Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

YEAR 3 CORRECTIONS > Infectious Disease > Flashcards

Infectious Disease Flashcards

1
Q

What two stains get detect acid fast bacilli like TB and can retrieve results within 24 hrs?

A
  1. Ziehl-Neelson stain
  2. Auramine stain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the fastest test for TB?

A

rapid sputum test: NAAT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A patient has chills, jaundice and low platelets and anaemia on their FBC and has just come back from Nigeria. What pathogen causes this disease?

A

falciparum Malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

I have nausea and vomiting and RUQ, what infection do I have?

A

Hepatitis A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A patient has sore throat, malaise, red tonsils, lymphdenopathy, scleral icterus and hepatosplenomegaly. What is the first investigation?

A

Monospot/ EBV test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A uni student has grey/ green exudate on their throat and splenomegaly. What do they have?

A

Infectious mononucleosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A patient has enlarged parotid glands and enlarged testicles. What do they have?

A

Mumps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A patient with recurrent illness has a maculopapular rash. What do they have?

A

HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does the blood film for EBV infection show?

A

Atypical lymphocytes and clumped chromatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What indicates sepsis without signs of shock?

A

WCC <4*109/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What skin condition can be seen in the shins of TB patients?

A

Erythema nodosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What kind of diarrhoea do Staph infections cause?

A

Non-bloody diarrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What kind of diarrhoea do Campylobacter infections cause?

A

Bloody diarrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Management of Gilberts disease?

A

Reassure and discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which antibiotic can cause cholestasis?

A

Co-amoxiclav

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Give an example of a stimulant laxative

A

Senna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Give four conditions that cause clubbing

A

Cirrhosis
Achalasia
IBD
Coeliac disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Does HCC cause clubbing?

A

No

19
Q

What is the most common cause of upper GI bleeds?

A

Peptic ulcer disease

20
Q

How can TB affect urinary system and what is seen on dipstick?

A

Dysuria
neutrophils on dipstick

21
Q

Which antibiotic is closely related to co-amoxiclav?

A

Meropenem

22
Q

Is mumps or haemophilus influenzae more likely to be seen in the lumbar puncture of viral meningitis?

A

Mumps

23
Q

What does gram negative diplococcus on lumbar puncture suggest>

A

Neisseria meningitidis

24
Q

What does white lesions in the mouth and memory decline suggest?

A

HIV related dementia
AIDS dementia complex

25
Q

What defined AIDS?

A

evidence of AIDS illness e.g. TB
CD4 <200 cells/mm3

26
Q

Can c.diff diarrhoea be bloody?

A

yes

27
Q

How would you treat HIV which has led to mycobacterium avium complex?

A

RIPE

28
Q

What is stage one of HIV infection and what symptoms are seen?

A

Seroconversion
Flu like illness with lymphadenopathy

29
Q

What does a CD4 <50 with eye pain, blurred vision, fever and encephalitis suggest?

A

Cytomegalovirus infection

30
Q

What blood test marker should be looked at in an elderly patient with confusion?

A

CRP
can lead to a septic screen

31
Q

Which antibiotic gives mainly gram negative cover?

A

Gentamicin

32
Q

Which antibiotic gives cover for anaerobic organisms?

A

Metronidazole
Co-amoxiclav

33
Q

Name four antibiotics that can lead to a C diff infection

A

Amoxicillin
Clindamycin
Cephalosporins
Ciprofloxacin

34
Q

What treatment is indicated in severe COVID-19?

A

Oxygen, remdesivir and dexamethasone

35
Q

When is remdesivir contraindicated?

A

eGFR<30

36
Q

What pathogen causes gram negative sepsis in biliary system?

A

E Coli

37
Q

What is Herpes Human virus 3?

A

Varicella Xoster virus

38
Q

What can cause fever 3-5 days post operation?

A

Infection of the respiratory/ urinary tract

39
Q

What can be given if BP remains low after fluid resuscitation in septic shock?

A

alpha 1 antagonist: metaraminol

40
Q

If a patient has recurrent candidiasis what shoult they be tested for?

A

Diabetes
HbA1c

41
Q

What protozoa causes diarrhoea in a HIV patient?

A

Cryptosporidium

42
Q

What can a rash with folliculitis on chest suggest and hence what should be done?

A

Late HIV infection
Do HIV serology

43
Q

Which gram positive cocci are in clusters vs pairs?

A

S.aureus: clusters
Strep pneumoniae: pairs

44
Q

Why is C. Diff hard to destroy?

A

Due to spore formation

YEAR 3 CORRECTIONS (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions