presentation

A

Hypotension + multiorgan involvement (kidney, liver, bone marrow (thrombocytopenia)).

139
Q

Mediterranean spotted fever presentation

A

Fever + myalgia + HA + maculopapular and petechial rash

***black eschar at site of inoculation

140
Q

Treatment of mediterranean spotted fever

A

7-10 day course of doxy

141
Q

Clinical features of post transplant lymphoproliferative disorder

A

transplant patient who a few years after develops fever + pancytopenia + generalized lymphadenopathy + HSM

142
Q

Pathogen in post transplant lymphoproliferative disorder

A

EBV

143
Q

RF’s for post transplant lymphoproliferative disorder

A
  • pre-existing EBV infection

- receiving sirolimus and tacrolimus compared to MMF and cyclosporine

144
Q

When to think about PTLD

A

fever + LAD or extra nodal mass

145
Q

PTLD treatment

A

Reduce immunosuppression
Rituximab (B-cell mediated)
Or other chemo

146
Q

Worst infection to complicate transplantation

A

CMV

147
Q

BK virus reactivation presentation

A

Gradual, asymptomatic increase in serum creatinine

148
Q

Treatment of purulent skin infection (abscess or furuncle) with systemic signs of infection

A

IF systemic signs of infection –> I&D + bactrim or doxy (MRSA coverage)
IF mild and no signs of systemic infection –> just I&D per IDSA but there is evidence for antibiotics

149
Q

What is a furuncle?

A

Purulent skin infection

150
Q

patients for whom TST of 5 mm or greater should be considered positive

A

HIV
Recent known contact with person with active TB
Transplant patients
Immunosuppressed (TNF alpha antagonist or greater than pred 15 mg daily)

151
Q

patients for whom TST of 10 mm or greater should be considered positive

A
  • Person from endemic country
  • IV drug user
  • Residents or employees of high risk congregate settings (prisons and jails, nursing homes, other long-term facilities, hospitals or clinics, shelters)
152
Q

latent TB treatment

A

INH + pyridoxine

153
Q

Management + treatment of recurrent cystitis in women

A
  • Urine culture (May be relapse or reinfection, most recurrences are reinfections (new bug))
  • Cipro + levo
154
Q

Definition of recurrent UTI

A

3 in past 12 months or 2 in past 6 months

155
Q

Treatment of mucormycosis

A

Liposomal amphotericin B

156
Q

Abx for purulent skin infection (MRSA coverage)

A

Doxy

Bactrim

157
Q

What is a furuncle?

A

Purulent skin infection

158
Q

MSSA management in setting of orthopedic hardware

A

cefazolin + rifampin (synergistic)

159
Q

Who needs to be quarantined from anthrax

A

Only people with direct exposure

160
Q

CMV prophylaxis during transplant

A

Valganciclovir

161
Q

When Cdiff typically occurs during transplant period

A

Early, first month

162
Q

When CMV infection typically occurs

A

“middle” period, 1-6 months after transplantation

163
Q

Presentation of Polyoma BK virus

A

Nephropathy + later than first month after transplantation

164
Q

Management of polyoma BK nephropathy

A

Reduce immunosuppression to minimum level necessary to avoid rejection

165
Q

First line treatment for pneumonic plague

A

Streptomcyin or gentamicin

166
Q

pneumonic plague clinical features

A
  • outbreaks among a group of people

- severe pneumonia with hemoptysis

167
Q

Gram staining + staining of pneumonic plague

A
  • gram-negative coccobacilli

- bipolar staining

168
Q

Management of suspected pseudomonas

A

Dual therapy – antipseudomonal B-lactam (zosyn, cefepime or meropenem) + quinolone or aminoglycoside

169
Q

When to suspect pseudomonas

A
  • immunocompromised patients

- underlying structural lung disease (bronchiectasis or CF)

170
Q

Preferred antibiotic for recurrent cystitis for which patient has received abx within the past 3 months OR in places where bactrim resistance rates are high

A
  • quinolone – cipro BID for 7 days (not first line due to SE’s + rising resistance)
171
Q

Preferred abx for cyclospora

A

bactrim

172
Q

Cyclospora clinical features

A
  • parasite typically acquired after consumption of fecal-contaminated food or water or fresh produce, particularly in developing world
  • crampy abdominal pain, anorexia, bloating, decreased appetite, fatigue, fever/malaise/nausea/diarrhea
173
Q

When it is safe to stop taking bactrim in HIV

A

CD4 count greater than 200 for more than 3 months

174
Q

Aminoglycoside contraindication

A

Kidney disease

175
Q

Post transplant lymphoproliferative disorder timeframe

A
  • years after transplant
176
Q

Indications for MRSA coverage with animal bites

A
  • MRSA RF’s in patient (previous MRSA infection or colonization)
  • local MRSA prevalence is high
  • pus forming
177
Q

Management of smallpox exposure

A
  • vaccinia immunization (even if immunocompromised, only don’t give if severely immunodeficient)
178
Q

Small pox vaccination

A
  • we don’t vaccinate kids against smallpox anymore because it’s been declared eradicated so most of the population is not immune
179
Q

Treatment of severe CDiff

A
  • oral vancomycin (same as nonsecure)
180
Q

Severe Cdiff vs. fulminant CDiff

A
  • Severe = AKI or white count greater than 15K

- Fulminant = complicated by ileum, hypotension, shock, or toxic megacolon

181
Q

Preferred treatment of candida esophagitis

A
  • fluconazole
    (not nystatin swish and spit)
    *Regardless of oral or esophageal involvement, esophageal just warrants a more prolonged treatment course (2 weeks rather than 1)
182
Q

Cause of Ramsay Hunt syndrome

A

Varicella-zoster

183
Q

Outpatient abx prophylaxis after HSCT and cell count recovery

A

Antifungal – Posaconazole (risk of invasive fungal infection remains elevated even after recovery of neutrophils for the first few months)
Bactrim
*Don’t need to continue acyclovir.

184
Q

Use of valganciclovir during HSCT

A

Prevent or treat CMV infection

185
Q

Why don’t we prophylax for CMV?

A
  • leukopenia is an SE of valganciclovir, so better to monitor for CMV and start therapy when indicated

Boards (39 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions