Infectious disease Flashcards
1
Q
Rabies: type of virus?
A
Lyssavirus
2
Q
Main receptor for Rabies?
A
Nicotinic Ach receptor
3
Q
The incubation period for rabies?
A
1-2 but up to 6 mo
4
Q
Protocol for biter dog (rabies suspect)
A
10 day quarantine
5
Q
What are the factors that make rabies more likely after a bite? (4)
A
- lapsed vaccine
- young dog only 1 vaccine
- no wound care after bite
-severe exposure
6
Q
Parvovirus should be decontaminated with what disinfectant?
A
0.75 % hypochlorite/ potassium peroxmonosulfate
7
Q
Parvovirus can only divide in what kind of cells?
A
Mitotically active (GI, BM, LN)
8
Q
Myocarditis from parvovirus is possible under what conditions?
A
in utero exposure, infection in first 2 weeks of life
9
Q
Specificity of fecal Ag ELISA for parvirus?
A
100%
10
Q
Distemper is what kind of virus?
A
Morbillivirus
11
Q
Cause for parvovirus ELISA false negative? (2)
A
The virus is intermittently shed in feces, Ag/Ab complexes
12
Q
How is distemper transmitted?
A
Shed in secretions, Aerosol or direct contact
13
Q
Dermatologic signs of distemper?
A
hyperkeratosis paw pads and nose
14
Q
Dental lesion distemper?
A
enamel and dentin hypoplasia
15
Q
bone lesions of distemper?
A
metaphyseal lesions (young dogs)
16
Q
Ocular lesion distemper ?
A
KCS, optic neuritis
17
Q
Diagnosis of Distemper?
A
CDV inclusions cytology/histopathology
PCR
AG ELISA
18
Q
Canine herpes gross pathology lesion on necropsy?
A
multifocal petechia on kidneys
19
Q
Canine herpes clinical signs?
A
Abortion, death in young puppies
20
Q
Most common flu variant (canine)
A
H5N8
21
Q
Bird flu variant that can be passed to dogs and cats
A
H5N1
22
Q
Canine infectious hepatitis etiology?
A
Canine adenovirus -1
23
Q
Transmission of Canine infectious hepatitis?
A
Direct contact with urine, feces, or saliva
24
Q
Vaccine for Canine infectious hepatitis?
A
CAV-2 because CAV-1 causes corneal edema
25
Pathophysiology of Canine infectious hepatitis?
replicates in tonsils --> Kupfer cells --> hepatocytes
26
Renal secondary issue with Canine infectious hepatitis?
Glomerulonephritis
27
Two possible consequences of in-utero infection with feline panleukopenia?
Cerebellar hypoplasia
Hydrocephalus
28
Negative prognostic indicators of feline panleukopenia viral infection? (4)
-leukopenia
-thrombocytopenia
-hypoalbuminemia
-hypokalemia
29
Pathophysiology of FIP infection?
Infection with low-path feline coronavirus (fecal/oral/oronasal) --> mild enteric or no clinical signs --> mutation within macrophages --> systemic pyogranulomatous vasculitis
30
Dry FIP caused by -------- immune response?
Cell medicated
31
Expected lesions dry FIP?
Pyogranoulmatous lesions LN, liver, kidney, lung, brain, GI, eye, ICJ
32
Wet FIP caused by -------- immune response?
humoral
33
FIP leads to depletion of ------?
CD 4 and CD 8 lymphocytes
34
Gold standard for FIP diagnosis?
Histopath IHC of pyogranulomatous lesion
35
What are the expected protein and cell content of FIP effusion?
>3.5 mg/dL protein
Low cellularity
36
What is a Rivalta test? how is one done?
differentiates transudates and exudate 1 drop 98% acetic acid, 7-8 mL DI H2O, then drop of effusion is added on top
-Positive - effusion does not dissipate
-negative - effusion dose dissipate
37
Postive Rivalta indicated --- % cat has FIP
Negative Rivalta indicates ----% cat does not have FIP
58%
93%
38
MOA GS-441524 for FIP
nucleoside analog
39
MOA Paxlovid
viral protease inhibitor
40
FIV enters T lymphocytes, B lymphocytes, and macrophages via ---- and -----?
CD 134 and CXCR4
41
FIV increases the risk of lymphoma ---- x times?
5-6
42
Main cell target of FIV?
CD4+ lymphocytes
43
Transmission of FIV? (2)
saliva - cat bites
transplacentally
44
Possible manifestation of the terminal phase of FIV? (5)
-Opportunistic infections
-Neoplasia
-Myelosuppression
-Severe periodontal disease
-Neurologic signs
45
gold standard for FIV diagnosis
Western blot
46
Reasons why FIV serology may be false positive? (2)
<6 mo old (maternal Ab)
previous vaccination
47
Reasons for FIV false negative? (3)
-exposure <60 days ago
- terminal disease, Ab production has fallen
- terminal disease, AB-AG complex
48
Most commonly transmitted form of FeLV?
A
49
Common sequela associated with FeLV B?
Lymphoma
50
Common sequela associated with FeLV C?
anemia (red cell aplasia )
51
Transmission of FeLV?
licking, grooming, shared dishes, bites, milk, blood transfusion
52
4 outcomes of FeLV infection
Abortive
Focal
Regressive
Progressive
53
Risk of lymphoma increases --- x with FeLV
60
54
Diagnosis of FeLV?
Ag ELISA then confirm with IFA blood or bone marrow
55
Where can feline herpes remain latent?
trigeminal ganglia
56
Famciclovir, acyclovir MOA
inhibit viral DNA polymerase
57
Ehrlichia canis infects what type of cell?
Monocytes
58
Ehrlichia ewingii infects what type of cell?
Granulocytes
59
Vector for Ehrlichia canis?
Rhipicephalus sanguineus (brown dog tick)
60
Vector for Ehrlichia ewingii?
Amblyomma americanum (lone star tick)
61
Etiology of canine cyclic thrombocytopenia?
Anaplama platys
62
Vector for anaplasma phagocytophilum?
Ixodes tick
63
Vector for anaplasma platys?
Rhipicephalus sanguineus (brown dog tick)
64
Vector for Rickettsia rickettsii?
Dermacentor ticks
65
Rickettsia rickettsii pathogenesis?
Lymph -->blood --> capillaries --> endothelial damage --> vasculitis
66
Which tick-borne illness is associated with causing SIADH
RMSF
67
The causative agent of salmon poisoning?
Vector?
IH for vector?
- Agent: Neorickettsia helminthoeca
-Vector: parasitic flatworm, Nanophyetus
-IH: Oxytrema snail
68
Diagnosis of salmon poisoning?
Fecal for trematode egg
Organisms in LN aspirates
69
Two forms of chlamydia?
EB - outside cell, infectious
RB inside cell non-infectious
70
Transmission of hemotropic mycoplasma cats?
fleas
71
Transmission of hemotropic mycoplasma dogs?
Rhipicephalus sanguineus (brown dog tick)
72
The causative agent of Q- fever?
Coxiella burnetti
73
Antibiotic resistance gene in staph causing methicillin resistance?
MecA
74
L- form bacteria lack what?
cell wall
75
Loss of cell wall leads to resistance to what class of abx?
B- lactams
76
Diagnosis of non-hemotropic mycoplasma
PCR
77
Gross and /or microscopic feature of actinomyces?
sulfur granules
78
DDX for pyogranulomatous cytology with filamentous rods? (3)
Actinomyces, Nocardia, corynebacterium
79
Etiology Boxer colitis?
AIEC (adherent- invasive E. coli)
80
Leptospirosis seovars in vaccine?
Canicola, Icterohaemorrhagiae, Grippotyphosa, and Pomona
81
Leptospirosis causes acute oliguric renal failure with paradoxical ----- ?
hypokalemia
82
Gold standard Leptospirosis test?
MAT Microscopic Agglutination Test which detects antibodies
83
incubation of leptospirosis
7 days
84
Vector for Lyme?
Ixodes ticks
85
----% of dogs with Lyme have clinical signs
10%
86
Diagnosis for Lyme
Screen with ELISA then confirm with gold standard Western blot
87
Benefits of c6 ELISA for Lyme (2)
vaccination status will not impact the results
positive 3-5 weeks post-infection (when clinical signs happen)
88
____ immunity is most important for clearance of lyme disease?
humoral
89
Diagnosis of Burcella canis?
rapid slide agglutination test (RSAT) --> follow with AGID (Agar Gel Immunodiffusion) since false positives are common
90
What is the botulism toxin in dogs
Botulism toxin C
91
MOA botulism toxin ?
inhibits release of Ach a NMJ --> flaccid paralysis
92
signs of botulism start---- hours post exposure?
12-72 hours
93
DDX for flaccid paralysis that are not botulism? (2)
Myasthenia gravis, polyradiculoneuritis
94
Most important tetanus toxin?
tetanospasmin
95
MOA tetanospasmin ?
binds to presynaptic terminal of inhibitory interneurons --> no GABA or glycine release --> spastic paralysis
96
two infectious zoonotic ddx for febrile lymphadenopathy cats?
Yersinia and Tularemia
97
Transmission of ringworm (dermatophytosis) ? (2)
-Close Contact
-Fomites
98
Incubation ringworm (dermatophytosis) ?
3-6 weeks
99
Environmental decontamination for ringworm (dermatophytosis) ?
1:10 bleach
100
Gold standard for ringworm (dermatophytosis) diagnosis?
Culture hair on DMT
101
Besides culture, other was to diagnose ringworm? (2)
-woods lamp
-skin scrape
102
most common ringworm organism in dogs and cats?
Microsporum gypsum
103
Tx of ringworm (dermatophytosis) ?
self limming ~3mo, Lime sulfer dip 2x/ week and systemic antifungal (azole) if needed
104
Tx for Malassezia?
topical azoles
105
Route of infection blastomycosis?
Inhale spore
106
Blastomycosis spores adhere to what cell? with what molecule?
Macrophages
BAD-1
107
Organs that may be affected with blastomycosis
TBELLS
testicle, bone, eye, LN, lung, skin
108
Cytology apperance blastomycosis?
Big, broad budding, thick capsule
109
Dx for blastomycosis (besides cytology)?
Urine Ag
Cross reacts with histo
110
Tx blastomycosis ?
Itraconazole, long term
111
prognosis blastomycosis ?
Cure in 50-70%
20% dogs relapse
112
Negative prognostic factors blastomycosis ? (3)
-CNS involvement
-high bands
-severe lung disease
113
Histoplasmosis more common in cats or dogs?
cats
114
Histoplasmosis route of infection ?
inhale spores
115
Histoplasmosis dx (besides cytology)?
Urine Ag
116
TX Histoplasmosis?
Itraconazole
117
Cryptococcus stain for CSF to make the capsule stand out ?
India ink
118
Cryptococcus dx ?
latex agglutination polysacchride capsule Ag
(or cytology, culture, histopath)
119
Cryptococcus tx?
Fluconazole
120
Coccidiomycosis route of infection
Inhale spores
121
Cryptococcus are phagocytized and replicate in what cell?
alveolar macrophages
122
Dx Cryptococcus (besides cytology) ?
Serology
123
Cryptococcus tx?
Fluconazole
124
Cryptococcus negative prognostic indicator?
CNS involvement
125
Sporothticosis route of infection?
Inhale or puncture
126
Sporothticosis is shaped like what on cytology?
Cigar
127
Sporothticosis tx?
Itraconazole
128
Aspergillosis route of infection?
Inhale spores
129
local Aspergillosis tx ?
debride + flush, clotrimazole
130
systemic Aspergillosis tx?
Itraconazole (resistant to fluconazole)
131
difference for Aspergillosis tx cats?
they need systemic tx
132
Stain for Aspergillosis cytology?
Wright's stain
133
Places disseminated Aspergillosis goes? (6)
lung, renal pelvis, spleen, ln, bone, brain
134
DDX for nose fungus (not Aspergillosis or Cryptococcus)
Rhinosporidiosis
135
Most common Candida spp dog and cat
Candida albicans
136
Body systems most likey to be affected by pythium?
skin
GI
137
Areas of skin affected by pythium ?
tail base, extremities, ventral neck periueum
138
Pythium dx ? (3)
Cytology
ELISA
Methamine silver stain
139
DDX for disease that look like pythium (2)
Lagenidiosis
Zygomycosis
140
Tx pythium ?
- Sx
- Itraconazole and terbinafine
141
Cause for pneumonia in young dachshunds and Cavies?
Pnemocytosis
142
Pneumocytosis adheres to and replicates in what cells?
alveolar epithelial cells
143
Tx Pneumocytosis ?
TMS
144
Time it takes for toxoplasma oocysts to sporulate in the environment
1-5 days
145
Transmission of Toxoplasmosis in cats ? (3)
Ingestion
transmammary
transplacental
146
Form of toxoplasmosis ingested by cat?
Bradyzoite
147
Form of toxoplasmosis that replicates in feline epithelial cells?
Merozoite
148
Clinical signs of toxoplasmosis in cats?
Rarely clinical
Pancreatitis
uveitis
Weight loss
Fever
149
Clinical signs of toxoplasmosis in dogs?
Resp sings, GI signs, neuromuscular signs
150
An organism that looks like toxoplasmosis on cytology?
Neospora
151
What is the difference between IgM and IgG serology for toxoplasma?
IgM - more predictive of clinical toxo
IgG- present up to 6 years post-infection
152
Tx toxoplasma?
Clindamycin or TMS
153
Locations that are negative prognostic indicators for toxoplasma infections (3)
CNS, liver, lungs
154
Neospora caninum can cause ----- in both cows and dogs
abortion
155
Neospora caninum manifestation in puppies (vertical transmission)?
4-6 week old
Ataxia, paralysis
Poor prognosis
156
Neospora caninum manifestation in adult dogs (horizontal transmission)
polymyositis
meningoencephalitis
nodular dermatitis
157
Specific area of the brain sensitive to Neospora caninum infection?
Cerebellum
158
Dx Neospora caninum ?
IgG and IgM ELISA
PCR
159
Neospora caninum Tx?
clindamycin 8 weeks
160
Transmission of leishmania?
Sandflies (phlebotomus, lytzimgia)
vertical
Venereal
161
The breed that is effected by North American Leishmania
Fox hounds
162
Leishmania stage transmitted by flies?
promastigote
163
Leishmania stage in macrophages?
amastigote
164
two clinical manifestations of Leishmania?
Cutaneous
Visceral
165
Tx of Leishmania?
Allopurinol and meglumine
166
Vector for cytauxzoon?
Lone star tick (Amblyomma americanum) and American dog tick (Dermacentor)
167
cytauxzoon illness occours durring caused by --- infection?
schizogenous
168
cytauxzoon ------- are in mononuclear cells which rupture releasing ----- which are endocytosed by RBCs and are now called -------
-Shizogeny
-merozoites
-piroplasm
169
Pathophysiology of cytauxzoon infection?
distended mononuclear cells block capillaries in lungs, liver, spleen, lns, and cause hypoxia nd cytokine release --> SIRS, MODS, ARDS, DIC
Piroplasm in RBC causes hemolysis
170
Dx cytauxzoon?
- blood smear, piroplasm in RBC, organisms in mononuclear cells
171
Clinical signs of cytauxzoon?
fever, icterus, pallor, hepatosplenomegaly, cytopenias
172
Tx cytauxzoon?
Atavaquone + azythromycin
173
Prognosis for cytauxzoon
60% survive
174
H. Canis transmission?
EAT tick
175
Vector for H. americanum ?
Gulf coast tick (Amblyomma maculatum)
176
H. Americanum pathology finding
Onion skin cyst in muscle
177
Vector for Trypanosomiasis (Chagas)
Kissing bug
178
Trypanosomiasis pathophysiology?
Trypomastigote uptaken by macrophage --> amastigote --> travel around body --> trypomastigote in cardiac myocyte --> myocarditis /DCM
179
Trypanosomiasis dx?
Blood smear to see organisms in acute infection
Serology
180
B. Canis vector
Brown dog tick (Rhipicephalus sanguineus)
181
Giardia transmission
Fecal oral or ingestion of prey
182
Giardia pathophysiology?
cyst is ingested and broken down in acid pH of stomach --> release trophozoite --> invade GI epithelium --> blunting of villi, increased Cl- secretion --> secretory/malabsorptive diarrhea
183
Dx giardia?
Fecal float Zn sulfide
ELISA
184
Tx Giardia
Fenbendazole, metronidazole
185
Trichomoniasis transmission
fecal oral
186
Trichomoniasis clinical signs
large bowel diarrhea
187
Trichomoniasis tx
Ronidazole
188
Trichomoniasis gold standard dx
culture
189
Cytologic difference between Giardia and Trichomoniasis?
Giardia is binucleate
Trichomoniasis has 1 nucleus
190
who is the esophageal worm
Spirocera lupi
191
Tx Spirocera lupi
ivermectin + prednisone
192
Spirocera lupi transmission
eat a IH (bug) or paratenic host (chicken/rodent)
193
Who is the stomach worm?
Physoloptera
194
Physoloptera transmission
eat a IH (bug) or paratenic host (mice/frog)
195
Who is the hookworm
Ancyclostoma caninum
196
Hook worm clinical signs
anemia, melena hemorrhagic enteritis
197
tape worm transmitted by fleas
Diplidium caninum
198
tape worm transmitted by eating prey
Taenia
199
Tx for tape worms?
PZQ
200
Who is the whip worm?
Tricuris vulpis
201
Who causes schistosomiasis?
heterobilharzia americana
202
Heterobilharzia americana is native to where?
Gulf coast
203
Treatment for schistosomiasis?
PZQ + fenbendazole
204
Who is the feline liver fluke?
Platynosomum concinnum
205
Transmission of Platynosomum concinnum?
eating a tertiary host (frog or lizard)
206
Pathophysiology of Platynosomum concinnum?
biliary obstruction
207
Who is the feline pancreatic fluke?
Eutrema procyonosis
208
Treatment for feline liver fluke and feline pancreatic fluke?
PZQ
209
What anatomic site is Capillaria aerophilia found in a dog?
Trachea, bronchi, or frontal sinus
210
Who is the canine tracheal worm?
Oleris osleri
211
Ddx for lungworms in a young dog? (2)
Toxocara and Anclostoma
212
Who is the feline lungworm?
Aelurostrongylus abstrusus
213
Treatment for any of the airway worms/flukes?
fenbendazole
214
Who is the canine lung fluke?
Paragonimus kellicotti
215
Who is the french heartworm ?
Angiostrongylus vasorum
216
Signs of french heart worm ? (2)
Cough, consumptive coagulopathy
217
Dx the french heartworm?
BAL or fecal sediment
218
What stage of heartworm infects dogs?
L3
219
Time from infection to adult heartworm?
6-9 months
220
Pulmonary sequella to HWD in dogs? (2)
-eosinophilic pneumonitis
-PTE
221
Renal sequelae to HWD? (2)
-Glomerulonephritis
-Proteinuria
222
Cardiac sequellea to HWD? (3)
-PH
-R-CHF
-Caval syndrome
223
Screening test for HW?
Ag ELISA
224
reasons for false negative HW ELISA? (3)
Male worms only
early infection (<6 mo)
Low worm burden
225
Test to ID microfilaria?
Knott's test
226
Drug for HW prophylaxis?
Macrocyclic lactone
227
Tx for HWD?
monthly macrocyclic lactone
1-month doxycycline
1-month tapering pred if symptomatic and/or following each melarsomine
melarsomine day 60, 90, 91
Exercise restriction
228
---% of dogs will have PTE with HW tx?
30%
229
"Tx" for HDW cats?
Pred and doxycyline
230
MOA for Azoles ?
inhibit sterol 14a-demethylase needed to make ergosterol for cell membrane
231
Azoles: fungistatic or fungicidal ?
fungistatic - need prolonged tx
232
Azoles upregulate ---?
CYP450
233
Mechanism resistance to azoles? (2)
-drug efflux
-upregulation of demethylase
*cross-resistance not always present
234
Main side effect of Azoles ?
hepatotoxicity
235
Azoles with good CNS penetration?
Fluconazole
Vorconazole
236
Itraconazole and fluconazole have better oral bioavailability with ------ and worse bioavailability with ----?
- food
-antacids
237
Amphotericin B MOA ?
Bind ergosterol and create perforation in cell membrane
238
Amphotericin B: fungistatic or fungicidal ?
- Fungistatic low dose
- Fungicidal high dose
239
Main side effect Amphotericin B?
nephrotoxic (+ GI + fever)
240
5-flucytosine has severe cutaneous toxicity in what sp?
Dogs
241
5-flucytosine is only effective against ----- and ------
Candidia and Cryptococcus
242
Side effect of 5-flucytosine? (2)
GI and myelosuppression
243
MOA 5-flucytosine
antimetabolite
244
Griseofulvin MOA?
Anti-tubulin
245
Griseofulvin side effect?
Myelosuppression *Don't use in FIV+ cats*
246
Terbinafine MOA
Inhibits fungal squalene epoxidase --> stop synthesis of ergosterol and toxic build-up of squalene
247
Echincadins MOA
inhibits B-1,3-D-glucans in fungal wall
248
Ronidizole MOA
ROS generation
249
Allopurinol MOA
inhibits Xanthine oxidase --> inhibit purine synthesis
250
Imidicarb MOA
Interferes with DNA synthesis
251
Atovaquone and Decoquinate MOA
damages electron transport chain
252
Pyrantel MOA
Ach release, cholinesterase inhibition --> spastic paralysis
253
Fenbendazole MOA
Antitubulin
254
Piperazine MOA
binds GABA receptors --> flaccid paralysis
255
PZQ MOA
Increases worm permiability
256
Moxidectin + ivermectin MOA
hyperpolarization binds GABA receptors --> flaccid paralysis
257
Beta lactams MOA
Inhibit transpeptidase from crosslinking of cell wall
258
Beta lactams spectrum
Broad, variable gram - coverage
259
Beta lactams bactericidal or bacteriostatic
Bacteriacidal
260
Beta lactams time or conc dependent
Time
261
Beta lactams resistance (3)
-reduced binding affinity (MecA gene)
- decreased porins
-efflux pumps
262
MOA of clavulanic acid and sulbactam ?
inhibit beta-lactamase
263
Aminoglycoside MOA
translation inhibitor, inhibit 30s ribosomal subunit
264
Aminoglycoside bactericidal or bacteriostatic
bactericidal
265
Aminoglycoside time or conc dependent
conc
266
Aminoglycosides are inactivated by ---- environments
acidic
267
Aminoglycoside spectrum
Gram-negative and staph
268
Aminoglycoside toxicity
nephrotoxic, ototoxic
269
Chloramphenicol MOA
translation inhibitor (inhibits peptide bond formation
270
Chloramphenicol bactericidal or bacteriostatic
bacteriostatic
271
Chloramphenicol time or conc dependent
time
272
Chloramphenicol spectrum
Broad
273
Chloramphenicol toxicity
aplastic anemia in humans
pancytopenia in cats (rare)
274
Tetracyclines MOA
Translation inhibitor, blocks tRNA
275
Tetracyclines bactericidal or bacteriostatic
bacteriostatic
276
Tetracyclines time or conc dependant
time
277
Tetracyclines spectrum
Broad
278
Tetracyclines tissue pentration
good
279
Tetracyclines toxicity
tooth discoloration in young animals
rare nephro and hepatotoxicity
280
Tetracyclines cross resistance or no?
yes
281
Macrolides MOA
translation inhibitor
282
Macrolides time or conc dependent
time
283
Clindamycin MOA
translation inhibitor
284
Clindamycin time or conc dependent
time
285
Clindamycin spectrum
Gram + and anerobes
286
rifampin MOA
transcription inhibitor
287
rifampin bactericidal or bacteriostatic
bactericidal
288
Clindamycin bactericidal or bacteriostatic
bacteriostatic
289
Sulfonamides MOA
block folate synthesis (competes with PABA)
290
Sulfonamides bactericidal or bacteriostatic
bactericidal
291
Sulfonamides time or conc dependent
time
292
Sulfonamides tissue penetration
really good expect pus
293
Sulfonamides spectrum
Broad
294
Sulfonamides toxicity
KCS, allergy, immune mediate dz
295
Rifampin spectrum
gram + and intracellular
296
Rifampin toxicity
hepatotoxic
297
Fluoroquinolones MOA
inhibit DNA gyrase or Topo 4
298
Fluoroquinolones bactericidal or bacteriostatic
bactericidal
299
Fluoroquinolones spectum
Gram-negative, staph, AEROBES only
300
Fluoroquinolones time or conc dependent
conc dependent
301
Fluoroquinolone toxicity in young animals
arthropathy
302
Enrofloxcain toxicity in cats
retinal degeneration
303
Metronidazole MOA
DNA strand break
304
Metronidazole time or conc dependent
conc
305
Metronidazole spectum
anerobes
306
