Heme/immuno Flashcards
1
Q
Two hereditary causes of thrombocytopenia?
A
- Congenital macrothrombocytopenia
- May-Hegglin Anomaly
2
Q
Cause of recurrent neutropenia and breed association?
A
cyclic hematopoiesis, Grey Collie
3
Q
Hereditary cause of persistent neutropenia and breed association?
A
Trapper neutrophil syndrome, Border Collie
4
Q
Almost 100% of dogs are positive for which RBC Ag?
A
Dal
5
Q
What is the most antigenic blood group in dogs?
A
DEA 1.1
6
Q
Dogs or cats have more naturally occurring anti-blood Ag antibodies?
A
Cats
7
Q
Most cats in US are what blood type?
A
A
8
Q
Cat blood type that will have the most severe reaction if given unmatched blood?
A
Type B cats
9
Q
Examples of B blood type cat breeds?
A
Himalayan, Abasynnian, British short hair, Persian, Devon Rex (and others)
10
Q
Cat blood type whose kittens are most at risk for neonatal isoerythrolysis?
A
B queen with A or AB kittens
11
Q
Siamese cats have what blood type ?
A
A
12
Q
An acute hemolytic transfusion reaction is what type of hypersensitivity?
A
Type II
13
Q
What is major cross match ?
A
Recipient serum, donor RBC
14
Q
What is minor cross match?
A
Donor serum, recipient RBC
15
Q
What is auto control when cross matching ?
A
Recipient serum, recipient RBC
16
Q
What would be worse: giving incompatible major cross match or incompatible minor cross match?
A
Giving incompatible major cross match would be worse
17
Q
Blood products indicated in severe acute hemorrhage
A
pRBCs or whole blood
18
Q
Indication for giving albumin
A
colloidal volume expansion
19
Q
Indication for giving pooled adult serum ?
A
FPT
20
Q
Indication for giving cryosupernatant?
A
nephrotic syndrome (enriched in antithrombin and albumin)
21
Q
Blood product specifically indicated for hemophilia A and vWD?
A
cryoprecipitate
22
Q
What would you expect EPO to be in a patient with polycythemia vera?
A
Low
23
Q
Mutation associated with polycythemia vera?
A
Jak-2
24
Q
Caused for appropriate secondary polycythemia?
A
hypoxemia
-respiratory disease
-high altitude
-R to L shunt
25
Endogenous hormones that induce EPO/RBC production? (3)
-TSH/thyroxine
-glucocorticoids
- growth hormone
26
Two major sequellae to polycythemia vera
Hyperviscosity
Hypervolemia
27
Treatment for polycythemia vera? (2)
-phlebotomy
-hydroxyurea
28
Electrolyte change that can cause hemolytic anemia?
Hypophosphatemia
29
Toxins that can cause oxidative RBC damage resulting in hemolytic anemia? (4)
-Onion/garlic
-Acetaminophen (cats)
-Zinc
-Methylene blue
30
Major cause of hemolytic uremic syndrome causing RBC fragmentation?
Shiga toxin
31
Hereditary cause of non-immune mediated hemolytic anemia ?(3)
- PK deficiency
-PFK deficiency
-Somatocytosis
32
Breed associated with PK deficnecy
Basenji
33
RBC lifespan dog?
100 d
34
RBC lifespan cat?
72 days
35
~10 % of EPO is created in what organ?
liver
36
TIBC is a measure of what molecule ?
Transferrin
37
Ferritin is a ---- acute phase protein
Transferritin is a --- acute phase protein
-positive
- negative
38
Test for monitoring heparin treatment?
PTT
39
Vikimin K dependent coagulation factors?
2, 7, 9, 10
40
Breed with a naturally lower PTL count?
Greyhounds
41
True or false: patients with congenital macrothrombocytopenia experience more clinical bleeding?
FALSE
42
Most common type of vWD
Type 1
43
Most severe form of vWD?
type 3
44
Screening test for vWD
BMNT
45
PLT function test?
PLT aggregation (PFA-100)
46
Drugs that effect PLT function? (2)
Asprin
Clpidegrel
47
PT tests what pathways?
Extrinsic + common
48
PTT tests what pathways?
Intrinsic and common
49
ACT tests what pathways?
Intrinsic and common
50
Coagulation factor with shortest t1/2
7
51
Test for anticoagulant rodenticide
PT
52
of ACT, PT and PTT, who can be affected by sever thrombocytopenia?
ACT
53
Which test is more specific for DIC D-dimers or FDP
D-dimers
54
Coagulation test that can detect hyper- and hypo- coagulability
TEG
55
extrinsic pathway
3 (tf), 7
56
intrinsic pathway
12, 11, 9, 8
57
common pathway
10, 5, 2, 1
58
Hemophilia A is definitely in fact factor
8
59
Hemophilia B is a defincency in factor ----
9
60
Cats may be aclincal and deficient in what factor
12
61
Interleukin that promotes the growth of all committed stem cells?
IL-3
62
progenitor for all blood cells
multipotential hematopoietic stem cell
63
What is the first RBC progenitor to have hemoglobin?
Polychromatophil erythroblast
64
Why are reticulocytes basophilic?
Left over organelles
65
How long for RBCs to mature ?
~5 d
66
two nutrients needed for RBC production
Floate and B12
67
name of anemia caused by B12 deficiency?
Pernicious anemia
68
Cells and factor needed for B12 absorption
-parietal cells
-intrinsic factor
69
RBC morphology change with B12 or folate deficiency
macrocytosis
70
Promyelocytes differentiae into what cell lines
Basophil, eosinophil, neutrophil, PLT
71
1st acitve immune cell in the innate immune system
Tissue macrophages
72
2nd active immune cell in the innate immune system
neutrophils
73
What cells can activate naive T helper cells
DCs only
74
Foreign Ag is presented via what molecule
MHC II
75
Properties of a good Ag?
large, complex, stable
76
Interleukin important in Shar pei fever
IL 6
77
cytokine important for response to viral infections
INF a+b
-prevents viral replication, upregulates MHC I, upregulates NK cells
78
Major anti-inflammatory cytokine that cause M2 polarization and sequestration of chemokines
IL-10
79
Cytokine that causes appetite suppression at low concentrations and leads to shock in high concentrations
TNF alpha
80
Endogenous pyrogens (3)
IL-1, IL-6, TNF alpha
81
Exogenous pyrogen
LPS
82
HS type responsible for allergy/atopy
type 1 HS
83
Immunoglobulin involved in type 1 HS reactions
IgE
84
Immunoglobulin(s) involved in type 2 HS reactions
IgG and IgM
85
What is a type 2 HS reaction
Ab directed at self-Ag
86
What type of HS is immune Ab-Ag complex
type 3 HS
87
Examples of type 2 HS reaction (2)
IMHA
MG
88
What is type 4 HS
Delayed T cell-mediated
89
Examples of type 4 HS (2)
contact dermatitis
tuberculin rxn
90
Most important cells for tumor immune surveillance
CTLs, CD8+ TL
91
Self Ag is presented on what molecule
MHC I
92
3 apoptosis pathways
-extrinsic, intrinsic, perforin/granzyme
93
Cytokines down-regulated by glucocorticoids (4)
-IL-1
-IL-6
-IL-8
-TNFalpha
94
Glucocorticoids (increase/decrease) expression of ICAM-1 and E-selectin
decrease
95
Glucocorticoids induce what cytokines (2)
IL-10, TFGbeta
96
Glucocorticoids decrease levels of what other hormones
ACTH
TSH
97
Glucocorticoids (increase/decrease) GFR
increase
98
Glucocorticoids lead to increased renal excretion of what ions
K+, Ca+2
99
Cyclosporin MOA
Calcineurin inhibition via complexing with cyclophilin
100
Co-administration of what drug will increase cyclosporin levels
Ketoconazole (via CYP450)
101
Unique AE of cyclosporine
Gingival hyperplasia and hyperkeratosis
102
Azathioprine MOA
Purine analog
103
Metabolism of azthaiprine
TPMT
104
Why can't you give azathioprine to cats
They have very low TPMT levels
105
Toxicity of azathioprine (4)
GI upset, myelosuppression, hepatotoxic, pancreatitis
106
MOA of Mycofenolate
prodrug activated in liver, inhibits IMPDH --> depletion of guanosine
107
AE mycophenolate (3)
GI, papillomatosis, allergic rxn
108
MOA Leflunomide
Prodrug metabolized by the intestine and liver inhibits pyrimidine synthesis
109
AE leflunomide (2)
GI, myelosuppression
110
Grapiprant MOA
PGE2 inhibitor at EP4
111
Order of mineralocorticoid potency cortisol, methylepred, pred (most to least potent)
Cortisol> prednisone >methylprednisone
112
Put these in order of most to least potent glucocorticoid activity:
cortisol, triamcinolone, betamethasone, methylpred, pred, dexamethasone
betamethasone, dexamethasone, methylpred, pred, triamcinolone, cortisol
113
COX-2 selective NSAIDs (3)
Firacoxib, Robinacoxib, deracoxib
114
Cox-3 inhibitor
acetaminophen
115
COX-2 preferential NSAIDs (2)
Carprofen, meloxicam
116
Causes of intracellular edema (3)
hyponatremia
lack of cellular energy
Inflammation
117
Pure transudate TP and TNCC
<2.5 mg/dL
<1.5 k/uL
118
Causes of transudate (4)
obstruction of lymph/venous
hypoalbuminemia
portal hyper tension
lung lobe torsion
119
Exudate TP and TNCC
TP >4 mg/dL
TNCC >5 k/uL
120
modified transudate TP TNCC
TP >2.5 mg/dL
TNCC <5 k/uL
121
Characteristics of chylous effusion (TP, TNCC, cyto, other)
TP >2.5 mg/dL
TNCC >3 k/uL
small lymphocytes
Triglycerides > 100 mg/dL or 2x serum
122
DDx chylous effusion (3)
idiopathic, cardiac disease, neoplasia
123
FIP effusion TP TNCC
TP >4 mg/dL
TNCC <5 k/uL
124
cytology of biliary rupture
white mucous
bile (differentiate from hemosiderin with Prussian blue)
125
How to diagnose uroperitoneum
Creat in effusion > 2x serum
126
Ig with shortest t1/2
IgE (2-3 d)
127
Ig with longest t1/2
IgG (10-21 d)
128
Ig that is secreted in fluids on mucosal surfaces and in colostrum
IgA
129
Ig that looks like 2 Ig squished together at the but ends
IgA
130
Ig that is a big circle
IgM
131
Ig that has the highest concentration in the blood
IgG
132
Ig that has the second-highest concentration in the blood
IgM
133
Ig that is most important for primary response and memory
IgM
134
Ig that is the BCR
IgD
135
TLR for LPS recognition
TLR4
136
TLR for bacterial flagellin
TLR5
137
cytokine that recruits eosinophils
IL 5
