Infectious Disease Flashcards
All of the following statements pertaining to transmissible spongiform encephalopathies (TSEs) are true except:
a) TSEs are a result of normal prion proteins in the brain changing shape from an alpha helix structure to a beta sheet structure.
b) Chronic wasting disease (CWD) of cervids has been detected in 30 states in the U.S. and 4 Canadian provinces, Norway and South Korea but has not been detected in Africa or Mainland Europe.
c) Prions that cause scrapie can persist in the environment for years.
d) The primary source of infection for classical bovine spongiform encephalopathy (C-type BSE) is feed contaminated with the infectious prion agent. The atypical BSE forms, L-type and H-type, occur spontaneously at low levels in all cattle populations
b) Chronic wasting disease (CWD) of cervids has been detected in 30 states in the U.S. and 4 Canadian provinces, Noeway and South Korea but has not been detected in Africa or Mainland Europe.
USDA recommends which of the following methods to decontaminate premises where scrapie-infected sheep have lambed (choose all that apply)?
a) Till soil of pastures under or do not use contaminated areas to graze susceptible animals.
b) Remove organic material and the top 1-2 inches of soil from lambing pens.
c) Bleach equipment and instruments, followed by autoclaving if possible.
d) Compost contaminated organic material at least 2 miles away from pastures where domestic sheep and goats are located.
a) Till soil of pastures under or do not use contaminated areas to graze susceptible animals.
b) Remove organic material and the top 1-2 inches of soil from lambing pens.
c) Bleach equipment and instruments, followed by autoclaving if possible.
All of the following statements pertaining to cysticercosis are true except:
a) Cysticercosis is a parasitic tissue infection caused by larval cysts of the tapeworm Taenia solium.
b) People get cysticercosis by eating undercooked pork.
c) People get cysticercosis by ingesting Taenia solium eggs found in the feces of a person who has an intestinal tapeworm.
d) Humans are the definitive host for Taenia solium; pigs are the intermediate host.
b) People get cysticercosis by eating undercooked pork.
Streptococcus equi Subspecies zooepidemicus has caused recent mortality events in pigs and dogs in the U.S. Which of the following statements about Streptococcus zooepidemicus is false?
a) Coinfection with influenza and other respiratory viruses can predispose animals to Streptococcus zooepidemicus
b) Human infection is of particular concern for immunocompromised individuals.
c) A vaccine is commercially available for pigs.
d) A key prevention strategy for dogs and pigs is limiting stress (e.g., crowding, temperature extremes, malnutrition).
c) A vaccine is commercially available for pigs.
Choose the correct statement below.
a) Anthrax, a disease caused by Bacillus cereus, causes fever, weakness, and sudden death in cattle.
b) Anthrax, a disease caused by Bacillus anthracis, is transmitted to cattle through respiratory droplets.
c) Anthrax, a disease caused by Bacillus anthracis, is transmitted to cattle through ingestion of contaminated vegetation, soil, or feed.
d) Anthrax, a disease caused by Clostridium anthracis, is transmitted to cattle through ingestion of contaminated vegetation, soil, or feed.
c) Anthrax, a disease caused by Bacillus anthracis, is transmitted to cattle through ingestion of contaminated vegetation, soil, or feed.
Which of the following are risk factors for coccidioidomycosis?
a) Living in or traveling to the Southeastern U.S.
b) Living in or traveling to the Southwestern U.S.
c) Pregnancy, HIV/AIDS, diabetes, or taking immunosuppressive medications.
d) Being within 6 feet of an infected person for 15 minutes or longer.
e) None of these are risk factors for coccidioidomycosis.
b) Living in or traveling to the Southwestern U.S.
c) Pregnancy, HIV/AIDS, diabetes, or taking immunosuppressive medications.
Which of the following statements about neglected parasitic infections in the U.S. is false?
a) Neurocysticercosis, a leading cause of seizures in some parts of the U.S., is associated with eating free-range pork.
b) Strategies to prevent Chagas disease include controlling triatomine insect vectors, blood donor screening, and early detection/treatment in pregnant women.
c) Routinely deworming pets, washing hands after working/playing outdoors, and washing vegetables before eating are preventive measure for toxocariasis in people.
d) Felids are the only definitive host for Toxoplasma gondii.
a) Neurocysticercosis, a leading cause of seizures in some parts of the U.S., is associated with eating free-range pork.
Your friend calls you because she just moved to Lake Michigan and heard someone talking about a 30-foot tapeworm that people can get from eating undercooked fish. She wants to know if such a thing exists, and if so, can her dog get it? You tell her:
a) No, it is an urban legend.
b) Yes, the tapeworm is called Diphyllobothrium latum, but it only infects fish and otters.
c) Yes, the tapeworm is called Diphyllobothrium latum, and people and dogs can be infected by eating undercooked fish.
d) Yes, the tapeworm is called Dipylidium caninum, and it infects fish, cats, and dogs.
c) Yes, the tapeworm is called Diphyllobothrium latum, and people and dogs can be infected by eating undercooked fish.
Choose the incorrectly associated disease, agent, reservoir, and vector below:
a) Lyme disease, Borrelia burgdorferi sensu stricto, white-footed mouse, Ixodes scapularis
b) Q fever, Coxiella burnetii, small ruminants, Argasidae
c) Canine ehrlichiosis, Ehrlichia canis, dog, Rhipicephalus sanguineus
d) Tularemia, Francisella tularensis, rabbit/rodent, ixodid ticks
e) Plague, Yersinia pestis, prairie dog, fleas
b) Q fever, Coxiella burnetii, small ruminants, Argasidae
Your friend likes to eat venison, and deer season is coming up. She calls you because she has heard a lot about diseases in deer and is confused about which ones can also infect people. She lists off some diseases. Which one is the least concerning for zoonotic transmission?
a) Brucellosis
b) Tuberculosis
c) Epizootic hemorrhagic disease
d) Chronic wasting disease
e) SARS-CoV-2
c) Epizootic hemorrhagic disease
Which of the following statements regarding zoonotic salmonellosis is false?
a) Most reptiles are asymptomatic carriers of
b) Most cases of zoonotic salmonellosis are caused by typhoidal serovars of Salmonella enterica subspecies
c) Salmonella can spread from animals to people through fecal-oral transmission, mechanical transmission (flies), and eating undercooked eggs and meat.
d) Outbreaks of salmonellosis in people that were linked to pets included pet hedgehogs, small turtles, poultry, and bearded dragons.
b) Most cases of zoonotic salmonellosis are caused by typhoidal serovars of Salmonella enterica subspecies
True or false: The caudal fold tuberculin (CFT) test in cattle/bison and single cervical tuberculin test (SCT) or dual path platform (DPP) serological test in cervids are the primary official screening tests currently used in live animal TB surveillance in the U.S.
True
Which of the following statements regarding Burkholderia infections is false?
a) Glanders is caused by Burkholderia mallei.
b) Glanders is reportable to the World Organisation for Animal Health (OIE).
c) Melioidosis is caused by Burkholderia pseudomallei.
d) Melioidosis is reportable to the World Organisation for Animal Health (OIE).
e) Burkholderia mallei and Burkholderia pseudomallei cause disease in humans.
Which of the following statements regarding Burkholderia infections is false?
Glanders is caused by Burkholderia mallei. Glanders is reportable to the World Organisation for Animal Health (OIE). Melioidosis is caused by Burkholderia pseudomallei. Melioidosis is reportable to the World Organisation for Animal Health (OIE). Burkholderia mallei and Burkholderia pseudomallei cause disease in humans.
d) Melioidosis is reportable to the World Organisation for Animal Health (OIE).
According to the 2019 AAFP Feline Zoonoses Guidelines, zoonotic agents that can be spread by bite wounds from cats include (select all that apply):
a) Rabies virus
b) Francisella tularensis
c) Bartonella
d) Yersinia pestis
e) Capnocytophaga canimorsus
a) Rabies virus
b) Francisella tularensis
c) Bartonella
d) Yersinia pestis
e) Capnocytophaga canimorsus
Rhipicephalus annulatus and microplus, also known as “cattle fever ticks” are the most dangerous cattle ectoparasites in the United States. USDA-APHIS established the Cattle Fever Tick Eradication Program in 1906. What disease does this program aim to eliminate?
a) Bovine tick paralysis
b) Bovine borreliosis
c) Bovine theileriosis
d) Bovine babesiosis
e) Bovine anaplasmosis
d) Bovine babesiosis
What causes American foulbrood (AFB)?
a) Paenibacillus larvae (a bacterium)
b) Nosema (a parasite)
c) Cell phone towers
d) Malnutrition
a) Paenibacillus larvae (a bacterium)
True or False: The best test to diagnose canine brucellosis in a sick dog is rapid slide agglutination test (RSAT) because it is an extremely sensitive and specific test.
False
Which of the following statements about campylobacteriosis are true?
a) Caused by a gram-negative bacterium called Campylobacter jejuni.
b) Most canines infected with Campylobacter jejuni have diarrhea and must be treated using antibiotics.
c) Most outbreaks of campylobacteriosis in people are caused by ingesting undercooked poultry products and raw milk.
d) Surveillance using culture-based molecular methods is challenging because the organism is difficult to culture.
e) All of the above are true.
a) Caused by a gram-negative bacterium called Campylobacter jejuni.
c) Most outbreaks of campylobacteriosis in people are caused by ingesting undercooked poultry products and raw milk.
d) Surveillance using culture-based molecular methods is challenging because the organism is difficult to culture.
True or False: Bacteria in the Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex are inactivated by most disinfectants
False
Select the statement below that most accurately describes sporotrichosis.
a) Fungal lung infection that occurs after cleaning out an attic where bats have been living.
b) Systemic fungal infection that might develop in a dog, then in the dog’s owner, after hunting quail in the Mississippi River basin.
c) Fungal skin infection that occurred after cutting your hand while gardening.
d) Fungal infection of hibernating bats which has caused regional extinction of some bat species in North America.
c) Fungal skin infection that occurred after cutting your hand while gardening.
Which of the following is not a flavivirus?
a) Japanese encephalitis virus
b) Yellow fever virus
c) Chikungunya virus
d) Zika virus
e) All of the above are flaviviruses
c) Chikungunya virus
The primary vectors for Japanese encephalitis virus are Culex spp mosquitoes. Which of the following animals are considered amplifying hosts because they develop sufficient viremia to transmit the virus back to mosquitoes (select all that apply)?
Pigs
Horses
Humans
Egrets
Cattle
Pigs
Egrets
Which of the following statements regarding pathogenicity of Avian influenza viruses is false?
a) All type A influenza viruses of H5 and H7 subtypes are highly pathogenic avian influenza (HPAI) strains.
b) Genetic tests to identify characteristic patterns in the hemagglutinin molecule at its cleavage site are used to distinguish low pathogenicity avian influenza (LPAI) viruses from HPAI viruses.
c) HPAI viruses cause at least seventy-five (75) percent mortality in four (4) to eight (8) week-old chickens infected intravenously.
d) RT-PCR tests can be used to identify H5 and H7 subtype infections, but cannot distinguish between HPAI and LPAI strains.
a) All type A influenza viruses of H5 and H7 subtypes are highly pathogenic avian influenza (HPAI) strains.
Which of the following statements regarding Hendra virus (HeV) is false?
a) Like Nipah, measles, and Newcastle viruses, HeV belongs to the Paramyxoviridae
b) Pteropid bats (also known as flying foxes or fruit bats) are the reservoir host, and dogs are the amplifying host usually implicated in transmission to humans.
c) Prevention measures include vaccinating horses, removing fruit trees from horse paddocks, and wearing PPE while performing dental procedures on horses in endemic areas.
d) HeV infection of horses is characterized by high fevers, facial swelling, severe respiratory difficulty and, terminally, copious frothy nasal discharge. Some horses display neurological signs or colic-like signs.
e) There is no evidence of human-to-human transmission.
b) Pteropid bats (also known as flying foxes or fruit bats) are the reservoir host, and dogs are the amplifying host usually implicated in transmission to humans.
Which of the following is not a recommendation for preventing monkeypox infection?
a) Avoid contact with rodents in Nigeria.
Avoid contact with any materials, such as bedding, that has been in contact with a sick rodent.
b) Vaccinate pet rats and prairie dogs.
c) Practice good hand hygiene after contact with infected animals or humans.
d) Use personal protective equipment (PPE) when caring for patients.
b) Vaccinate pet rats and prairie dogs.
True or false: White-tailed deer are susceptible to infection with SARS-CoV-2 and are capable of sustaining transmission in nature.
True
True or false: The reservoir for Marburg virus is known to be the African fruit bat, Rousettus aegyptiacus, but the reservoir for Ebola virus is not yet known.
True
Which of the following are zoonotic viruses that can cause neurologic signs in pigs (choose all that apply)?
a) Pseudorabies virus
b) Rabies virus
c) Nipah virus
d) Influenza A viruses
e) Porcine Epidemic Diarrhea virus
b) Rabies virus
c) Nipah virus
A local emergency room doctor calls to consult about a patient who was attacked, bitten, and scratched by an opossum. Animal control is out looking for the animal but it has not been trapped yet. The physician says he heard opossums cannot get rabies, and wants to know if rabies post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is necessary. What should you tell the physician?
a) Opossums don’t get infected with rabies because of their naturally low body temperatures. The physician should be concerned about bacterial infection, but there is no need to administer rabies PEP.
b) Mammals can be infected with rabies, but marsupials cannot. The physician should be concerned about bacterial infection, but there is no need to administer rabies PEP.
c) Opossums are not commonly diagnosed with rabies, but they are susceptible, and rabies has been documented in opossums. Since the animal was acting strangely and bit the patient, you recommend starting rabies PEP immediately. You also remind the physician that animal bites can cause serious bacterial infections.
d) Rabies is not a concern in opossums, but the physician should administer post-exposure prophylaxis for canine distemper virus infection, to which opossums and humans are susceptible.
c) Opossums are not commonly diagnosed with rabies, but they are susceptible, and rabies has been documented in opossums. Since the animal was acting strangely and bit the patient, you recommend starting rabies PEP immediately. You also remind the physician that animal bites can cause serious bacterial infections.
Which of the following statements regarding rabies post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) for exposed people is false?
a) PEP for a healthy exposed person who has not been vaccinated for rabies consists of immediately washing the wound, infiltrating the wound with human rabies immune globulin, and administering four doses of rabies vaccine IM on days 0, 3, 7, and 14.
b) PEP must be initiated within 14 days of rabies virus exposure in order to be effective.
c) Immunocompromised individuals who have never been vaccinated for rabies should receive a fifth rabies vaccine at day 28 to complete the PEP regimen.
d) Exposed individuals who have been vaccinated for rabies prior to exposure should receive two doses of rabies vaccine on days 0 and 3.
b) PEP must be initiated within 14 days of rabies virus exposure in order to be effective.
Which of the following geographic distributions of major rabies virus variants in the US is incorrect?
a) Fox – Alaska and Arizona
b) Raccoon – Mid-Atlantic, Northeast, Southeast
c) Skunk – Midwest, Southwest, California
d) Canine – Southwest
e) Mongoose – Puerto Rico
d) Canine – Southwest
What animal is the leading cause of rabies transmission to humans globally; in the U.S.?
a) Domestic dog; feral cat
b) Mongoose; fox
c) Domestic dog; bat
d) Bat; raccoon
e) Bat; bat
c) Domestic dog; bat
True or false: Seasonal flu vaccination will not prevent infection with bird flu viruses, but can reduce the risk of getting sick with human and bird flu viruses at the same time.
True
Which of the following rodent species is not a reservoir for hantavirus in the United States?
a) Mastomys natalensis (multimammate rat)
b) Sigmodon hispidus (cotton rat)
c) Peromyscus maniculatus (deer mouse)
d) Oryzomys palustris (rice rat)
e) Peromyscus leucopus (white footed mouse)
a) Mastomys natalensis (multimammate rat)
Which of the following is/are true about Newcastle Disease virus (NDV) (select all that apply)?
a. NDV is reportable to the USDA
b. NDV can survive for several weeks in both warm and humid organic environments (e.g., feathers, manure) and in frozen material
c. Newcastle vaccination is recommended for routine administration in backyard flocks
d. Newcastle vaccination may reduce mortality in poultry
e. Newcastle vaccination eliminates viral shedding in poultry
a. NDV is reportable to the USDA
b. NDV can survive for several weeks in both warm and humid organic environments (e.g., feathers,
d. Newcastle vaccination may reduce mortality in poultry
For each of the FMD-susceptible species below, indicate whether that species is typically considered an indicator host, a maintenance host, or an amplifying host for the virus.
a. Pigs
b. Cattle
c. Sheep
d. Goats
a. Pigs (amplifying)
b. Cattle (indicator)
c. Sheep (maintenance)
d. Goats (maintenance)
True or False: FMDV can be found in all secretions and excretions from acutely infected animals, including expired air, saliva, milk, urine, feces and semen, as well as in the fluid from FMD-associated vesicles, and in amniotic fluid and aborted fetuses.
True
Select the best reason why vaccination for African swine fever (ASF) is not practiced
a. ASF virus is able to interfere with various cellular signaling pathways resulting in immunomodulation, thus making the development of an efficacious vaccine very challenging
b. Because a Differentiating Infected from Vaccinated Animals (DIVA) vaccine has not yet been developed, vaccination would be ineffective
c. Vaccines have not yet been licensed because of the severity of side-effects observed in vaccinated animals during vaccine testing
d. Animals vaccinated with ASF vaccine would not be safe to eat
a. ASF virus is able to interfere with various cellular signaling pathways resulting in immunomodulation, thus making the development of an efficacious vaccine very challenging
Which of the following is NOT a clinical sign consistent with infection with classical swine fever (CSF) virus?
a. High fever
b. Diarrhea
c. Hemorrhages of the skin
d. Cutaneous vesicles
e. Incoordination
d. Cutaneous vesicles
True or false: Avian Influenza viruses are susceptible to a wide variety of disinfectants, including sodium hypochlorite, 60% ethanol, quaternary ammonium compounds, aldehydes, and phenols.
True
Which of the following terms is correctly associated with the definition: A suspect case with a non-negative screening laboratory test result for ASF virus (PCR) at the National Veterinary Services Laboratories (NVSL) Foreign Animal Disease Diagnostic Laboratory (FADDL) or a National Animal Health Laboratory Network (NAHLN) laboratory approved for ASF Preparedness and Surge Testing.
a. Suspect case
b. Possible case
c. Presumptive positive case
d. Confirmed positive case
c. Presumptive positive case
Which two avian influenza H subtypes may cause LPAI and also are closely monitored for their potential to mutate into HPAI?
a. H1 and H3
b. H3 and H7
c. H5 and H7
d. H7 and H9
e. H9 and H5
c. H5 and H7
What is the most critical aspect of stopping a highly contagious foreign animal disease outbreak such as Highly Pathogenic Avian Influenza (HPAI)?
a. Rapid diagnosis and depopulation within 24 hours
b. Delaying any response until confirmatory diagnosis to prevent negative public perception
c. Prompt isolation and treatment of affected animals
d. Avoiding spread to highly susceptible human populations through use of PPE and educational campaigns
a. Rapid diagnosis and depopulation within 24 hours
Which of the following durations accurately describes the survival time (and infectivity to pigs eating contaminated meat) of Classical Swine Fever (CSF) in meat?
a. 3 days at refrigeration temperatures; immediately killed upon freezing
b. 30 days at refrigeration temperatures; 12 hours at frozen temperatures
c. 3 months at refrigeration temperatures; 4 years at frozen temperatures
d. 6 months at refrigeration temperatures; 10 years at frozen temperatures
c. 3 months at refrigeration temperatures; 4 years at frozen temperatures
True or false: During outbreak situations in high density pig areas, CSF has been shown to spread through airborne transmission up to 1 km away
True
Matching: match the listed FAD with its incubation period
a. CSF
b. ASF
c. HPAI
d. FMD
e. vND
i. 2-6 days
ii. 2-14 days
iii. 2-14 days
iv. 4-19 days
v. Up to 21 days
a-iii, b-iv, c-v, d-ii, e-i
Which of the following is true relative to vaccination for classical swine fever (CSF) (select all that apply)
a. Both modified live and subunit (marker) vaccines are available
b. DIVA (differentiating infected from vaccinated animals) are available
c. Available vaccines require an initial and a booster shot
d. No approved vaccines are available
e. Routine vaccination is used in states that have experienced prior outbreaks
a. Both modified live and subunit (marker) vaccines are available
b. DIVA (differentiating infected from vaccinated animals) are available
How many distinct serotypes of foot and mouth disease (FMD) are there?
a. 3
b. 7
c. 35
d. 60
b. 7
Which of the following species of animals are susceptible to FMD (select all that apply)?
a. Cattle
b. Pigs
c. Small ruminants (sheep and goats)
d. Deer, elk, reindeer
e. Elephants
a. Cattle
b. Pigs
c. Small ruminants (sheep and goats)
d. Deer, elk, reindeer
e. Elephants
Which of the following can be considered a “disease firewall” that can help keep foreign animal diseases out of domestic herds in the US (select all that apply)?
a. U.S. border protection
b. State entry requirements
c. Source herd health status
d. Quarantine procedures
e. Annual vaccination protocols
a. U.S. border protection
b. State entry requirements
c. Source herd health status
d. Quarantine procedures
Fill in the blank: list 6 or 7 key ‘areas’ that are important to include in a biosecurity plan (hint: one example is vehicles/equipment).
Animal movement (on/off), personnel, manure/litter/bedding management, feed/water, wildlife/rodent/other animal control, and carcass disposal.
True or false: While there are several vaccines available for protection against both respiratory disease and abortion as a result of EHV-1 infection, at this time there is no equine licensed vaccine that has a label claim for protection against neurologic disease (EHM).
True
Which of the following regarding porcine epidemic diarrhea virus (PEDv) is true?
a. Although PEDv is a coronavirus that is related to TGE virus, tests for TGE virus will not detect PEDv
b. The only known carriers of PEDv include pigs and mustelids (e.g., ferrets, mink)
c. PEDv is rapidly eliminated in cold and dry conditions
d. In previously naïve herds, PEDv causes nearly 50% mortality in preweaned pigs
e. The most important preventive measure for PEDv is vector elimination and exclusion.
a. Although PEDv is a coronavirus that is related to TGE virus, tests for TGE virus will not detect PEDv
Which of the following is not a vector-borne viral disease of ruminants (select all that apply)?
a. Heartwater
b. Bovine ephemeral fever
c. Akabane
d. Peste des petits ruminants
e. Lumpy skin disease
a. Heartwater
d. Peste des petits ruminants
All of the following statements pertaining to rabbit hemorrhagic disease (RHD) virus are true except:
a. Because it is a non-enveloped virus, it persists easily in the environment
b. A killed vaccine is available for use only in outbreak situations
c. Incubation period is approximately 14 days
d. Stop movement is an important aspect of disease control
e. It can be spread through both direct and indirect contact
c. Incubation period is approximately 14 days
Prevention against vesicular stomatitis virus is focused on which of the following?
a. Routine vaccination of susceptible animals
b. Control of biting insect vectors
c. Frequent updates to movement/health certificate requirements based on risk
d. Biosecurity interventions aimed at reduction of transmission by personnel (fomites)
e. Testing of imported feed ingredients
b. Control of biting insect vectors
Detections of bluetongue virus correspond to the geographic range of which vector?
a. Aedes aegypti
b. Anopheles stephensi
c. Culex tritaeniorhynchus
d. Amblyomma americanum
e. Culicoides sonorensis
e. Culicoides sonorensis
Which of the following viruses is capable of reassortment (select all that apply)?
a. Equine herpesvirus 1
b. Bluetongue virus
c. Influenza virus
d. Epizootic hemorrhagic disease virus
e. Lumpy skin disease viru
b. Bluetongue virus
c. Influenza virus
d. Epizootic hemorrhagic disease virus
- Which of the following is a route of transmission that, in recent years, has been of increasing concern for spread of equine infectious anemia (EIA) virus?
a. Direct contact from subclinically infected horses
b. Vectorborne transmission from stable flies
c. Iatrogenic transmission from shared needles
d. Venereal transmission through fresh or frozen semen
e. Lactogenic transmission from mare to foal
c. Iatrogenic transmission from shared needles
Which of the following is a primary focus of control programs for equine viral arteritis virus?
a. Targeted vaccination of pregnant mares within 3 months prior to foaling
b. Identification and isolation of carrier stallions
c. Strict biosecurity procedures for personnel working on equine operations
d. Rodent control measures
e. Control of the vector Aedes aegypti
b. Identification and isolation of carrier stallions
Malignant Catarrhal Fever virus belongs to which virus family?
a. Herpesviridae
b. Poxviridae
c. Arenaviridae
d. Bunyaviridae
e. Flaviviridae
a. Herpesviridae
Malignant catarrhal fever virus belongs to which virus family?
a. Herpesviridae
b. Poxviridae
c. Arenaviridae
d. Bunyaviridae
e. Flaviviridae
a. Herpesviridae
Which of the following statements related to Peste des petits ruminants virus is true?
a. It is a single stranded, non-enveloped RNA virus
b. It is environmentally hardy
c. It is typically spread via indirect contact
d. Most effective control measures include import controls, movement restrictions, testing, and quarantine
e. It is resistant to common disinfectants
d. Most effective control measures include import controls, movement restrictions, testing, and quarantine
What national program likely played a major role in the decrease of raccoon rabies cases following the peak in 1993?
a. The US Rabies Prevention Program, established by the CDC Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP) and USDA APHIS Veterinary Services, which provides guidance on effective control of rabies, a vaccine-preventable disease, in the U.S.
b. U.S. National Rabies Surveillance System (NRSS), which relies on state and local jurisdictions to operate frontline rabies surveillance and man¬agement programs and share notifiable data with the CDC, in accordance with Council of State and Territorial Epidemiologists recommendations.
c. National Rabies Management Program (established by USDA APHIS Wildlife Services in cooperation with local, state and federal partners), which implements oral rabies vaccination as an important rabies control tool.
d. The US National Rabies Surveillance System (NRSS), which is a laboratory-based system consisting of approximately 130 public health, agriculture, and academic laboratories that conduct animal rabies testing.
c. National Rabies Management Program (established by USDA APHIS Wildlife Services in cooperation with local, state and federal partners), which implements oral rabies vaccination as an important rabies control tool.
See graphic below. The biosecurity concept, “line of separation” should help producers:
a. Decide to fence the entire farm, including pasture and crop lands.
b. Know that all on-farm animals are inside the “line of separation.”
c. Having a line of separation lessens the need for routine cleaning and disinfection since the area inside the “line” remains uncontaminated.
d. Use equipment for multiple tasks since it is inside the “line.”
b. Know that all on-farm animals are inside the “line of separation.”
