Infectious Disease Flashcards
1
Q
All of the following statements pertaining to transmissible spongiform encephalopathies (TSEs) are true except:
a) TSEs are a result of normal prion proteins in the brain changing shape from an alpha helix structure to a beta sheet structure.
b) Chronic wasting disease (CWD) of cervids has been detected in 30 states in the U.S. and 4 Canadian provinces, Norway and South Korea but has not been detected in Africa or Mainland Europe.
c) Prions that cause scrapie can persist in the environment for years.
d) The primary source of infection for classical bovine spongiform encephalopathy (C-type BSE) is feed contaminated with the infectious prion agent. The atypical BSE forms, L-type and H-type, occur spontaneously at low levels in all cattle populations
A
b) Chronic wasting disease (CWD) of cervids has been detected in 30 states in the U.S. and 4 Canadian provinces, Noeway and South Korea but has not been detected in Africa or Mainland Europe.
2
Q
USDA recommends which of the following methods to decontaminate premises where scrapie-infected sheep have lambed (choose all that apply)?
a) Till soil of pastures under or do not use contaminated areas to graze susceptible animals.
b) Remove organic material and the top 1-2 inches of soil from lambing pens.
c) Bleach equipment and instruments, followed by autoclaving if possible.
d) Compost contaminated organic material at least 2 miles away from pastures where domestic sheep and goats are located.
A
a) Till soil of pastures under or do not use contaminated areas to graze susceptible animals.
b) Remove organic material and the top 1-2 inches of soil from lambing pens.
c) Bleach equipment and instruments, followed by autoclaving if possible.
3
Q
All of the following statements pertaining to cysticercosis are true except:
a) Cysticercosis is a parasitic tissue infection caused by larval cysts of the tapeworm Taenia solium.
b) People get cysticercosis by eating undercooked pork.
c) People get cysticercosis by ingesting Taenia solium eggs found in the feces of a person who has an intestinal tapeworm.
d) Humans are the definitive host for Taenia solium; pigs are the intermediate host.
A
b) People get cysticercosis by eating undercooked pork.
4
Q
Streptococcus equi Subspecies zooepidemicus has caused recent mortality events in pigs and dogs in the U.S. Which of the following statements about Streptococcus zooepidemicus is false?
a) Coinfection with influenza and other respiratory viruses can predispose animals to Streptococcus zooepidemicus
b) Human infection is of particular concern for immunocompromised individuals.
c) A vaccine is commercially available for pigs.
d) A key prevention strategy for dogs and pigs is limiting stress (e.g., crowding, temperature extremes, malnutrition).
A
c) A vaccine is commercially available for pigs.
5
Q
Choose the correct statement below.
a) Anthrax, a disease caused by Bacillus cereus, causes fever, weakness, and sudden death in cattle.
b) Anthrax, a disease caused by Bacillus anthracis, is transmitted to cattle through respiratory droplets.
c) Anthrax, a disease caused by Bacillus anthracis, is transmitted to cattle through ingestion of contaminated vegetation, soil, or feed.
d) Anthrax, a disease caused by Clostridium anthracis, is transmitted to cattle through ingestion of contaminated vegetation, soil, or feed.
A
c) Anthrax, a disease caused by Bacillus anthracis, is transmitted to cattle through ingestion of contaminated vegetation, soil, or feed.
6
Q
Which of the following are risk factors for coccidioidomycosis?
a) Living in or traveling to the Southeastern U.S.
b) Living in or traveling to the Southwestern U.S.
c) Pregnancy, HIV/AIDS, diabetes, or taking immunosuppressive medications.
d) Being within 6 feet of an infected person for 15 minutes or longer.
e) None of these are risk factors for coccidioidomycosis.
A
b) Living in or traveling to the Southwestern U.S.
c) Pregnancy, HIV/AIDS, diabetes, or taking immunosuppressive medications.
7
Q
Which of the following statements about neglected parasitic infections in the U.S. is false?
a) Neurocysticercosis, a leading cause of seizures in some parts of the U.S., is associated with eating free-range pork.
b) Strategies to prevent Chagas disease include controlling triatomine insect vectors, blood donor screening, and early detection/treatment in pregnant women.
c) Routinely deworming pets, washing hands after working/playing outdoors, and washing vegetables before eating are preventive measure for toxocariasis in people.
d) Felids are the only definitive host for Toxoplasma gondii.
A
a) Neurocysticercosis, a leading cause of seizures in some parts of the U.S., is associated with eating free-range pork.
8
Q
Your friend calls you because she just moved to Lake Michigan and heard someone talking about a 30-foot tapeworm that people can get from eating undercooked fish. She wants to know if such a thing exists, and if so, can her dog get it? You tell her:
a) No, it is an urban legend.
b) Yes, the tapeworm is called Diphyllobothrium latum, but it only infects fish and otters.
c) Yes, the tapeworm is called Diphyllobothrium latum, and people and dogs can be infected by eating undercooked fish.
d) Yes, the tapeworm is called Dipylidium caninum, and it infects fish, cats, and dogs.
A
c) Yes, the tapeworm is called Diphyllobothrium latum, and people and dogs can be infected by eating undercooked fish.
9
Q
Choose the incorrectly associated disease, agent, reservoir, and vector below:
a) Lyme disease, Borrelia burgdorferi sensu stricto, white-footed mouse, Ixodes scapularis
b) Q fever, Coxiella burnetii, small ruminants, Argasidae
c) Canine ehrlichiosis, Ehrlichia canis, dog, Rhipicephalus sanguineus
d) Tularemia, Francisella tularensis, rabbit/rodent, ixodid ticks
e) Plague, Yersinia pestis, prairie dog, fleas
A
b) Q fever, Coxiella burnetii, small ruminants, Argasidae
10
Q
Your friend likes to eat venison, and deer season is coming up. She calls you because she has heard a lot about diseases in deer and is confused about which ones can also infect people. She lists off some diseases. Which one is the least concerning for zoonotic transmission?
a) Brucellosis
b) Tuberculosis
c) Epizootic hemorrhagic disease
d) Chronic wasting disease
e) SARS-CoV-2
A
c) Epizootic hemorrhagic disease
11
Q
Which of the following statements regarding zoonotic salmonellosis is false?
a) Most reptiles are asymptomatic carriers of
b) Most cases of zoonotic salmonellosis are caused by typhoidal serovars of Salmonella enterica subspecies
c) Salmonella can spread from animals to people through fecal-oral transmission, mechanical transmission (flies), and eating undercooked eggs and meat.
d) Outbreaks of salmonellosis in people that were linked to pets included pet hedgehogs, small turtles, poultry, and bearded dragons.
A
b) Most cases of zoonotic salmonellosis are caused by typhoidal serovars of Salmonella enterica subspecies
12
Q
True or false: The caudal fold tuberculin (CFT) test in cattle/bison and single cervical tuberculin test (SCT) or dual path platform (DPP) serological test in cervids are the primary official screening tests currently used in live animal TB surveillance in the U.S.
A
True
13
Q
Which of the following statements regarding Burkholderia infections is false?
a) Glanders is caused by Burkholderia mallei.
b) Glanders is reportable to the World Organisation for Animal Health (OIE).
c) Melioidosis is caused by Burkholderia pseudomallei.
d) Melioidosis is reportable to the World Organisation for Animal Health (OIE).
e) Burkholderia mallei and Burkholderia pseudomallei cause disease in humans.
Which of the following statements regarding Burkholderia infections is false?
Glanders is caused by Burkholderia mallei. Glanders is reportable to the World Organisation for Animal Health (OIE). Melioidosis is caused by Burkholderia pseudomallei. Melioidosis is reportable to the World Organisation for Animal Health (OIE). Burkholderia mallei and Burkholderia pseudomallei cause disease in humans.
A
d) Melioidosis is reportable to the World Organisation for Animal Health (OIE).
14
Q
According to the 2019 AAFP Feline Zoonoses Guidelines, zoonotic agents that can be spread by bite wounds from cats include (select all that apply):
a) Rabies virus
b) Francisella tularensis
c) Bartonella
d) Yersinia pestis
e) Capnocytophaga canimorsus
A
a) Rabies virus
b) Francisella tularensis
c) Bartonella
d) Yersinia pestis
e) Capnocytophaga canimorsus
15
Q
Rhipicephalus annulatus and microplus, also known as “cattle fever ticks” are the most dangerous cattle ectoparasites in the United States. USDA-APHIS established the Cattle Fever Tick Eradication Program in 1906. What disease does this program aim to eliminate?
a) Bovine tick paralysis
b) Bovine borreliosis
c) Bovine theileriosis
d) Bovine babesiosis
e) Bovine anaplasmosis
A
d) Bovine babesiosis
16
Q
What causes American foulbrood (AFB)?
a) Paenibacillus larvae (a bacterium)
b) Nosema (a parasite)
c) Cell phone towers
d) Malnutrition
A
a) Paenibacillus larvae (a bacterium)
17
Q
True or False: The best test to diagnose canine brucellosis in a sick dog is rapid slide agglutination test (RSAT) because it is an extremely sensitive and specific test.
A
False
18
Q
Which of the following statements about campylobacteriosis are true?
a) Caused by a gram-negative bacterium called Campylobacter jejuni.
b) Most canines infected with Campylobacter jejuni have diarrhea and must be treated using antibiotics.
c) Most outbreaks of campylobacteriosis in people are caused by ingesting undercooked poultry products and raw milk.
d) Surveillance using culture-based molecular methods is challenging because the organism is difficult to culture.
e) All of the above are true.
A
a) Caused by a gram-negative bacterium called Campylobacter jejuni.
c) Most outbreaks of campylobacteriosis in people are caused by ingesting undercooked poultry products and raw milk.
d) Surveillance using culture-based molecular methods is challenging because the organism is difficult to culture.
19
Q
True or False: Bacteria in the Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex are inactivated by most disinfectants
A
False
20
Q
Select the statement below that most accurately describes sporotrichosis.
a) Fungal lung infection that occurs after cleaning out an attic where bats have been living.
b) Systemic fungal infection that might develop in a dog, then in the dog’s owner, after hunting quail in the Mississippi River basin.
c) Fungal skin infection that occurred after cutting your hand while gardening.
d) Fungal infection of hibernating bats which has caused regional extinction of some bat species in North America.
A
c) Fungal skin infection that occurred after cutting your hand while gardening.
21
Q
Which of the following is not a flavivirus?
a) Japanese encephalitis virus
b) Yellow fever virus
c) Chikungunya virus
d) Zika virus
e) All of the above are flaviviruses
A
c) Chikungunya virus
22
Q
The primary vectors for Japanese encephalitis virus are Culex spp mosquitoes. Which of the following animals are considered amplifying hosts because they develop sufficient viremia to transmit the virus back to mosquitoes (select all that apply)?
Pigs
Horses
Humans
Egrets
Cattle
A
Pigs
Egrets
23
Q
Which of the following statements regarding pathogenicity of Avian influenza viruses is false?
a) All type A influenza viruses of H5 and H7 subtypes are highly pathogenic avian influenza (HPAI) strains.
b) Genetic tests to identify characteristic patterns in the hemagglutinin molecule at its cleavage site are used to distinguish low pathogenicity avian influenza (LPAI) viruses from HPAI viruses.
c) HPAI viruses cause at least seventy-five (75) percent mortality in four (4) to eight (8) week-old chickens infected intravenously.
d) RT-PCR tests can be used to identify H5 and H7 subtype infections, but cannot distinguish between HPAI and LPAI strains.
A
a) All type A influenza viruses of H5 and H7 subtypes are highly pathogenic avian influenza (HPAI) strains.
24
Q
Which of the following statements regarding Hendra virus (HeV) is false?
a) Like Nipah, measles, and Newcastle viruses, HeV belongs to the Paramyxoviridae
b) Pteropid bats (also known as flying foxes or fruit bats) are the reservoir host, and dogs are the amplifying host usually implicated in transmission to humans.
c) Prevention measures include vaccinating horses, removing fruit trees from horse paddocks, and wearing PPE while performing dental procedures on horses in endemic areas.
d) HeV infection of horses is characterized by high fevers, facial swelling, severe respiratory difficulty and, terminally, copious frothy nasal discharge. Some horses display neurological signs or colic-like signs.
e) There is no evidence of human-to-human transmission.
A
b) Pteropid bats (also known as flying foxes or fruit bats) are the reservoir host, and dogs are the amplifying host usually implicated in transmission to humans.
25
Which of the following is not a recommendation for preventing monkeypox infection?
a) Avoid contact with rodents in Nigeria.
Avoid contact with any materials, such as bedding, that has been in contact with a sick rodent.
b) Vaccinate pet rats and prairie dogs.
c) Practice good hand hygiene after contact with infected animals or humans.
d) Use personal protective equipment (PPE) when caring for patients.
b) Vaccinate pet rats and prairie dogs.
26
True or false: White-tailed deer are susceptible to infection with SARS-CoV-2 and are capable of sustaining transmission in nature.
True
27
True or false: The reservoir for Marburg virus is known to be the African fruit bat, Rousettus aegyptiacus, but the reservoir for Ebola virus is not yet known.
True
28
Which of the following are zoonotic viruses that can cause neurologic signs in pigs (choose all that apply)?
a) Pseudorabies virus
b) Rabies virus
c) Nipah virus
d) Influenza A viruses
e) Porcine Epidemic Diarrhea virus
b) Rabies virus
| c) Nipah virus
29
A local emergency room doctor calls to consult about a patient who was attacked, bitten, and scratched by an opossum. Animal control is out looking for the animal but it has not been trapped yet. The physician says he heard opossums cannot get rabies, and wants to know if rabies post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is necessary. What should you tell the physician?
a) Opossums don’t get infected with rabies because of their naturally low body temperatures. The physician should be concerned about bacterial infection, but there is no need to administer rabies PEP.
b) Mammals can be infected with rabies, but marsupials cannot. The physician should be concerned about bacterial infection, but there is no need to administer rabies PEP.
c) Opossums are not commonly diagnosed with rabies, but they are susceptible, and rabies has been documented in opossums. Since the animal was acting strangely and bit the patient, you recommend starting rabies PEP immediately. You also remind the physician that animal bites can cause serious bacterial infections.
d) Rabies is not a concern in opossums, but the physician should administer post-exposure prophylaxis for canine distemper virus infection, to which opossums and humans are susceptible.
c) Opossums are not commonly diagnosed with rabies, but they are susceptible, and rabies has been documented in opossums. Since the animal was acting strangely and bit the patient, you recommend starting rabies PEP immediately. You also remind the physician that animal bites can cause serious bacterial infections.
30
Which of the following statements regarding rabies post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) for exposed people is false?
a) PEP for a healthy exposed person who has not been vaccinated for rabies consists of immediately washing the wound, infiltrating the wound with human rabies immune globulin, and administering four doses of rabies vaccine IM on days 0, 3, 7, and 14.
b) PEP must be initiated within 14 days of rabies virus exposure in order to be effective.
c) Immunocompromised individuals who have never been vaccinated for rabies should receive a fifth rabies vaccine at day 28 to complete the PEP regimen.
d) Exposed individuals who have been vaccinated for rabies prior to exposure should receive two doses of rabies vaccine on days 0 and 3.
b) PEP must be initiated within 14 days of rabies virus exposure in order to be effective.
31
Which of the following geographic distributions of major rabies virus variants in the US is incorrect?
a) Fox – Alaska and Arizona
b) Raccoon – Mid-Atlantic, Northeast, Southeast
c) Skunk – Midwest, Southwest, California
d) Canine – Southwest
e) Mongoose – Puerto Rico
d) Canine – Southwest
32
What animal is the leading cause of rabies transmission to humans globally; in the U.S.?
a) Domestic dog; feral cat
b) Mongoose; fox
c) Domestic dog; bat
d) Bat; raccoon
e) Bat; bat
c) Domestic dog; bat
33
True or false: Seasonal flu vaccination will not prevent infection with bird flu viruses, but can reduce the risk of getting sick with human and bird flu viruses at the same time.
True
34
Which of the following rodent species is not a reservoir for hantavirus in the United States?
a) Mastomys natalensis (multimammate rat)
b) Sigmodon hispidus (cotton rat)
c) Peromyscus maniculatus (deer mouse)
d) Oryzomys palustris (rice rat)
e) Peromyscus leucopus (white footed mouse)
a) Mastomys natalensis (multimammate rat)
35
Which of the following is/are true about Newcastle Disease virus (NDV) (select all that apply)?
a. NDV is reportable to the USDA
b. NDV can survive for several weeks in both warm and humid organic environments (e.g., feathers, manure) and in frozen material
c. Newcastle vaccination is recommended for routine administration in backyard flocks
d. Newcastle vaccination may reduce mortality in poultry
e. Newcastle vaccination eliminates viral shedding in poultry
a. NDV is reportable to the USDA
b. NDV can survive for several weeks in both warm and humid organic environments (e.g., feathers,
d. Newcastle vaccination may reduce mortality in poultry
36
For each of the FMD-susceptible species below, indicate whether that species is typically considered an indicator host, a maintenance host, or an amplifying host for the virus.
a. Pigs
b. Cattle
c. Sheep
d. Goats
a. Pigs (amplifying)
b. Cattle (indicator)
c. Sheep (maintenance)
d. Goats (maintenance)
37
True or False: FMDV can be found in all secretions and excretions from acutely infected animals, including expired air, saliva, milk, urine, feces and semen, as well as in the fluid from FMD-associated vesicles, and in amniotic fluid and aborted fetuses.
True
38
Select the best reason why vaccination for African swine fever (ASF) is not practiced
a. ASF virus is able to interfere with various cellular signaling pathways resulting in immunomodulation, thus making the development of an efficacious vaccine very challenging
b. Because a Differentiating Infected from Vaccinated Animals (DIVA) vaccine has not yet been developed, vaccination would be ineffective
c. Vaccines have not yet been licensed because of the severity of side-effects observed in vaccinated animals during vaccine testing
d. Animals vaccinated with ASF vaccine would not be safe to eat
a. ASF virus is able to interfere with various cellular signaling pathways resulting in immunomodulation, thus making the development of an efficacious vaccine very challenging
39
Which of the following is NOT a clinical sign consistent with infection with classical swine fever (CSF) virus?
a. High fever
b. Diarrhea
c. Hemorrhages of the skin
d. Cutaneous vesicles
e. Incoordination
d. Cutaneous vesicles
40
True or false: Avian Influenza viruses are susceptible to a wide variety of disinfectants, including sodium hypochlorite, 60% ethanol, quaternary ammonium compounds, aldehydes, and phenols.
True
41
Which of the following terms is correctly associated with the definition: A suspect case with a non-negative screening laboratory test result for ASF virus (PCR) at the National Veterinary Services Laboratories (NVSL) Foreign Animal Disease Diagnostic Laboratory (FADDL) or a National Animal Health Laboratory Network (NAHLN) laboratory approved for ASF Preparedness and Surge Testing.
a. Suspect case
b. Possible case
c. Presumptive positive case
d. Confirmed positive case
c. Presumptive positive case
42
Which two avian influenza H subtypes may cause LPAI and also are closely monitored for their potential to mutate into HPAI?
a. H1 and H3
b. H3 and H7
c. H5 and H7
d. H7 and H9
e. H9 and H5
c. H5 and H7
43
What is the most critical aspect of stopping a highly contagious foreign animal disease outbreak such as Highly Pathogenic Avian Influenza (HPAI)?
a. Rapid diagnosis and depopulation within 24 hours
b. Delaying any response until confirmatory diagnosis to prevent negative public perception
c. Prompt isolation and treatment of affected animals
d. Avoiding spread to highly susceptible human populations through use of PPE and educational campaigns
a. Rapid diagnosis and depopulation within 24 hours
44
Which of the following durations accurately describes the survival time (and infectivity to pigs eating contaminated meat) of Classical Swine Fever (CSF) in meat?
a. 3 days at refrigeration temperatures; immediately killed upon freezing
b. 30 days at refrigeration temperatures; 12 hours at frozen temperatures
c. 3 months at refrigeration temperatures; 4 years at frozen temperatures
d. 6 months at refrigeration temperatures; 10 years at frozen temperatures
c. 3 months at refrigeration temperatures; 4 years at frozen temperatures
45
True or false: During outbreak situations in high density pig areas, CSF has been shown to spread through airborne transmission up to 1 km away
True
46
Matching: match the listed FAD with its incubation period
a. CSF
b. ASF
c. HPAI
d. FMD
e. vND
i. 2-6 days
ii. 2-14 days
iii. 2-14 days
iv. 4-19 days
v. Up to 21 days
a-iii, b-iv, c-v, d-ii, e-i
47
Which of the following is true relative to vaccination for classical swine fever (CSF) (select all that apply)
a. Both modified live and subunit (marker) vaccines are available
b. DIVA (differentiating infected from vaccinated animals) are available
c. Available vaccines require an initial and a booster shot
d. No approved vaccines are available
e. Routine vaccination is used in states that have experienced prior outbreaks
a. Both modified live and subunit (marker) vaccines are available
b. DIVA (differentiating infected from vaccinated animals) are available
48
How many distinct serotypes of foot and mouth disease (FMD) are there?
a. 3
b. 7
c. 35
d. 60
b. 7
49
Which of the following species of animals are susceptible to FMD (select all that apply)?
a. Cattle
b. Pigs
c. Small ruminants (sheep and goats)
d. Deer, elk, reindeer
e. Elephants
a. Cattle
b. Pigs
c. Small ruminants (sheep and goats)
d. Deer, elk, reindeer
e. Elephants
50
Which of the following can be considered a “disease firewall” that can help keep foreign animal diseases out of domestic herds in the US (select all that apply)?
a. U.S. border protection
b. State entry requirements
c. Source herd health status
d. Quarantine procedures
e. Annual vaccination protocols
a. U.S. border protection
b. State entry requirements
c. Source herd health status
d. Quarantine procedures
51
Fill in the blank: list 6 or 7 key ‘areas’ that are important to include in a biosecurity plan (hint: one example is vehicles/equipment).
Animal movement (on/off), personnel, manure/litter/bedding management, feed/water, wildlife/rodent/other animal control, and carcass disposal.
52
True or false: While there are several vaccines available for protection against both respiratory disease and abortion as a result of EHV-1 infection, at this time there is no equine licensed vaccine that has a label claim for protection against neurologic disease (EHM).
True
53
Which of the following regarding porcine epidemic diarrhea virus (PEDv) is true?
a. Although PEDv is a coronavirus that is related to TGE virus, tests for TGE virus will not detect PEDv
b. The only known carriers of PEDv include pigs and mustelids (e.g., ferrets, mink)
c. PEDv is rapidly eliminated in cold and dry conditions
d. In previously naïve herds, PEDv causes nearly 50% mortality in preweaned pigs
e. The most important preventive measure for PEDv is vector elimination and exclusion.
a. Although PEDv is a coronavirus that is related to TGE virus, tests for TGE virus will not detect PEDv
54
Which of the following is not a vector-borne viral disease of ruminants (select all that apply)?
a. Heartwater
b. Bovine ephemeral fever
c. Akabane
d. Peste des petits ruminants
e. Lumpy skin disease
a. Heartwater
| d. Peste des petits ruminants
55
All of the following statements pertaining to rabbit hemorrhagic disease (RHD) virus are true except:
a. Because it is a non-enveloped virus, it persists easily in the environment
b. A killed vaccine is available for use only in outbreak situations
c. Incubation period is approximately 14 days
d. Stop movement is an important aspect of disease control
e. It can be spread through both direct and indirect contact
c. Incubation period is approximately 14 days
56
Prevention against vesicular stomatitis virus is focused on which of the following?
a. Routine vaccination of susceptible animals
b. Control of biting insect vectors
c. Frequent updates to movement/health certificate requirements based on risk
d. Biosecurity interventions aimed at reduction of transmission by personnel (fomites)
e. Testing of imported feed ingredients
b. Control of biting insect vectors
57
Detections of bluetongue virus correspond to the geographic range of which vector?
a. Aedes aegypti
b. Anopheles stephensi
c. Culex tritaeniorhynchus
d. Amblyomma americanum
e. Culicoides sonorensis
e. Culicoides sonorensis
58
Which of the following viruses is capable of reassortment (select all that apply)?
a. Equine herpesvirus 1
b. Bluetongue virus
c. Influenza virus
d. Epizootic hemorrhagic disease virus
e. Lumpy skin disease viru
b. Bluetongue virus
c. Influenza virus
d. Epizootic hemorrhagic disease virus
59
8. Which of the following is a route of transmission that, in recent years, has been of increasing concern for spread of equine infectious anemia (EIA) virus?
a. Direct contact from subclinically infected horses
b. Vectorborne transmission from stable flies
c. Iatrogenic transmission from shared needles
d. Venereal transmission through fresh or frozen semen
e. Lactogenic transmission from mare to foal
c. Iatrogenic transmission from shared needles
60
Which of the following is a primary focus of control programs for equine viral arteritis virus?
a. Targeted vaccination of pregnant mares within 3 months prior to foaling
b. Identification and isolation of carrier stallions
c. Strict biosecurity procedures for personnel working on equine operations
d. Rodent control measures
e. Control of the vector Aedes aegypti
b. Identification and isolation of carrier stallions
61
Malignant Catarrhal Fever virus belongs to which virus family?
a. Herpesviridae
b. Poxviridae
c. Arenaviridae
d. Bunyaviridae
e. Flaviviridae
a. Herpesviridae
62
Malignant catarrhal fever virus belongs to which virus family?
a. Herpesviridae
b. Poxviridae
c. Arenaviridae
d. Bunyaviridae
e. Flaviviridae
a. Herpesviridae
63
Which of the following statements related to Peste des petits ruminants virus is true?
a. It is a single stranded, non-enveloped RNA virus
b. It is environmentally hardy
c. It is typically spread via indirect contact
d. Most effective control measures include import controls, movement restrictions, testing, and quarantine
e. It is resistant to common disinfectants
d. Most effective control measures include import controls, movement restrictions, testing, and quarantine
64
Which of the following paired statements about Schmallenberg viruses are correct?
a. As an orthobunyavirus, it is non-zoonotic
b. To address emergence of this virus in the EU, importations of live ruminants from the EU have been prohibited
c. As detections of the virus in Europe have not occurred in the past three years, new outbreaks in the area would be considered an epidemic
d. As the virus primarily replicates in reproductive tissue, clinical signs are only exhibited in fetuses or newborn ruminants
e. As an enveloped virus, it is sensitive to disinfectants
e. As an enveloped virus, it is sensitive to disinfectants
65
Which of the following related to harvested cervids is true (select all that apply):
a. Because the natural host range for CWD appears to be limited to cervids, the CDC does not currently recommend testing for healthy-looking cervids
b. Because of the increase in incidence of CWD in cervids in the US, CDC recently changed their guidance regarding testing of harvested cervids from “recommended” to “required”
c. Because of the potential risk to humans of prion-associated disease, the CDC currently recommends hunters test their harvested cervids for CWD prior to consumption
d. Because of the potential risk to humans of prion-associated disease, some states and provinces currently require mandatory submission of CWD test samples from harvested cervids
e. Because of the potential risk to humans of prion-associated disease, the CDC currently recommends that meat or other tissues from CWD-positive animals should not be consumed.
c. Because of the potential risk to humans of prion-associated disease, the CDC currently recommends hunters test their harvested cervids for CWD prior to consumption
d. Because of the potential risk to humans of prion-associated disease, some states and provinces currently require mandatory submission of CWD test samples from harvested cervids
e. Because of the potential risk to humans of prion-associated disease, the CDC currently recommends that meat or other tissues from CWD-positive animals should not be consumed.
66
Which of the following is not an arboviral encephalitis virus?
a. West Nile fever
b. Bovine ephemeral fever
c. Venezuelan equine encephalitis
d. Powassan disease
e. Cache Valley virus
b. Bovine ephemeral fever
67
Which of the following viruses are spread by Culicoides biting midges?
a. Orbiviruses
b. Orthobunyaviruses
c. Rhabdoviruses
d. A and B
e. A, B, and C
e. A, B, and C
68
Which of the following poxviruses is USDA notifiable and affects multiple species, but is not thought to affect humans?
a. Sheep Pox
b. Bovine papular stomatitis virus
c. Fowlpox virus
d. Swinepox virus
e. Vaccinia virus
a. Sheep Pox
69
True or false: The global eradication of rinderpest was primarily accomplished by administering an attenuated live vaccine to all cattle and domesticated buffalo greater than one year of age.
True
70
The World Organization for Animal Health (WOAH, formerly OIE) Global Eradication program has the goal of eradicating which livestock disease by 2030?
a. Rinderpest
b. Contagious Bovine Pleuropneumonia (CBPP)
c. Dracunculiasis
d. Peste des petits ruminants (PPR)
d. PPR, a paramyxovirus morbillivirus, is the one agent that WOAH is currently targeting for eradication. Rinderpest, also a paramyxovirus morbillivirus, was declared eradicated in 2011. It is not extinct since it still exists in labs. CBPP, a mycoplasma, has a vaccine but is not being eradicated at this time. Dracunculiasis is a dog and human pathogen that is being eradicated by efforts led by The Carter Center. Dogs were found to be a reservoir in 2012, well after the eradication efforts began. This was a huge setback since it was discovered that the parasite resides in more than one host species, which complicates the epidemiology of eradication. The parasite has also been found in aquatic animals and a few cats.
71
The innate immune system contains
a. Antibodies
b. T lymphocytes
c. B lymphocytes
d. Macrophages
d. Macrophages.
Ab, T and B lymphocytes are part of the adaptive immune system.
72
Sterilizing immunity
a. Prevents transmission of the pathogen to new hosts
b. Is synonymous with protective immunity
c. Is mediated by the innate immune system
d. Is always cross protective between serotypes
a. Sterilizing immunity causes elimination before replication. Protective immunity may allow some replication and mild clinical signs. Antibodies are the main mediators of sterilizing immunity. Pathogens can escape sterilizing immunity by mutation and formation of new serotypes.
73
You are giving foot and mouth (FMD) vaccine to valuable breeding stock during an outbreak confined to the eastern 1/3 of your state. This is an example of
a. Stamping-Out Modified with Emergency Vaccination to Kill
b. Stamping-Out Modified with Emergency Vaccination to Slaughter
c. Stamping-Out Modified with Emergency Vaccination to Live
d. Emergency Vaccination to Live without Stamping-Out
c. Stamping-Out Modified with Emergency Vaccination to Live. “Depopulation of clinically affected and in-contact susceptible animals and vaccination of at-risk animals, without subsequent depopulation of vaccinated animals. Vaccinated animals intended for breeding, slaughter, or other purposes live out their useful lives. This is a protective emergency vaccination strategy, where the goal is to protect susceptible animals from infection using emergency vaccination with the deliberate intent to maintain vaccinates for the duration of their usefulness. This is a targeted vaccination of non-infected animals, and may include vaccination of valuable genetic stock, long-lived production animals, or areas with high population density”.
74
Rabbit Hemorrhagic Disease is
a. An arenavirus
b. Prevented through vaccination and biosecurity
c. Vector-borne
d. Rodent-borne
b. RHD is a foreign animal disease.
he APHIS Center for Veterinary Biologics (CVB) has authorized Emergency Use Authorization (EUA) of Rabbit Hemorrhagic Disease Vaccine, Serotype 2, Killed Baculovirus Vector, manufactured by Medgene Labs, Establishment 474, Brookings, South Dakota. The CVB is evaluating data to support issuance of a conditional license.
CVB discontinued the import of vaccines against Rabbit Hemorrhagic Disease Virus when the EUA was initiated.
75
The APHIS Center for Veterinary Biologics (CVB) has authorized Emergency Use Authorization (EUA) of Rabbit Hemorrhagic Disease Vaccine, Serotype 2, Killed Baculovirus Vector, manufactured by Medgene Labs, Establishment 474, Brookings, South Dakota. The CVB is evaluating data to support issuance of a conditional license.
CVB discontinued the import of vaccines against Rabbit Hemorrhagic Disease Virus when the EUA was initiated.
c. Visitors should wait five days before being around livestock. Shoes should remain in the country visited and not brought back to the USA. Wash clothing worn overseas in hot water and dry with heat, best not to ever use this clothing around livestock again. Do not take phones into livestock facilities while overseas.
76
Put in order the following, from least to most effective in destroying pathogens
a. Sterilants
b. Disinfectants
c. Detergents
d. Sanitizers
c, d, b, a
77
FMD Vaccines in the USA are
a. Ready-to-use multivalent vaccines which can deploy quickly
b. Manufactured post diagnosis using a vaccine precursor
c. DIVA (Differentiate Infected from Vaccinated Animals) so that an outbreak would not impact WOAH status
d. MLV vaccines that induce rapid immunity
e. Used in the place of “stamping-out”
b. Manufactured post diagnosis using a vaccine precursor
The vaccine precursor is called a Vaccine Antigen Concentrate or VAC.
78
True or False: The National Scrapie Eradication Program has the goal of eradicating classical scrapie from the USA so that USA can meet WOAH’s “scrapie free” statu
True
79
Which of the following swine vesicular diseases are in the USA?
a. SVD, Swine Vesicular Disease
b. BTV, Blue Tongue Virus
c. SVV, Seneca Valley Virus
d. VE, Vesicular Exanthema
c. SVV, Seneca Valley Virus
SVD and VE are FADs. BTV infects ruminants, not pigs
80
A pig is diagnosed with erysipelas. What domestic disease was in the rule out list before diagnosis?
a. ASF, African Swine Fever
b. CSF, Classical Swine Fever
c. Septicemic salmonellosis
d. Hog Cholera
Trivia bonus: What is the name of the rash in humans from E. rhusiopathiae?
c. Septicemic salmonellosis
ASF and CSF are FADs. Hog Cholera is another name for Classical Swine Fever. Erysipeloid is the name of the rash in humans.
81
When vaccinating for FMD outbreak in the USA, which species are priority for vaccination?
a. Cow-calf so that there is not spillover into wildlife sharing pasture
b. Pigs since they are effective at amplifying FMD virus
c. Sheep and goats since they may be unrecognized sub-clinical spreaders
d. Dairy cattle since they are vulnerable and important to the food chain
e. Zoo animals so that FMD will not become endemic in threatened species
d. Dairy cattle since they are vulnerable and important to the food chain
82
Feral swine are reservoirs for which zoonotic diseases in the USA?
a. Brucellosis caused by Brucella scrofus
b. ASF, Africa Swine Fever
c. PED, Porcine Epidemic Diarrhea
d. PRRS, Porcine Respiratory and reproductive Syndrome
e. Tularemia caused by Francisella tularensis
f. Aujeszky’s disease
e. Tularemia caused by Francisella tularensis
83
Which prion diseases may be present in USA cattle?
a. CWD
b. vCJD
c. atypical BSE
d. Scrapie
e. Kuru
c. atypical BSE
84
The following are core epidemiologic concepts in controlling FADs which enter the USA. Give a one-word answer to summarize each concept.
1. Prevent contact between pathogen and susceptible animals
2. Stop production of virus by infected or exposed animals
3. Increase disease resistance or decrease shedding of susceptible animals
4. In the case of ASF, prevent ASF from becoming established in _________ swine populations and from becoming established in competent vectors.
Quarantine, depopulation, vaccination, feral
85
The persistently infected (PI) BVD calf
a. Was infected shortly after birth before colostral immunity was effective
b. Was infected with cytopathic BVD in-utero
c. Will normally have a positive titer for BVD three weeks after birth
d. May progress to Mucosal Disease
e. Was infected with BVD, a Paramyxovirus, in-utero
d. May progress to Mucosal Disease
86
During a nationwide 72 hour “stop order” after a finding a suspected FAD, can veterinarians do farm visits?
a. Only if they are outside of the control area
b. If inside a control area, only to farms which are not infected
c. If outside of control area, have clients bring their animals to your clinic haul-in facilities to prevent your truck from becoming a fomite
d. Herd health visits can occur inside a control zone without restrictions since veterinarians are considered essential workers
a. Only if they are outside of the control area
87
WOAH helps to control transboundary diseases by:
a. Restricting trade of animal products from countries impacted by transboundary diseases.
b. Strengthening veterinary services in countries who are members of WOAH
c. Updating the list of WOAH reportable disease every three years
d. Production and banking of FMD vaccine in Sub-Sahara Africa
b. Strengthening veterinary services in countries who are members of WOAH
88
USDA VS Select Agents and Toxins include which organism?
a. Streptococcus zooepidemicus
b. Rinderpest virus
c. STEC E. coli
d. St. Louis encephalitis
e. Dengue fever virus
b. Rinderpest virus
89
20. Which agent/disease is a DNA virus?
a. FIV
b. Rabies
c. CSF
d. RVF
e. EHV-1
e. EHV-1
a. FIV (retrovirus/RNA)
b. Rabies (lyssavirus/RNA)
c. CSF (flavivirus/RNA)
d. RVF (bunyaviradae/RNA)
e. EHV-1 (herpesviridae/DNA)
90
1. What rabies virus variant was eliminated from the U.S. in 2007?
a. Eastern raccoon rabies virus variant
b. Arctic fox rabies virus variant
c. Canine rabies virus variant
d. North central skunk rabies virus variant
e. Mongoose rabies virus variant
c. Canine rabies virus variant
91
What national program likely played a major role in the decrease of raccoon rabies cases following the peak in 1993?
a. The US Rabies Prevention Program, established by the CDC Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP) and USDA APHIS Veterinary Services, which provides guidance on effective control of rabies, a vaccine-preventable disease, in the U.S.
b. U.S. National Rabies Surveillance System (NRSS), which relies on state and local jurisdictions to operate frontline rabies surveillance and man¬agement programs and share notifiable data with the CDC, in accordance with Council of State and Territorial Epidemiologists recommendations.
c. National Rabies Management Program (established by USDA APHIS Wildlife Services in cooperation with local, state and federal partners), which implements oral rabies vaccination as an important rabies control tool.
d. The US National Rabies Surveillance System (NRSS), which is a laboratory-based system consisting of approximately 130 public health, agriculture, and academic laboratories that conduct animal rabies testing.
c. National Rabies Management Program (established by USDA APHIS Wildlife Services in cooperation with local, state and federal partners), which implements oral rabies vaccination as an important rabies control tool.
92
Which of the following statements about plague is false?
a. Cats are more likely to develop severe clinical signs than dogs.
b. Among domesticated animals, cats are most likely to transmit plague to humans.
c. Rodents and pikas (a type of lagomorph) are the most important host species for plague because they develop bacteremia high enough to infect flea vectors.
d. Rodents and pikas (a type of lagomorph) are the most important host species for plague because they do not become ill from the disease.
e. Plague is caused by the gram negative bacillus Yersinia pestis (family Enterobacteriaceae).
c. Rodents and pikas (a type of lagomorph) are the most important host species for plague because they develop bacteremia high enough to infect flea vectors.
93
Which of the following is not a method used to prevent plague in the U.S.?
a. Vaccinate prairie dogs
b. Vaccinate people living in endemic regions
c. Treat prairie dog burrows with insecticide
d. Administer flea preventives to pets regularly
e. Rodent-proof homes
b. Vaccinate people living in endemic regions
94
True or False: In 2022, Burkholderia pseudomallei was identified for the first time in the environment in the continental United States.
True
95
What causes murine typhus?
a. Rickettsia rickettsii
b. Ehrlichia typhi
c. Salmonella typhimurium
d. Rickettsia typhi
d. Rickettsia typhi
96
Which of the following zoonoses is prevented through animal vaccination?
a. Rift valley fever
b. Foot and mouth disease (FMD)
c. Middle Eastern Respiratory Syndrome (MERS)
d. Tuberculosis (TB)
a. Rift valley fever
FMD is not zoonotic. There’s no animal vaccine for MERS and TB.
97
Which of the following rodent species is not a reservoir for hantavirus in the United States?
a. Mastomys natalensis (multimammate rat)
b. Sigmodon hispidus (cotton rat)
c. Peromyscus maniculatus (deer mouse)
d. Peromyscus leucopus (white footed mouse)
a. Mastomys natalensis (multimammate rat)
98
Which of the following zoonotic parasites is immediately infective upon excretion from the definitive host?
a. Ancylostoma braziliense
b. Toxoplasma gondii
c. Toxocara canis
d. Cryptosporidium parvum
d. Cryptosporidium parvum
Ancylostoma braziliense (zoonotic hookworm) reaches infective (third larval stage) 1-2 weeks after excretion. Toxoplasma gondii oocysts become infective within 1-5 days of excretion. Toxocara canis eggs reach infective third larval stage 1-4 weeks after excretion. Cryptosporidium parvum is immediately infective upon excretion.
99
Which of the following zoonotic viruses cause neurologic signs in pigs?
a. Lassa virus
b. Reston ebolavirus
c. Nipah virus
d. Influenza A virus
c. Nipah virus
100
According to CDC, which of the following is not confirmation of mpox infection in a dog?
a. Isolation of mpox in culture from a clinical specimen AND presence of mpox DNA by polymerase chain reaction (PCR) testing or DNA sequencing
b. Presence of mpox DNA by PCR in specimens collected from skin lesions
c. Presence of mpox DNA by PCR or DNA sequencing AND presence of anti-orthopoxvirus antibodies
d. Evidence of orthopoxvirus in pox lesions or other tissues by immunohistochemistry OR electron microscopy testing methods, AND presence of mpox DNA by PCR or DNA sequencing
b. Presence of mpox DNA by PCR in specimens collected from skin lesions
101
At minimum, what personal protective equipment should be worn when collecting samples from an animal with suspected mpox infection?
a. Disposable gown, gloves, and a fit-tested NIOSH-approved N95 particulate respirator
b. Disposable gown, gloves, eye protection (safety glasses, goggles, or face shield), and a fit-tested NIOSH-approved N95 particulate respirator
c. Disposable gown, gloves, eye protection (safety glasses, goggles, or face shield), and a KN95 particulate respirator
d. Gloves, eye protection (safety glasses, goggles, or face shield), and a KN95 particulate respirator
b. Disposable gown, gloves, eye protection (safety glasses, goggles, or face shield), and a fit-tested NIOSH-approved N95 particulate respirator
102
Dogs are the major reservoir for what species of Leishmania?
a. Leishmania infantum
b. Leishmania donovani
c. Leishmania braziliensis
d. Leishmania mexicana
a. Leishmania infantum
103
True or False: The disease caused by SARS-CoV-2 in animals is called Coronavirus Disease 2019 or COVID-19.
False
COVID-19 is the name for the disease in humans. In animals, it’s just referred to as SARS-CoV-2 infection.
104
Which of the following is NOT an arenavirus?
a. Lassa virus
b. Chapare Hemorrhagic Fever virus
c. Crimean Congo Hemorrhagic Fever (CCHF) virus
d. Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis virus (LCMV)
e. Machupo virus
c. Crimean Congo Hemorrhagic Fever (CCHF) virus
Vruses in the family Arenaviridae are generally spread by rodents, with each virus associated with one, or a few, closely related rodent species that serve as the virus’ natural reservoir.
a. Lassa virus
b. Chapare Hemorrhagic Fever virus
c. Crimean Congo Hemorrhagic Fever (CCHF) virus (Bunyaviridae)
d. Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis virus (LCMV)
e. Machupo virus
105
True or false: The reservoir for Marburg virus is known to be the African fruit bat, Rousettus aegyptiacus, but the reservoir for Ebola virus is not yet known.
True
106
Which of the following statements regarding Hendra virus is true?
a. The virus is endemic in horses in Australia
b. The virus is highly contagious between horses
c. A vaccine is available for people at high risk of exposure
d. Human infection is characterized by influenza-like illness, multiorgan failure, and progressive encephalitis
e. Use of personal protective equipment is thought to be of minimal benefit in veterinarians working with horses suspected to be infected with the virus
d. Human infection is characterized by influenza-like illness, multiorgan failure, and progressive encephalitis
107
There were 5 confirmed human rabies cases in the US in 2021, all of which were fatal. Of these, 4 occurred after direct contact with a bat in the US. In 4 of the 5 cases, post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) was not sought. What was the most common reason that patients did not seek or receive PEP following their exposures?
a. Vaccine hesitancy, which has increased since the COVID-19 pandemic
b. Unable to obtain medical care due to overwhelmed system during COVID-19 pandemic
c. Fear of needles
d. Not knowing that bats can transmit rabies
d. Not knowing that bats can transmit rabies
108
You are working at the emergency veterinary clinic on Friday night, and you receive a call from an ER physician about a patient who just returned from India, where she was bitten by a rhesus macaque two days ago. The wound appears to be infected, so the physician’s plan is to prescribe antibiotics and to recommend rabies PEP since the rabies status of the macaque is unknown. The physician asks you if there are any other diseases they should be concerned about. What should you tell the physician?
a. Rabies and bacterial infection are the two biggest concerns, so you agree with their treatment plan.
b. You recommend calling the state public health veterinarian for a consultation first thing Monday morning.
c. B virus (a herpesvirus) is a major concern in this case because it is endemic in macaque populations and can cause fatal encephalitis in people if not treated promptly.
d. Simian hemorrhagic fever virus (an arterivirus) is a zoonotic virus that causes a disease similar to Ebola virus disease in people, so the patient should be quarantined for 21 days.
c. B virus (a herpesvirus) is a major concern in this case because it is endemic in macaque populations and can cause fatal encephalitis in people if not treated promptly.
109
A pregnant Boer goat aborts a fetus at the county fair while three children and their mother, who is 6 months pregnant, are standing beside the pen. What zoonotic diseases are of concern in this situation (choose all that apply)?
a. Brucellosis
b. Tuberculosis
c. Q fever
d. Leptospirosis
a. Brucellosis
c. Q fever
d. Leptospirosis
110
Which of the following are factors that lead to disease emergence and reemergence. Check all that apply.
a. Increased population of humans
b. Intensification of animal agriculture
c. Increased exposure of humans to wild animals and their habitats
d. Climate change
e. Environmental degradation
f. Transfer of pathogens between species
g. Global travel and trade
h. Accidental or deliberate introduction/release of novel agents
All the above. Transboundary and Emerging Diseases of Animals p. 21.
111
Put the following organisms in order from least to most resistant to disinfection.
a. Prions
b. Coccidia
c. Mycobacteria
d. Non-enveloped viruses
e. Enveloped viruses
f. Vegetative bacteria
g. Fungal spores
f, e, d, g, c, b, a
112
Cleaning and disinfection protocol involves the following steps. Are these steps in the correct order? Yes, or no?
a. Remove all grossly visible debris.
b. Wash the area or item with water and detergent.
c. Rinse cleaned area to remove detergent residue.
d. Allow the area to dry completely.
e. Select and apply the appropriate, effective disinfectant.
f. Allow the proper contact time.
g. Rise away any residual disinfectant
h. Allow the area or item to dry.
Yes
113
Match the common name with the scientific name.
a. Brown dog tick 1. Ixodes scapularis
b. Lonestar tick 2. Haemaphysalis longicornis
c. Gulf coast tick 3. Amblyomma maculatum
d. Deer or blacklegged tick 4. Amblyomma americanum
e. Longhorn tick 5. Dermacentor variabilis
f. American dog tick 6. Rhipicephalus sanguineus
a-6
b-4
c-3
d-1
e-2
f-5
114
WHO has confirmed a current outbreak of Marburg Virus disease (MVD) in Equatorial Guinea (13 February 2023) and is testing cases from Cameroon. This follows outbreaks in 2021 in Guinea (1 case), and in Ghana June -September 2022 (3 cases, 2 fatalities). In 2018, the UC Davis PREDICT program doing testing in Sierra Leone discovered active Marburg Virus infection in Egyptian rousette fruits bats (Rousettus aegyptiacus). Are the following statements True or False?
a. Finding MARV in bats before it spread to humans in West Africa is the result of passive surveillance.
b. Marburg and Ebola are from the viral family, Filoviridae.
c. Risk factors for Marburg Virus Disease in humans include contact with African fruit bats, contact with MARV infected human patients, and MARV infected non-human primate exposure.
d. Marburg is not on the list of CDC-USDA select agents.
e. MARV is named after Marburg, Rhodesia where the virus was first discovered.
a. False (it is active surveillance)
b. True
c. True
d. False (both Marburg and Ebola are on the list)
e. False (it is named after Marburg, Germany where in 1967 lab workers developed MVD after exposure to imported infected African green monkeys or their tissues.)
115
The following is an objective from P. 28 One Health Joint Plan of Action (2022-2026). Working together for the health of humans, animals, plants, and the environment. Rome.
“Reduce the risk and minimize the local and global impacts of zoonotic epidemics and pandemics by understanding the linkages and drivers of emergence and spillover, adopting upstream prevention measures and strengthening One Health surveillance, early warning and response systems.”
The “Quadripartite” published this document. Give the full names of each organization in this quadripartite.
a. FAO
b. UNEP
c. WHO
d. WOAH
Food and Agriculture Organization
United Nations Environment Program
World Health Organization
World Organization for Animal Health
116
Haemaphysalis longicornis, also known as the Asian longhorned tick, spreads Theleria orientalis Ikeda. Which of the of the following is correct?
a. The tick exists in all 48 continental states.
b. Theleria orientalis Ikeda is zoonotic.
c. The tick is parthenogenetic.
d. Tetracyclines are the approved treatment of choice for Theileriosis.
c. The tick is parthenogenetic.
117
Which of the following strategies should be employed for tick control in livestock operations?
a. Environmental spraying to eliminate ticks in pastures.
b. Allowing ticks to remain on animals so that they develop herd immunity.
c. Limit pasture exposure of animals to nighttime when ticks are less active.
d. Keep pastures short.
d. Keep pastures short.
118
Lyme disease: (fill in the blank)
a. Is caused by the weakly staining gram-negative spirochete named:
b. Is maintained by what reservoir hosts:
c. Is expanding in geographic area due to:
d. Is transmitted in North America by tick Genus:
e. Ticks need to be attached how long to transmit the organism:
a.Is caused by the weakly staining gram-negative spirochete named: Borrelia burgdorferi sensu lato complex, which includes B. burgdorferi sensu stricto and B. mayonii.
b. Is maintained by what reservoir hosts: Mammals, birds, reptiles – especially rodents, shrews, other small mammals. Cervids provide blood meals, but do not amplify or maintain the bacteria.
c. Is expanding in geographic area due to: Changes in land use including more forest, people, deer, rodents and ticks moving into these forested areas, climate change and the impact on reservoirs.
d. Is transmitted in North America by tick Genus: Ixodes sp.
e. Ticks need to be attached how long to transmit the organism: One to two days
119
See graphic below. The biosecurity concept, “line of separation” should help producers:
a. Decide to fence the entire farm, including pasture and crop lands.
b. Know that all on-farm animals are inside the “line of separation.”
c. Having a line of separation lessens the need for routine cleaning and disinfection since the area inside the “line” remains uncontaminated.
d. Use equipment for multiple tasks since it is inside the “line.”
b. Know that all on-farm animals are inside the “line of separation.”
120
"A subset of select agents and toxins have been designated as Tier 1 because these biological agents and toxins present the greatest risk of deliberate misuse with significant potential for mass casualties or devastating effect to the economy, critical infrastructure, or public confidence, and pose a severe threat to public health and safety.”
Which of the following agent is from the USDA Veterinary Services List of Tier 1 Agents?
a. African Swine Fever Virus
b. Peste des petits ruminants virus
c. Foot and Mouth disease virus
d. Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever virus
c. Foot and Mouth disease virus
121
Which of the following bacteria is usually acquired from the environment?
a. Burkholderia pseudomallei
b. Burkholderia mallei
Bonus: What is the name of the disease cause by b.
a. Burkholderia pseudomallei (Melioidosis)
Burkholderia mallei = Glanders
122
Japanese Encephalitis virus:
a. Has a reservoir of pigs.
b. Is transmitted by ticks.
c. Horses and humans are dead-end hosts.
d. Resembles ASF in clinical presentation in swine.
e. Is long-lived in the environment.
c. Horses and humans are dead-end hosts.
123
1% of US households have backyard poultry. What zoonotic disease is most commonly acquired in humans from backyard poultry?
a. Salmonella infection
b. Avian influenza type A
c. Virulent Newcastle Disease
d. Coccidiosis
a. Salmonella infection
124
Seoul virus and Hanta virus are rodent-borne zoonotic diseases. What other viral disease is rodent spread?
a. Rat lungworm, Angiostrongylus cantonensis
b. Lassa fever
c. Plague
d. Leptospirosis
e. Rat bite fever
b. Lassa fever
125
Bourbon, Heartland, Powassan. What do these diseases have in common?
a. They are all spread by Haemaphysalis longicornis.
b. They all can spread human to human and cause outbreaks.
c. All are in the viral family Flaviviridae.
d. All are tick-borne.
e. All cause neurological symptoms early in the disease.
d. All are tick-borne.
126
The 2017 One Health Disease Prioritization Report outlines the ranking criteria to list eight priority zoonotic diseases for the US. Which of the following is one of the listed criteria used to rank these eight diseases.
a. Species of livestock the agent can infect.
b. Is the disease capable of aerosol transmission.
c. What is the economic impact of the disease.
d. Is the disease resistant to most antimicrobials.
e. Availability of vaccines against the disease.
c. What is the economic impact of the disease.
127
Why is Candida auris is on the Critical Priority Group of WHO fungal priority pathogens list?
a. It if found primarily in pre-school aged children, often in daycare settings.
b. It is resistant to several anti-fungal drugs.
c. It lives in the environment worldwide.
d. It spreads person to person by spores in respiratory droplets.
b. It is resistant to several anti-fungal drugs.
128
MERS
a. Has a risk factor of dromedary camel exposure.
b. Has not made an incursion into the USA.
c. Has a case fatality rate in humans approximately the same as COVID-19.
d. Is readily transmitted human to human.
a. Has a risk factor of dromedary camel exposure.
129
Ticks transmit which of the following diseases.
a. Rift Valley Fever
b. Vesicular Stomatitis
c. Dengue fever
d. Japanese encephalitis
e. Ehrlichiosis
e. Ehrlichiosis (ticks)
a. Rift Valley Fever (Mosquito)
b. Vesicular Stomatitis (Flies)
c. Dengue fever (Mosquito)
d. Japanese encephalitis (Mosquito)
130
Which of the following statements is false?
a. The four types of influenza viruses are A, B, C, and D.
b. Human influenza A and B viruses cause seasonal flu epidemics almost every winter in the U.S.
c. Influenza B viruses are the only influenza viruses known to cause flu pandemics.
d. The genetic makeup of the H1N1 virus that caused the 2009 pandemic flu was a result of multiple gene reassortments of the 1918 “Spanish flu” virus with different human, swine, and avian influenza lineage viruses.
c. Influenza B viruses are the only influenza viruses known to cause flu pandemics.
It's Flu A that causes pandemics
131
Influenza A viruses are divided into subtypes based on two proteins on the surface of the virus: hemagglutinin (H) and neuraminidase (N). What is a major function of the hemagglutinin protein?
a. Initiate transcription of the negative strand RNA into positive strand mRNA.
b. Bind to receptor on the respiratory tract epithelial cell so the virus can enter the cell.
c. Lysis of the infected respiratory tract epithelial cell to release new virions.
d. Serves as a shell encasing the virus’ genetic material.
b. Bind to receptor on the respiratory tract epithelial cell so the virus can enter the cell.
Viral polymerase does a.
Neuraminidase does c.
D refers to the capsid.
132
True or False: Wild aquatic birds (waterfowl) are the reservoirs for all known avian influenza viruses.
True
133
Avian influenza viruses are categorized as having high or low pathogenicity (highly pathogenic avian influenza (HPAI) and low pathogenicity avian influenza (LPAI)). These designations are based on pathogenicity in what animals?
a. Humans
b. Swine
c. Waterfowl
d. Domestic poultry
d. Domestic poultry
134
The highly pathogenic avian influenza virus that is currently circulating in the US and many other countries worldwide, affecting wild birds, domestic poultry, and a variety of mammalian species is:
a. Clade 2.3.4.4b A(H5N1) virus
b. Clade 2.3.4.4 A(H5N1) virus
c. Clade 2.3.2.1c A(H5N1)
d. Clade 2.3.2.1d A(H5N1)
a. Clade 2.3.4.4b A(H5N1) virus
B is one of the strains that caused the large 2015 HPAI outbreak in the US
C is the strain that caused the recent human cases in Cambodia
D may not exist (I made it up)
135
True or False: Swine influenza viruses (e.g., H1N1, H1N2, H3N2) typically cause mild respiratory disease in pigs.
True
136
True or False: Swine influenza viruses typically cause mild to moderate disease in humans, similar to seasonal influenza symptoms.
True
137
Which of the following zoonotic transmissions have been known to occur (choose all that apply)?
a. H5N1 HPAI from poultry to humans
b. H17N10 bat influenza from bats to humans
c. H3N8 equine influenza from horses to humans
d. H3N2 canine influenza from dogs to humans
e. H7N2 avian influenza from cats to humans
a. H5N1 HPAI from poultry to humans
c. H3N8 equine influenza from horses to humans
e. H7N2 avian influenza from cats to humans
138
True or False: Both highly pathogenic and low pathogenicity avian influenza viruses can cause infections in humans.
True
139
For what length of time does CDC recommend monitoring people potentially exposed to HPAI H5N1 monitor themselves for symptoms?
a. During exposure and for 5 days after the last exposure
b. During exposure and for 10 days after the last exposure
c. During exposure and for 14 days after the last exposure
d. During exposure and for 21 days after the last exposure
b. During exposure and for 10 days after the last exposure
140
Why does CDC recommend the seasonal flu vaccine for people having occupational to poultry infected with the current outbreak strain of HPAI (H5N1)?
a. To prevent human infection with HPAI virus.
b. To reduce the severity of illness if the person becomes infected with HPAI virus.
c. To prevent the risk of transmission of HPAI virus from person to person.
d. To prevent infection with a seasonal flu virus, which could reassort with the HPAI virus if the person were to be infected with both at the same time.
d. To prevent infection with a seasonal flu virus, which could reassort with the HPAI virus if the person were to be infected with both at the same time.
141
Human infections with animal influenza viruses (a.k.a. novel influenza virus infections) are reportable to:
a. CDC and WHO
b. CDC and WOAH
c. WOAH and USDA
d. USDA and FDA
a. CDC and WHO
142
How quickly should a poultry flock be depopulated after HPAI is detected?
a. 12 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 48 hours
d. 72 hours
b. 24 hours
143
After depopulation and carcass disposal following HPAI detection on a poultry farm, cleaning and disinfection takes an average of 2-4 weeks. How lung must the farm remain empty (fallow) after cleaning and disinfection is accomplished, before environmental sampling for influenza virus PCR and isolation should begin?
a. 7 days
b. 14 days
c. 21 days
d. 28 days
c. 21 days
144
True or False: State and Federal Animal Health Officials only consider environmental sampling results when deciding whether to allow a poultry farm to restock following HPAI detection.
False
Animal health officials also consider whether sufficient time has passed since cleaning/disinfection and whether the farm is located in a control area (i.e., whether other farms in the area are affected).
145
Which of the following are impacts associated with an outbreak of an exotic avian disease (HPAI or ND)?
a. Consumer fear about the safety of the food supply and potential human illness and medical costs
b. Reduced ability to export poultry and poultry products
c. Costs associated with depopulating and disposing of animals
d. Costs of increased disease surveillance and indemnifying owners or producers
e. All are potential economic or public health impacts associated with HPAI or ND outbreaks
e. All are potential economic or public health impacts associated with HPAI or ND outbreaks
146
During the 2022-2023 highly pathogenic avian influenza H5N1 outbreak in the U.S., the virus has been detected in which mammals (choose all that apply)?
a. Skunks
b. Bears
c. Foxes
d. Bats
a. Skunks
b. Bears
c. Foxes
147
NIOSH-approved N95 respirators are recommended for respiratory protection of responders to HPAI outbreaks. In order for workers to wear N95 respirators, the Occupation Safety and Health Administration requires the workers to be enrolled in a respiratory protection program and:
a. Fit-tested at least once per year to wear a respirator
b. Medically cleared to wear a respirator
c. Trained annually on use of respirators
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
148
Avian influenza viruses belong to the genus Influenzavirus A in the family:
a. Arteriviridae
b. Flaviviridae
c. Orthomyxoviridae
d. Paramyxoviridae
c. Orthomyxoviridae
149
True or False: The OIE defines any H5 or H7 virus as HPAI if it meets certain genetic criteria, even if it does not cause severe clinical signs in chickens.
True
For the purposes of international trade, the OIE, in the Terrestrial Animal Health Code, defines an HPAI virus as a virus that
* meets specific virulence criteria when injected intravenously into young chickens
o Virulence criteria include the isolate being lethal for at least six of eight 4–8-week old chickens within 10 days when injected intravenously, or having an intravenous pathogenicity index (IVPI) greater than 1.2 in 6-week old chickens. The IVPI is a numerical scoring system used to quantify illness and deaths. or
* contains certain genetic motifs at the cleavage site of its hemagglutinin that have been associated with HPAI viruses.
o If a virus has an amino acid sequence at the cleavage site similar to any sequence that has previously been reported in an HPAI virus, then this virus is also classified as HPAI. Multiple basic amino acids are a common pattern, but other types of changes can also be seen.
150
Which of the following concerning poultry vaccination in the United States is false?
a. Vaccination for H5/H7 avian influenza is recommended for all poultry.
b. Vaccination for H5/H7 avian influenza is not allowed without the express agreement and permission of State and Federal authorities.
c. Turkey breeders may be vaccinated against H1/H3 swine lineage viruses to which they are uniquely susceptible.
d. Vaccines are commonly used to protect chickens, pheasants, some exotic birds (e.g., in aviaries or zoos) and other species from Newcastle disease.
a. Vaccination for H5/H7 avian influenza is recommended for all poultry.
151
True or False: HPAI and Newcastle Disease (ND) in poultry are clinically indistinguishable.
True
152
Which of the following is false?
a. H5 and H7 LPAI infections are reportable in all States.
b. It is advisable for poultry farms to employ workers who have contact with backyard flocks and pet birds.
c. If HPAI or ND is suspected, the USDA APHIS Area Veterinarian in Charge (AVIC) and State Animal Health Official (SAHO) should be contacted immediately.
d. Fowl cholera causes similar clinical signs in poultry as HPAI and ND.
b. It is advisable for poultry farms to employ workers who have contact with backyard flocks and pet birds.
153
What is the difference between antigenic shift and antigenic drift? What are potential outcomes for antigenic shift and drift in influenza viruses
Antigenic drift is an important reason why people can get flu multiple times over the course of their lives. Antigenic drift is also a primary reason why the composition of flu vaccines for use in the Northern and Southern Hemispheres is reviewed annually and updated as needed to keep up with evolving flu viruses.
Shift is an abrupt, major change in a flu A virus, resulting in new HA and/or new HA and NA proteins in flu viruses that infect humans. Antigenic shift can result in a new flu A subtype infecting people for the first time. Shift can happen if a flu virus from an animal population gains the ability to infect humans. Such animal-origin viruses can contain HA or HA/NA combinations that are different enough from human viruses that most people do not have immunity to the new (or “novel”) virus.
154
You are a Veterinary Medical Officer in USDA APHIS Veterinary Services stationed in North Carolina. The North Carolina Poultry Federation asks you to speak at their next monthly meeting about HPAI. There is growing concern about the outbreak of HPAI H5N1 that is spreading across the country, and poultry producers would like to know what will happen if HPAI is diagnosed on their farms. Compose a list of talking points describing how USDA APHIS would respond to a confirmed case of HPAI on a farm. You will only have about 10 minutes, so limit your list to 10 short concepts/points.
10 talking points for HPAI H5N1 Response
Detection - If you ever notice signs or symptoms that could potentially be HPAI, immediately notify your veterinarian or a USDA veterinarian to ensure diagnostic samples are taken and run as soon as possible.
Quarantine - The entire farm would immediately fall under quarantine measures, so only authorized workers are allowed in or out. This will place a stop movement on all of your poultry, poultry products, and equipment that could be impacted. This will trigger the testing of neighboring flocks to determine how far this infection has traveled.
Appraise - The USDA will work with you to detail your flock inventory to help with compensation for destroyed birds.
Depopulate - All birds within your flock will be depopulated within 24 hours to prevent further spread.
Compensate - The USDA may/can pay you a species specific rate for your flock, as well as contribute to all costs of clean up to ensure this virus is fully eliminated.
Disposal - Depending on local laws, the surrounding environment, and other conditions, the USDA will work with you to determine the best way to dispose of the carcasses. This could include burying, compositing, incineration, or other.
Elimination - All measures will be taken to ensure there are no remaining traces of the virus. This can be done through thorough cleaning and disinfecting of your farm.
Test - Once complete, and the 21 day wait period has passed, the USDA will come and conduct environmental sampling to test for any ruminants of the virus.
Restock - Once approved, you may begin to restock your facility and initiate production again. There will be serial testing on your new flock prior to release from quarantine.
Biosecurity - Lastly, it is imperative that you follow the highest biosecurity measures to prevent future outbreaks.
155
Name and describe the three transmission cycles of yellow fever virus. Describe how people can prevent becoming infected with yellow fever virus.
Yellow fever virus has three transmission cycles: jungle (sylvatic), intermediate (savannah), and urban.
The jungle (sylvatic) cycle involves transmission of the virus between non-human primates (e.g., monkeys) and mosquito species found in the forest canopy. The virus is transmitted by mosquitoes from monkeys to humans when humans are visiting or working in the jungle.
In Africa, an intermediate (savannah) cycle exists that involves transmission of virus from mosquitoes to humans living or working in jungle border areas. In this cycle, the virus can be transmitted from monkey to human or from human to human via mosquitoes.
The urban cycle involves transmission of the virus between humans and urban mosquitoes, primarily Aedes aegypti. The virus is usually brought to the urban setting by a viremic human who was infected in the jungle or savannah
156
You are a veterinary epidemiologist at the Texas Department of State Health Services (DSHS). A new canine rescue organization in Texas is importing dogs from Brazil for adoption. Because leishmaniasis is endemic in Brazil, you want to increase awareness in the veterinary community. Compose a fact sheet that will be distributed to veterinarians by the Texas board of veterinary medicine. Include the following information.
What are three forms of leishmaniasis in people? Name at least one Leishmania species that is known to cause each form.
What are clinical signs of leishmaniasis in dogs?
How is leishmaniasis transmitted between dogs and humans? Is there a vector in Texas?
How is leishmaniasis diagnosed in dogs?
Is there a treatment for dogs?
How is leishmaniasis prevented in dogs?
Leishmaniasis Fact Sheet:
What is Leishmaniasis?
Leishmaniasis is a disease caused by a small blood parasite called Leishmania.
What are the forms of Leishmaniasis?
There is cutaneous leishmaniasis which causes skin sores caused by L braziliensis.
There is visceral leishmaniasis that affects internal organs of the body caused by L infantum.
There is mucocutaneous leishmaniasis caused by L chagasi.
What are the clinical signs in dogs?
Dogs who have been infected typically present with skin sores, chapping on the muzzle or footpads, dull coats, loss of stamina, and weight loss.
How is leishmaniasis transmitted?
Leishmaniasis is commonly transmitted via the bite of sand flies that become infected from biting other animals. Less common modes of transmission are from pregnant woman to her fetus, and via blood transfusions or contaminated needles. While the disease is not endemic to Texas, the sand flies that transmit the disease are.
How do you diagnose leishmaniasis in dogs?
Leishmaniasis is diagnosed via microscopic identification of the disease, and subsequent culture on suitable media.
How do you treat leishmaniasis in dogs?
Leishmaniasis can be treated using a chemotherapeutic protocol with N-methylglucamine antimoniate, Allopurinol, or Miltefosine. However, it is common for patients to have relapsing infections.
How do you prevent leishmaniasis in dogs?
The best way to prevent leishmaniasis in dogs is to protect them against the sand flies using preventive measures such as the Scalibar collar.
157
You are a practicing veterinarian at a companion animal practice that sees dogs, cats, and a variety of pocket pets (e.g., rabbits, rats, hamsters, guinea pigs). A global outbreak of mpox (formerly known as monkeypox) is occurring in people, with human-to-human transmission.
Your employer asks you to write a brief that she can use at tomorrow’s staff meeting to educate the clinic staff (receptionists, animal care/veterinary assistants, and licensed technicians) about mpox in animals. Limit your answer to 300 words, and use complete sentences.
In your brief, be sure to:
Identify the causative agent and one important reservoir host species.
Describe how mpox can be transmitted to humans and whether animals are playing a role in transmission during the current (2022) outbreak.
Describe if transmission from humans to their pets can occur.
Describe clinical signs of the disease in humans and in animals.
Describe a plan to protect staff and other patients if an animal with suspected mpox presents to the clinic for evaluation.
After the briefing at the staff meeting, one of the technicians says he heard that mpox is a select agent.
What is a select agent?
What federal agency or agencies oversee the possession, use and transfer of biological select agents and toxins?
Why is the 2022 mpox outbreak virus exempt from select agent regulations?
A client calls and says that, earlier this week, he was diagnosed with mpox. He would like to know how he can prevent spreading it to his dog. What advice and resources would you provide?
Good Morning. Due to the increasing numbers of mpox in the country, I wanted to discuss a few points about the virus that are pertinent to our area of practice. This virus is caused by a poxviridae virus, is a complex dsDNA virus, and is believed to have many small rodents as reservoirs. It is possible to have animal to human transmission as this virus is highly zoonotic. The most common type of transmission currently is human-to-human, but it is still possible for people to spread to their pets at home. Therefore, people with mpox should avoid contact with their pets in accordance with CDC guidelines. The most common symptoms in humans are the rash, while animals have various symptoms to include lethargy, change in appetite, coughing, nasal or eye secretions, and skin rashes. In order to protect our staff, any pets that present with a history of exposure, will be handled by personal wearing full PPE. This is to include disposable surgery gowns, gloves, eye protection, and a N95 mask. If you have further questions, please come see me to discuss further.
A select agent is a biological agent that has the potential to pose a severe threat to the public’s health and safety, to include animal health.
The CDC is the primary agency to oversee the possession, use and transfer of biological select agents and toxins.
The 2022 mpox outbreak is exempt due to the ability to treat and availability of vaccines for prevention.
I would provide the client with the “Pets in the Home - Mpox” link on the CDC website. I would explain that it is best to avoid contact with his pets, have a friend or family member take care of his pets until he is healed, and to stay on top of disinfecting home surfaces and any other objects that may serve as fomites, such as the bedding, toys, and food dishes. I would highly discourage surrendering or euthanizing his pet, and to avoid wiping or bathing his pets with any thing other than pet approved shampoo.
158
Describe the clinical signs of anthrax in domestic herbivores including the time to onset.
Clinical signs typically become apparent within 3-7 days but can occur from 1-14 days. Progression is rapid and discovery of deceased animals can be the first noted problem. Peracute presentation in cattle and sheep can include dyspnea, staggering, collapse, and rapid death. Acute disease is noted by “an abrupt fever” that fades to depression and anorexia. Diarrhea, hematuria, subcutaneous emphysema, tremors, abortion, disruption of milk production, and bloody discharges can be seen. Incomplete rigor mortis and rapid carcass decomposition are noted to occur. Pigs can develop acute septicemia and succumb, recover, or develop subacute or chronic infection noted in “cervical lymph nodes and tonsils when slaughtered.”
159
What are the three primary methods used to control anthrax outbreaks?
Annual vaccination is recommended as prevention, but quarantine, appropriate carcass disposal, and prevention of additional infections are the primary controls in an outbreak.
