Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Boards > Infectious disease 3 > Flashcards

Infectious disease 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Clinical features of fusariosis

A
  • immunocompromised patient
  • inoculated from tap water or soil
  • skin nodules + pulmonary disease + persistent fever
  • mold
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Treatment of fusariosis

A

amphotericin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Diagnosis of anaplasmosis

A

serology + peripheral blood smear examination showing intraleukocytic morale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Specific features of anaplasmosis

A
  • leukopenia + high fever
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Ehrlichiosis vector + location

A
  • Lone star tick

- Southeast and south central US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Typhoid fever clinical features + lab features

A
  • high fevers + abdominal pain + characteristic erythematous macular rash (rose spots)
  • can have elevated LFTS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Lemierre’s disease other term

A

septic thrombophlebitis of the internal jugular vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Lemierre’s disease clinical features

A

patient with hx of recent pharyngitis + then develops sepsis + neck pain/swelling/persistent fever (infection may extend to lateral pharyngeal space or involve carotid sheath) + cavitary lung lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Typical cause of lemierre’s disease

A
  • anaerobic organism fusobacterium necrophorum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

imaging of pulmonary aspergillosis

A
  • nodules with or without cavitation + ground-glass infiltrates
  • *halo sign (“nodules surrounded by ground-glass infiltrates)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

other clinical feature of cdiff

A

right lower quadrant or lower quadrant abdominal pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How to reduce VAP risk

A
  • semi recumbent positioning
  • oral antiseptics
  • avoid PPIs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Necrotizing fasciitis clinical features

A
  • commonly after surgery in a diabetic or immunocompromised patient
  • *exquisite tenderness to palpation
  • crepitus
  • hemorrhagic blisters
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

First step in management of suspected nec fasc

A

surgery consult for debridement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Indication for PCP pox

A

CD4 greater than 200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Indication for toxo ppx

A

CD4 less than 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Initial therapy of neutropenic fever

A
  • anti-pseudomonal beta-lactam (cefepime OR zosyn)
  • Addition of vancomycin IF
  • Hemodynamic instability
  • severe sepsis
  • pneumonia
  • positive blood cultures for a gram-positive organism
  • suspected catheter-related infection
  • skin or soft-tissue infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Presentation of acute HIV

A
  • mono-like syndrome (fever, lymphadenopathy, sore throat, athralgias)
  • generalized macular rash
  • GI symptoms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Management of acute HIV

A
  • combination antiretroviral therapy
  • notify partner and consider secondary ppx
  • don’t wait until resistance and genotype testing is done because people are highly infectious and the regimen can be modified as needed after it comes back
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Treatment of leptospirosis

A

Doxy or penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Additional intervention needed after culture with streptococcus bovis

A

colonoscopy (anaerobe)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Additional intervention needed after culture with clostridium septicum

A

colonoscopy (anaerobe)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Additional intervention needed after culture with nontyphoidal salmonella

A

HIV test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Additional intervention needed after diagnosis of candidemia

A

ophthalmologic examination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

CMV esophagitis EGD + biopsy features

A

EGD: sharply demarcated, linear ulcers in distal one third of esophagus
Bx: intranuclear inclusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

HSV EGD features

A

EGD: well circumscribed shallow ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

CMV esophagitis treatment

A

IV ganciclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

legionella PNA clinical features

A
  • relative bradycardia (would expect higher for degree of fever)
  • no response to beta lactam abx or aminoglycoside abx **outbreaks in nursing homes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

legionella PNA treatment

A

ONLY quinolone or macrolides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

RMSF vs. ehrlichiosis

A
  • Ehrlichiosis = leukopenia + rash starting on trunk + southeeastern and south central US
    RMSF = rash starting on extremities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Centor criteria

A

tender anterior cervical LAD
*fever
tonsillar exudates
absence of cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Infectious mono vs. Group A strep

A

mono = younger patient, fatigue, splenomegaly, posterior LAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Epiglottitis clinical features

A
  • SEVERE sore throat (out of proportion to findings on exam) + dysphagia
  • may or may not have drooling and stridor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Work up of epiglottitis

A

IF stable (no stridor) – lateral neck x-ray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

treatment of epiglottitis

A

CTX + vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

disseminated gonorrhea presentation

A
  • asymmetric migratory joint pain

- pustular lesions

37
Q

cervicofacial actinomycosis clinical features

A
  • mandibular swelling + can form abscesses, fistulas, and sinus tracts
  • sulfur granules
38
Q

treatment of cervicofacial actinomycosis

A

IV penicillin initially then oral penicillin for 6-12 months

39
Q

Abx associated with a high risk of Cdiff

A
  • quinolones
  • clinda
  • cephalosporins
  • penicillins
40
Q

treatment of complicated cystitis

A

quinolones

41
Q

Problem with NAAT for chlamydia

A
  • high rate of false-positive results within 3 weeks of treatment so you shouldn’t retest within this time period (it’s amplifying the dead organism)
42
Q

Treatment of chlamydia in women

A

azithro OR doxycycline

43
Q

Follow up of PNA

A

1) **IF high risk characteristics (age over 50, smoking history) – follow up CXR 7-12 weeks after treatment is recommended to document resolution and exclude underlying malignancy
2) smoking cessation counseling
3) PNA vaccination

44
Q

Best way to reduce transmission of HSV between partners

A
  • chronic antiviral suppression therapy (transmission can occur with asymptomatic shedding and during prodromal phases)
45
Q

Schistosomiasis presentation

A

1) Urinary – hematuria, dysuria, frequent urination
2) Intestinal – diarrhea, abdominal pain
3) Hepatic – hepatomegaly, splenomegaly

46
Q

Nocardia clinical features

A
  • immunocompromised patients

- lung and brain abscesses

47
Q

treatment of nocardiosis

48
Q

Mycoplasma pneumonia isolation precaution order

49
Q

RSV isolation precaution order

50
Q

Heamophilus influenza isolation precaution order

51
Q

Measles isolation precaution order

52
Q

Medical term for genital warps from HPV

A

condyloma acuminata

53
Q

What are condyloma lata?

A

manifestation of secondary syphilis

54
Q

treatment of condyloma acuminata

A

topical therapy (trichloroacetic acid, podophyllotoxin)

55
Q

clostridium perfringens gastrointestinal illness clinical features

A
  • watery diarrhea + undercooked or unrefrigerated food
56
Q

antibiotics for meningococcemia

A

3rd generation cephalosporin (CTX or cefotaxime) + vancomycin (added for pneumococcal infection until final culture results are available

57
Q

what are the encapsulated organisms?

A
  • neisseria meningitidis
  • strep pneumo
  • h influenza
58
Q

Management of candida from respiratory culture

A
  • no anti fungal treatment (rarely indicates invasive candidiasis, typically just bronchial tree colonization), no need to repeat respiratory culture
59
Q

Treatment of histoplasmosis presenting as an asymptomatic nodule

A
  • no treatment (anti fungal therapy has no effect on nodule)
60
Q

histoplasmosis treatment

A

IF mild –> itraconazole

IF moderate or severe –> amphotericin

61
Q

Management of patient with partner testing positive for syphilis

A

Treat empirically with single dose of penicillin

62
Q

meaning of life

63
Q

Common lab abnormalities of dengue fever

A
  • leukopenia + thrombocytopeia
64
Q

Treatment of symptomatic zenker divertiuclum

65
Q

common cause of PNA in immunocompromised patients following prolonged hospitalization in early transplant period

A
  • nosocomial infection from VRE, pseudomonas, staph, candida

* pseudomonas commonly colonizes hospital equipment

66
Q

Yersinia pestis clinical features

A
  • swollen and painful lymph nodules (bubo)
  • high grade fever
  • rapid progression to sepsis with PNA, meningitis, shock
67
Q

Yersinia pestis (bubonic plague) treatment

A
  • tetracyclines or streptomycin
68
Q

Management of patient with exposure to bubonic plague patient

A

doxycycline

69
Q

Management of asymptomatic candiduria (candida in urine culture) in patient with chronic indwelling catheter

A
  • don’t treat, remove or exchange catheter
70
Q

gram-positive bacilli in CSF + treatment

A
  • listeria

- ampicillin or penicillin g

71
Q

strep pneumo microbiologic classification

A

gram positive cocci

72
Q

core features of fibromyalgia

A

diffuse MSK pain + tenderness on exam

73
Q

Clinical features of chancre of primary syphilis

A
  • recent intercourse
  • develops at inoculation site (*can also be mouth or pharynx, anus)
  • painless + indurated + nontender lymphadenopathy
74
Q

Clinical features of septic pulmonary emboli

A
  • multiple bilateral cavitary lesions

- typically due to right-sided infective endocarditis

75
Q

Clinical features of AIDS-related lymphomas

A
  • low Cd4 count + long standing HIV + class NHL presentation – B symptoms, extra nodal disease
  • AIDS-related lymphomas are common in advanced HIV
76
Q

Most common AIDS-related lymphomas

A

DLBCL and Burkitt lymphoma

77
Q

Time it takes for tic to be attached prior to borrelia transmission

78
Q

CD4 count at which patients are at increased risk of pneumocystis infection

A

CD4 less than 200

79
Q

Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS) clinical features

A
  • Patient diagnosed with HIV, started on HAART, then presents with infectious symptoms (due to unmasking of underlying infection)
80
Q

Management of IRIS

A
  • continue HAART

- Rule out underlying infection (sputum cultures, etc.)

81
Q

Intertrigo clinical features

A
  • erythematous plaques and erosions in skin folds of intertiginous areas (fungal infection)
82
Q

DRESS presentation

A
  • fever, generalized LAD, facial edema, diffuse morbilliform skin rash
83
Q

Chikungunya virus clinical features

A
  • fevers

- severe polyarthralgias

84
Q

Malaria clinical features

A
  • GI (vomiting, diarrhea) + anemia + thrombocytopenia + *cyclical fevers
85
Q

Treatment of latent syphilis

A
  • benzathine penicillin weekly x 3 weeks
86
Q

First line for neurosyphilis

A

Penicillin G IV x 10-14 days

*CTX is second line

87
Q

First line for tertiary syphilis

A

Penicillin G IM x 3 doses

88
Q

First line for primary and secondary syphilis

A

Penicillin G IM x 1 dose

89
Q

who needs prophylaxis for contacts of meningococcal disease

A
  • close contacts + healthier workers with prolonged duration or exposure to respiratory secretions
  • regardless of vaccination status

Boards (39 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions