Epi Flashcards

1
Q

In a case-control study to investigate atresia coli in cattle, it was found that Holstein-Friesian calves were significantly more likely to have atresia coli than all other breeds combined.
a) What statistical test was used to make this determination?

b) What is the null hypothesis for this particular test (you can use mathematical notation or English)?

A

a) Chi-square

b) No association between breed of cattle and atresia coli.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Women who had been exposed to a pesticide, DDE, were followed for 20 years. At the start of the study period, the women completed a questionnaire and had blood drawn, and the women were classified as having either low dose or high dose exposure. Of the 792 women who had high dose exposure to DDE, 430 were later diagnosed with breast cancer. Of the 3,525 women with low dose exposure to DDE, 1,079 were later diagnosed with breast cancer.
a) What type of study design is this?

b) What is the cumulative incidence of breast cancer for those exposed to high doses of DDE?
c) What measure of association is appropriate to calculate for this study design?

A

a) Cohort study

b ) 430 / 792 = 54%

c) Relative risk (RR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Women who had been exposed to a pesticide, DDE, were followed for 20 years. At the start of the study period, the women completed a questionnaire and had blood drawn, and the women were classified as having either low dose or high dose exposure. Of the 792 women who had high dose exposure to DDE, 430 were later diagnosed with breast cancer. Of the 3,525 women with low dose exposure to DDE, 1,079 were later diagnosed with breast cancer.

d) Please calculate the Risk Ratio. Please show all calculations, including the 2-by-2 table.
e) Interpret the calculated measure of association.

f) Please calculate the attributable risk percent. You will remember that the attributable risk percent (attributable fraction among the exposed) is calculated by
(Riskexposed – Riskunexposed) / Riskexposed
which can be reduced to
(RR – 1) / RR or (OR – 1) / OR

g) Interpret the attributable risk percent.

A

d)
Present Absent Total

High dose ex 430 362 792
Low dose ex 1079 2446 3525
1509 2808

Risk
430/792 = 0.54
1079/3525 = 0.31

RR = 0.54/0.31 = 1.77

e) Women who had high dose exposure to DDE had 1.77 times the risk of developing breast cancer than did women who had low dose exposure to DDE.
f) (1.77 – 1) / 1.77 = 43.5%
g) If high dose exposure to DDE were prevented in the group of women exposed to high dose DDE exposure, we would prevent at most 43.5% of the breast cancer cases in that group.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Mounts et al. conducted a study to determine risk factors for avian influenza A (H5N1) disease in humans in the 1997 Hong Kong outbreak (J Infect Dis. 1999 Aug;180(2):505-8.).
In May 1997, a 3-year-old boy in Hong Kong died of a respiratory illness related to influenza A (H5N1) virus infection, the first known human case of disease from this virus. An additional 17 cases followed in November and December. A ___________ study of 15 of these patients hospitalized for influenza A (H5N1) disease was conducted using controls matched by age, sex, and neighborhood to determine risk factors for disease. Exposure to live poultry (by visiting either a retail poultry stall or a market selling live poultry) in the week before illness began was significantly associated with H5N1 disease (64% of cases vs. 29% of controls, odds ratio, 4.5, P=.045). By contrast, travel, eating or preparing poultry products, recent exposure to persons with respiratory illness, including persons with known influenza A (H5N1) infection, were not associated with H5N1 disease.

a) What study design was used by the investigators?
b) Why did the investigators match the controls by age, sex and neighborhood?
c) Interpret the p-value for the association between exposure to live poultry and infection with H5N1
d) The authors report the p-value, but not the confidence interval. In this study would you expect the confidence interval to be narrow or wide, and why?

A

a) Case-control
b) To control for potential confounding by those variables.
c) If there really is no association between exposure to live poultry and H5N1 infection in humans, then we would expect to see an odds ratio as big as 4.5 due to chance alone 4.5% of the time. Thus, chance is unlikely to account for our findings and we can say the result is statistically significant.
d) Wide, because the sample size is very small (15 cases).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The following abstract is from a study conducted by Brooker et al. to investigate hookworm infection, anemia and iron deficiency. (Trans R Soc Trop Med Hyg. 2006 Oct 4).
Surprisingly few detailed age-stratified data exist on the epidemiology of hookworm and iron status, especially in Latin America. We present data from a ________________ examining 1332 individuals aged 0-86 years from a community in south-east Brazil for hookworm, anemia and iron deficiency. Sixty-eight percent of individuals were infected with the human hookworm Necator americanus. Individuals from poorer households had significantly higher prevalence and intensity of infection than individuals from better-off households. The prevalence of anemia, iron deficiency and iron-deficiency anemia was 11.8%, 12.7% and 4.3%, respectively. Anemia was most prevalent among young children and the elderly. Univariate analysis showed that hemoglobin and serum ferritin were both significantly negatively associated with hookworm intensity among both school-aged children and adults. Multivariate analysis showed that, after controlling for socio-economic status, iron indicators were significantly associated with heavy hookworm infection. Our results indicate that, even in areas where there is a low overall prevalence of anemia, hookworm can still have an important impact on host iron status, especially in school-aged children and the elderly.
a) What study design is used by the investigators?

b) What is one limitation of this study design?

A

a) Cross-sectional
b) Can’t determine temporal relationship between potential risk factors and the outcome. Thus, you can’t proceed to assess whether any identified associations are causal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A case-control study was conducted to examine the association between oral contraceptive (OC) use and myocardial infarction.
Myocardial infarction Controls
Did use OCs 39 24
Did not use OCs 114 154

a) What measure of association is appropriate to calculate for this study design?
b) Please calculate that measure of association. Please show all calculations.
c) The investigators were concerned about potential confounding or effect modification by age. What conditions must be met in order for a variable to be a confounder?

A

a) Odds ratio (OR)
b) OR = ad / bc = (39 * 154) / (24 * 114) = 2.2
c) Must be associated with both the risk factor and the outcome, but not on the causal pathway from risk factor to outcome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A case-control study was conducted to examine the association between oral contraceptive (OC) use and myocardial infarction.
A stratified analysis was conducted to assess whether age was a confounder or effect modifier.

Age < 40
Myocardial infarction Controls
Did use OCs 21 17
Did not use OCs 26 59

OR=2.8

Age ≥ 40
Myocardial infarction Controls
Did use OCs 18 7
Did not use OCs 88 95

OR=2.8

a) Is age an effect modifier? Why or why not?
b) A Mantel-Haenszel measure of association was determined to be 2.74. Is age a confounder? Why or why not?
c) Which measure(s) of association do you report (please give the numeric value(s))?
d) Interpret your results.

A

a) Age is NOT an effect modifier because the stratum-specific ORs are the same and therefore the association between OC use and MI is NOT modified by the third variable, age.
b) Yes, age is a confounder because 2.74 is appreciably different than 2.2. Thus, age confounds the true relationship between OC use and MI.
c) Report the ORMH = 2.74
d) Women who have had an MI have 2.74 times the odds of having used OCs than women who have not had an MI, controlling for the effects of age.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are three ways to control for confounding in epidemiologic studies?

A
Randomization
Restriction
Matching
Stratification
Multivariate analysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The following question is on a questionnaire designed to investigate the effect of coffee consumption on cardiovascular disease.
How much coffee do you drink?
i. 1 cup
ii. 2-3 cups
iii. 3-5 cups
iv. More than 5 cups
a) Describe two things that are wrong with this question and its available answers.

b) Re-write the question to correct the issues you identified.

A

a) No timeframe (per day, per week, etc.)
Not all possible options for answers are listed (“none” is not an option, etc.)
Categories are not mutually exclusive
“Cup” not defined

b) How many 8 oz. cups of coffee do you drink per day?
a. None
b. 1 cup
c. >1 up to and including 3 cups
d. > 3 up to and including 5 cups
e. More than 5 cups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the ecologic fallacy?

A

Ascribing characteristics and associations demonstrated at the group level to individuals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Fifteen hundred adult males working for Lockheed Aircraft were first examined in 1951 and were classified by diagnosis criteria for coronary artery disease. Every 3 years they were examined for new cases of this disease; attack rates in different subgroups were computed annually. This is an example of a

a) Cross-sectional study
b) Prospective cohort study
c) Retrospective cohort study
d) Ecologic study
e) Case-control study

A

b) Prospective cohort study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following is not an advantage of a prospective cohort study?

a) Incidence rates can be calculated
b) Precise measurement of exposure is possible
c) Recall bias is minimized compared with a case-control study
d) Many disease outcomes can be studied simultaneously
e) It usually costs less than a case-control study

A

e) It usually costs less than a case-control study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

One hundred patients with infectious hepatitis and 100 matched neighborhood well controls were questioned regarding a history of eating raw calms or oysters within the preceding 3 months. What kind of study design is this?

a) Cross-sectional study
b) Prospective cohort study
c) Retrospective cohort study
d) Ecologic study
e) Case-control study

A

e) Case-control study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

All of the following are important criteria when making causal inferences except:

a) Replication of findings
b) Temporal relationship
c) Null hypothesis
d) Strength of association
e) Biologic plausibility

A

c) Null hypothesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Geographic variations were determined in the incidence of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). Incidence of IBD was observed highest in areas with higher socioeconomic status, the lowest rates of enteric infection, and with the highest rates of multiple sclerosis. This is an example of a

a) Cross-sectional study
b) Prospective cohort study
c) Retrospective cohort study
d) Ecologic study
e) Case-control study

A

d) Ecologic study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A case-control study is characterized by all of the following except:

a) Study participants are selected based on disease status
b) Assessment of past exposure may be biased
c) It is relatively inexpensive compared with most other epidemiologic study designs
d) Incidence rates may be computed directly
e) Definition of cases may be difficult

A

d) Incidence rates may be computed directly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Define sensitivity and write the calculation.

A

a test’s ability to designate an individual with disease as positive

Sn=True Positives (TP)/Total with Disease (TD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Define Specificity and write the calculation.

A

Specificity is the proportion of people WITHOUT Disease X that have a NEGATIVE blood test. A test that is 100% specific there are no false positives.

Sp=Test Negatives (TN)/ Total without disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Define PPV and write the calculation.

A

The positive predictive value is the probability that following a positive test result, that individual will truly have that specific disease.

PPV=Test Positives/Total Positives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Define NPV and write the calculation.

A

The likelihood that an individual with a negative test result is truly unaffected

NPV=Test negatives/Total Negatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

You are evaluating a new diagnostic test by comparing it to a gold standard.
Gold Standard
Positive Negative New Positive 260 95
Negative 65 1640
Total. 325 1735

For the following questions, please show all calculations.
a. What is the sensitivity of the test?

b. What is the specificity of the test?
c. What is the predictive value positive of the test?
d. What is the predictive value negative of the test?
e. What is the prevalence of disease in this example (based on the results of the gold standard test)?
f. What happens to the predictive value positive if the prevalence decreases?

A

a) Sensitivity = TP / Total with disease = 260 / 325 = 80%
b) Specificity = TN / Total without disease = 1640 / 1735 = 95%
c) PVP = TP / Total positives = 260 / 355 = 73%
d) PVN = TN / Total negatives = 1640 / 1705 = 96%
e) 325 / (325 + 1735) = 15.8%
f) If prevalence decreases then PVP decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

You are investigating risk factors for the development of feline vaccine-associated sarcomas and one of your hypotheses is that vaccination against FeLV is a risk factor for sarcoma development. To test this hypothesis, you identify 30 cats with sarcomas and 60 control cats from hospital records. Of the cats with sarcomas, 23 had a previous FeLV vaccination and in the control group, 17 cats had a previous FeLV vaccination. Note that this is hypothetical data only.

a. What type of study design was used here?
b. Set up a 2x2 table for the study and calculate the odds ratio and the relative risk for development of feline vaccine-associated sarcoma after vaccination against FeLV.
c. What is your best estimate of risk for vaccine-associated sarcoma after vaccination against FeLV? Please include the numeric value.
d. What is one potential source of bias in this study?

A

a) Case-control study

b) Sarcoma
Positive Negative Total vac yes 23 17 40
vac no 7 43 50
Total 30 60 90

OR = ad/bc = (2343) / (177) = 989 / 119 = 8.3

RR = (a / h1) / (c / h2) = (23 / 40) / (7 / 50) = 0.575 / 0.14 = 4.1

c) Case-control study so OR estimates risk. OR = 8.3
Cases had 8.3 times the odds of having been vaccinated against FeLV than did controls.

d)
Selection bias –
a) only hospital cats, may not be representative of larger cat population
b) Were control cats old enough to have developed a sarcoma?

Information bias –

a) were records similar for cases and controls?
b) Data abstraction issues

Confounding – e.g., age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

BACKGROUND: In May 2003 the Soest County Health Department was informed of an
unusually large number of patients hospitalized with atypical pneumonia. METHODS: In exploratory interviews patients mentioned having visited a farmers’ market where a sheep had lambed. Serologic testing confirmed the diagnosis of Q fever. To investigate risk factors for infection we conducted a ____ A_______ study (cases were Q fever patients, controls were randomly selected Soest citizens) and a _____B______ study among vendors at the market. RESULTS: A total of 299 reported Q fever cases was linked to this outbreak. The [first] study identified close proximity to and stopping for at least a few seconds at the sheep’s pen as
significant risk factors. Vendors within approximately 6 meters of the sheep’s pen were at increased risk for disease compared to those located farther away. The ewe that had lambed as well as 25% of its herd tested positive for C. burnetii antibodies. CONCLUSION: As a consequence of this outbreak, it was recommended that pregnant sheep not be displayed in public during the 3rd trimester and to test animals in petting zoos regularly for C. burnetii.

a) The first study (labeled A) is an example of a
a. Cross-sectional study
b. Prospective cohort study
c. Retrospective cohort study
d. Ecologic study
e. Case-control study

The second study (labeled B) is an example of a

a. Cross-sectional study
b. Prospective cohort study
c. Retrospective cohort study
d. Ecologic study
e. Case-control study

A

a) e. Case-control study

b) c. Retrospective cohort study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are advantages of a cross-sectional study?

A

Used to prove and/or disprove assumptions.

Not costly to perform and does not require a lot of time.

Captures a specific point in time.

Contains multiple variables at the time of the data snapshot.

The data can be used for various types of research.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are disadvantages to a cross-sectional study?

A

Cannot be used to analyze behavior over a period to time.

Does not help determine cause and effect.

The timing of the snapshot is not guaranteed to be representative.

Findings can be flawed or skewed if there is a conflict of interest with the funding source.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the advantages of a Prospective cohort study?

A

They can provide better quality of data on the primary exposure and also on confounding variables

Since exposures are assessed before outcomes occur, they are less prone to bias.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the disadvantages of a Prospective cohort study?

A

They are more expensive and time consuming.

They are not efficient for diseases with long latency.

Losses to follow up can bias the measure of association.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the advantages of a Retrospective cohort study?

A

They are useful for rare exposures, e.g., unusual occupational exposures

They are cheaper and faster than prospective cohort studies

They are more efficient for diseases with a long latency period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the disadvantages of a Retrospective cohort study?

A

Exposure data may be inadequate and there may be inadequate data on confounding factors, such as smoking, alcohol consumption, exercise, other health problems, etc.; old records were not designed to be used for future studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the advantages of an Ecologic study?

A

The aggregate data used is generally available, so they are quick and inexpensive

They are useful for early exploration of relationships

They can compare phenomena across a wider range of populations and sites.

Some exposures of interest can only be studied with aggregate population level data, such as the effect of smoking bans and rates of heart attacks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the disadvantages of an Ecologic study?

A

Can’t directly link the risk factor to the disease, i.e., it is not clear that the people who ate the most meat were the ones who got colon cancer. This is sometimes referred to as “ecological bias” or the “ecological fallacy.”

No effective way of taking into account, or adjusting for, other factors that influence the outcome (confounding factors).

Ecologic studies can be misleading when evaluating non-linear relationships.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the advantages of a Case-control study?

A

They are efficient for rare diseases or diseases with a long latency period between exposure and disease manifestation.

They are less costly and less time-consuming; they are advantageous when exposure data is expensive or hard to obtain.

They are advantageous when studying dynamic populations in which follow-up is difficult.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the disadvantages of a Case-control study?

A

They are subject to selection bias.

They are inefficient for rare exposures.

Information on exposure is subject to observation bias.

They generally do not allow calculation of incidence (absolute risk).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Epidemiologic models can be useful for all of the following except:

a. Predicting effectiveness of programs
b. Organizing and storing knowledge about a disease process
c. Predicting risk or consequences of disease
d. Identifying an individual’s risk factors for disease
e. Developing policy

A

d. Identifying an individual’s risk factors for disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

To be effective, surveillance systems should incorporate all of the following except:

a. Generation of information for action
b. Disease eradication
c. Ongoing data collection
d. Systematic data collection
e. Timely information dissemination

A

b. Disease eradication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Surveillance system design should aim at

a. Maximizing the probability of true early detection
b. Incorporating as many sampling architectures as possible
c. Minimizing the probability of a false-positive alarm
d. All of the above
e. a and c only

A

e. a and c only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

It is important if treatment at the pre-symptomatic stage has a more favorable outcome than treatment initiated once the patient is symptomatic.

T/F?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The lead time is defined as the period in the natural history of the disease in which treatment is more effective and/or less difficult to administer.

T/F?

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The critical point in the natural history of a disease is the point before which treatment is more effective and/or less difficult to administer.

T/F?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

In order for a screening program to be effective, there does not need to be an accepted treatment for patients identified with the disease

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

If α is our false-positive error rate, or the probability of making a Type I error, and β is our false negative error rate, or the probability of making a Type II error, what is power?

A

Power is 1 – β, the probability of detecting a difference if one truly exists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

For a given α and measure of association, how can an investigator increase the power of a study?

A

Increase the sample size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Probability sampling

a. Refers to several sampling strategies
b. Allows investigators to generalize the results from the sample to the population
c. Allows calculation of the standard error of the resulting population estimates
d. All of the above
e. a and b only

A

d. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

A true lack of association may be difficult or impossible to distinguish from a true association that cannot be detected statistically because of inadequate _________.

a. α (alpha)
b. β (beta)
c. Power
d. Detection rates
e. Error rates

A

c. Power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The use of a Geographic Information System (GIS) allows an investigator to assess all of the following except:

a. The cohort effect
b. Whether there is a spatial pattern
c. Whether patterns co-distribute
d. If risk factors differ with location
e. How disease spreads

A

a. The cohort effect

46
Q

The specific morbidity rate is usually the number of:
a. Cases of a specific disease per 1,000,000 population
b. Deaths from a specific disease for a geographical area
c. Cases of a specific disease for a political area
d. Deaths from a specific disease per 100,000 population
e. Deaths from a specific disease per 100 cases of that disease

A

a. Cases of a specific disease per 1,000,000 population

Morbidity relates to who gets sick from an illness. The denominator can be persons if the time period is specified, or person-years.

47
Q

For the following 2x2 table for a diagnostic test, write out expressions for each term:

Disease + Disease -

Exposure + A B
Exposure - C D

a. Specificity
b. PPV
c. Total population
d. NPV
e. Prevalence
f. Sensitivity

A

a. Specificity: d/(b+d)
b. PPV: a/(a+b)
c. Total population: a+b+c+d
d. NPV: d/(c+d)
e. Prevalence: (a+c)/(a+b+c+d)
f. Sensitivity: a/(a+c)

48
Q

The amount of health disorder existing in a population at one particular time, regardless of time of onset is known at the:
a. Prevalence
b. Incidence
c. Morbidity rate
d. Mortality rate
e. Attack rate

A

a. Prevalence

49
Q

In prospective study or cohort type of epidemiologic study, two types of cohorts are selected. One of these is the exposed and the other is______; the measure of effect used in this study is _________
a. Cases; odds ratio
b. Susceptible; risk ratio
c. Affected ; relative risk
d. Non-exposed; incident rate ratio
e. Immune populations; odds rati

A

d. Non-exposed; incident rate ratio

Textbook definition of a cohort study – following exposed and non-exposed over time to see who develops the disease.

50
Q

The duration of a chronic disease process may complicate the epidemiologic study of its prevalence because of:
a. Loss of people or animals from the study by death from other causes
b. Changes in diagnostic techniques during the period of study
c. Changes in medical or veterinary care during the period of study
d. Decrease in interest level on the part of workers in the study
e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above

51
Q

When an epidemiologist is called to investigate a communicable disease emergency, the first thing he/she should try to determine is:
a. Possible sources of infection
b. Methods of transmission
c. Accuracy of the diagnosis
d. Methods of control
e. Extent of spread

A

c. Accuracy of the diagnosis

52
Q

The occurrence in a community or region of cases of an illness in the human population clearly in excess of normal expectancy and derived from a common propagated source is an:
a. Epidemic
b. Endemic
c. Pandemic
d. Epizootic
e. Anthropozoonosis

A

a. Epidemic

53
Q

Which of the following agent characteristics is most likely to be seen in a disease which occurs in epidemic proportions:
a. High infectivity
b. High pathogenicity
c. High virulence
d. Low antigenicity
e. Viability

A

a. High infectivity

For this question, I return to my definition of the R0, which is the average number of new cases of an infection caused by one typical infected individual, in a population consisting of susceptibles only. When R0>1, an epidemic occurs. R0 depends on the transmissibility or infectivity of the agent, the contact rate between hosts, and the time spent infectious. So if the infectivity of the agent increases, you’re more likely to have an epidemic.

54
Q

In a study of alcohol and oral cancer the relative risk is 2.0 for men and 2.0 for women but 4.0 for both sexes combined. This suggests that:

a. There is confounding by sex in these data

b. There is confounding by some unknown or unmeasured factor in these data

c. There is evidence of effect modification in these data

d. The results have been adjusted for age and sex

e. The results are due to bias

A

a. There is confounding by sex in these data

General rule of thumb is that when you stratify by your variable of interest, it will be a confounder if both stratified effect estimates are similar and more than 10-15% different from the crude estimate. If the effect estimates had gone in different directions (e.g., 3 for males, 6 for females), we’d be considering effect modification by sex. This is a nice “summary table” of when a variable is a confounder, effect modifier or nothing.

55
Q

A new treatment is developed that prevents death but does not produce recovery from disease. Which of the following will occur?a. Prevalence will increase
b. Prevalence will decrease

c. Incidence will increase

d. Incidence will decrease

e. None of the above

A

b. Prevalence will decrease

56
Q

In a country where a disease is endemic:
a) The number of affected animals tends to stay more or less constant over time

b) There have been at least 2 outbreaks of that disease in the past 5 years

c) The disease has persisted in that population for a long time

d) The vaccine for that disease is probably not used in a widespread manner

A

c) The disease has persisted in that population for a long time

57
Q

As a dairy practitioner, you read with great interest a recent paper describing a clinical trial testing a new drug to treat mastitis. This drug, called Masticate™, is touted as costing half the price and being easier to administer than most other therapies for mastitis. The paper tested this drug against the current standard of care, and the authors found no difference in cure rates. You decide to try it in your herd. Six months later, you find that Masticate™ is actually less effective than the drug you used before – whereas before, your cure rate was around 80%, now your cure rate is closer to 65%. Which of the following is the LEAST likely possible explanation for the discrepancies between your experience and the findings reported in the paper?

a) The sample size in the original paper was small, and therefore the study was underpowered to detect the difference you found.

b) The authors of the paper defined a successful cure differently than you did.

c) The animals enrolled in the study were primiparous cows only; your herd has a mix of different aged cows, and the results may therefore not have been generalizable to your herd.

d) The authors were not blinded to the treatment and therefore could have scored the cows receiving Masticate™ more generously.

e) The batch of drugs you used was defective.

A

e) The batch of drugs you used was defective.

58
Q

A case control study compared the amount of daily coffee drank by patients with pancreatic cancer (cases) and patients with other GI conditions (controls). The study found a dose-response association between drinking coffee and pancreatic cancer that persisted when adjusting for cigarette smoking. What is the most likely explanation for the findings of the study? For bonus points, provide an explanation for why.

a) A true association – drinking coffee causes pancreatic cancer (yikes!)

b) Information bias

c) Selection bias

d) Confounding

A

c) Selection bias

i.e., who gets into or stays in the study. This is a historical example so you may have heard of it, but you can come up with a likely explanation. Because controls often had GI issues such as esophagitis, ulcers, etc., they self-limited coffee consumption. Their coffee consumption was lower than that of the general population, so it appeared that cases drank more coffee. The controls were not representative of the general population to which we would like to extrapolate our findings, so we have an issue of information bias here. D. Confounding is also a possibility – we controlled for smoking but there could be other unmeasured confounders.

59
Q

In a country with a population of 6 million people, 60,000 deaths occurred during the previous year. These included 30,000 deaths from cholera in 100,000 people who were sick with cholera.

What was the cause-specific mortality rate from cholera during the previous year?
a. 5%

b. 10%

c. 50%

d. 5 per 1000

e. 10 per 1000

A

d. 5 per 1000

Cause-specific mortality rate per 1,000 population = # of deaths from that cause/# of people in the population x 1000 = 30,000 cholera deaths/6 million population x 1000 = 5 per 1000.

60
Q

In a country with a population of 6 million people, 60,000 deaths occurred during the previous year. These included 30,000 deaths from cholera in 100,000 people who were sick with cholera.

What was the case-fatality from cholera in the previous year?
a. 1%

b. 5%

c. 10%

d. 30%

e. 50%

A

d. 30%

Case fatality rate = # dead from the disease/# with the disease

61
Q

The mortality rate from disease X in city A is 75/100,000 in persons 65 to 69 years old. The mortality rate from the same disease in city B is 150/100,000 in persons 65 to 69 years old. The inference that disease X is two times more prevalent in persons 65 to 69 years old in city B than it is in persons 65 to 69 years old in city A is:

a. Correct

b. Incorrect, because of failure to distinguish between prevalence and mortality

c. Incorrect, because of failure to adjust for differences in age distributions

d. Incorrect, because of failure to distinguish between period and point prevalence

e. Incorrect, because a proportion is used when a rate is required to support the inference

A

b. Incorrect, because of failure to distinguish between prevalence and mortality

The two studies are describing mortality rates, and mortality can differ in two populations for many reasons other than the prevalence of the disease (e.g., other risk factors for death in one population but not the other).

62
Q

Which one of the following frustrations would you most likely expect in preparing to carry out cohort studies on animal disease?
a. Costly and time consuming, and plagued by the continual changing of the cohort.
b. Difficult time in selecting a comparison group or control population upon which to test your hypothesis.
c. Cohort populations are unchanging, and that no new individuals are introduced into the study population.
d. Data collected retrospectively is often incomplete, and plagued by high degrees of institutional bias.
e. Unable to get accurate estimates of incidence or prevalence of the disease using the cohort study technique.

A

a. Costly and time consuming, and plagued by the continual changing of the cohort.

Cohort studies, especially prospective cohort studies, tend to be more expensive, and they take longer to conduct because you’re following forward in time. I would argue D is also an acceptable answer, as investigators using retrospective data have much less control over the cohort and less ability to be confident in the completeness of their data. Answers b and e tend to apply more to case-control studies.

63
Q

One of your clients has a feedlot containing 15,000 cattle, 10,000 of which are susceptible. In a current outbreak of disease, 3,000 became sick and 300 died. The case fatality rate was:
a. 10%
b. 25%
c. 2%
d. 30%
e. 3%

A

a. 10%

. CFR=the proportion of animals that die from a specified disease among all individuals diagnosed with the disease over a certain period of time

64
Q

What study plan would be best to determine the effectiveness of a new vaccine in preventing disease in humans?
a. Case-control study.
b. Cohort study.
c. Prevalence study.
d. Morbidity study.
e. Retrospective study.

A

b. Cohort study.

For an observational study, you want to compare outcomes among who was exposed, i.e., vaccinated) and unexposed (non-vaccinated). For an experimental study, a randomized control trial would be better!

65
Q

A certain causal factor is thought to be associated with an extremely rare disease. What study plan would yield the best data with limited financial and human resources?
a. Prevalence study.
b. Case-control study.
c. Prevalence study.
d. Morbidity study.
e. Case evaluation study.

A
66
Q

Match the following terms to their definitions:

A. A causal factor that is neither necessary nor sufficient, but increases the likelihood of disease, all other things being equal.

B. Any factor that must be present for the disease to occur.

C. Any factor or, more commonly a constellation of factors, that inevitably lead to the disease

i. Sufficient cause

ii. Necessary cause

iii. Contributing cause

A

A. A causal factor that is neither necessary nor sufficient, but increases the likelihood of disease, all other things being equal. iii. Contributing cause

B. Any factor that must be present for the disease to occur. ii. Necessary cause

C. Any factor or, more commonly a constellation of factors, that inevitably lead to the disease i. Sufficient cause

67
Q

The measure most sensitive to extremes is:
a. Mean
b. Median
c. Mode
d. Sample
e. Inferential

A

a. Mean

The mean is most susceptible to outliers. That is why when we have non-normally distributed or skewed data, it is more appropriate to present the median when performing descriptive statistics.

68
Q

Generalizability is best assured by:
a. Representative nature
b. Randomness
c. Sample size
d. Precise manipulation
e. Statistical validity

A

a. Representative nature

Generalizability indicates how well your results are likely to apply to other populations. If your sample population is representative of other populations, then it is likely your results are generalizable.

69
Q

Which of the following is NOT associated with a retrospective study?
a. Adaptable to conditions of low prevalence.
b. Less expensive than prospective.
c. Requires fewer personnel.
d. Takes longer to conduct.
e. Provides less accurate incidence rate.

A

d. Takes longer to conduct.

If your data are retrospective (i.e., already collected), then you take out the time factor of having to follow your population over time and accumulate cases with your desired outcome.

70
Q

An epidemic curve displays:
a. The population at risk versus the frequency of cases.
b. The frequency of cases versus the number of ill in the population.
c. The time of onset versus the population at risk.
d. The time of onset versus the frequency of incident cases.
e. The time of onset versus the number of individuals who are ill.

A

d. The time of onset versus the frequency of incident cases.

An “epidemic curve” shows the frequency of new cases over time based on the date of onset of disease.

71
Q

A decrease in the prevalence of a disease could be interpreted as a result of:
a. A reduction in the incidence.
b. A more rapid cure.
c. A shorter life span of affected individuals.
d. “a” and “c” above.
e. All of the above.

A

e. All of the above.

Again, if you consider the analogy of water in a bucket, with more water (disease individuals) entering the bucket and some leaving through a hole in the bucket, the total amount of water in the bucket (prevalence) can decrease if the incidence is lower (less water coming in), or if more are leaving the bucket through the hole (either by dying or becoming recovered).

72
Q

In the hierarchy of Scientific Evidence, what types of study provide the highest levels of evidence?

a) Cohort studies

b) Cross sectional studies

c) Randomized clinical trials

d) Meta-analyses and systematic reviews

A

d) Meta-analyses and systematic reviews

The conventional wisdom is that SR/MAs provide the highest level of evidence, because you are summarizing all of the available evidence. However, keep in mind that with a SR/MA, it is “garbage in, garbage out”, so a SR/MA is only as good as the studies that go into it.

73
Q

On a poultry farm, all of the birds are checked every day by their keepers for signs of disease and mortality. When farmers find a sick or dead bird, they alert veterinary services and can send the bird in for examination/autopsy and infectious disease testing. This is an example of:

a) Active surveillance

b) Passive surveillance

c) Targeted passive surveillance

d) Sentinel surveillance

A

b) Passive surveillance

Passive surveillance is when animals/people come to our attention because they are suspected of being cases – i.e., a system by which a health jurisdiction receives reports submitted from hospitals, clinics, public health units, or other sources. Since the lab is waiting for these dead birds to be sent to them by the farmer, this is passive surveillance.

74
Q

An investigator is performing a study to examine the effect of being overweight on experiencing CCL tears in dogs. The investigator also wants to control for age and spay/neuter status. What statistical technique does the investigator need to use to test her hypothesis?

a. Chi-square test

b. T-test

c. Linear regression

d. Logistic regression

e. Ordinal regression

A

d. Logistic regression

since the outcome is categorical (injury or no injury) and multiple predictors are being examined, logistic regression is needed. Chi-square test could be used if we were only looking at effect of being overweight on CCL tears, but since we want to adjust for other factors, we need a multivariable model.

75
Q

Two veterinarians want to investigate a new laboratory test that identifies streptococcal infections. Dr. Kidd uses the standard culture test, which has a sensitivity of 90% and a specificity of 96%. Dr. Lamb uses the new test, which is 96% sensitive and 96% specific. If 200 animals undergo culture with both tests, which of the following is correct?

a. Dr. Kidd will correctly identify more animals with streptococcal infection than Dr. Lamb

b. Dr. Kidd will correctly identify fewer animals with streptococcal infection than Dr. Lamb

c. Dr. Kidd will correctly identify more animals without streptococcal infection than Dr. Lamb

d. The prevalence of streptococcal infection is needed to determine which vet will correctly identify the larger number of animals with the disease

A

b. Dr. Kidd will correctly identify fewer animals with streptococcal infection than Dr. Lamb

Sensitivity is how well a test can detect a case of the disease. Lower sensitivity means that the test will pick up, or correctly identify, fewer cases of the disease.

76
Q

In a colon cancer screening study, individuals 50 to 75 years old are screened with the Hemoccult test. In this test, a stool sample is tested for the presence of blood. If the Hemoccult test result is negative, no further testing is done. If the Hemoccult test result is positive, the individual will have a second stool sample tested with the Hemoccult II test. If this second sample also tests positive for blood, the individual will be referred for more extensive evaluation. What is this type of screening called, and what is the effect on net sensitivity and net specificity of this method of screening?

a. Serial testing; Net sensitivity and net specificity are both increased

b. Serial testing; Net sensitivity is decreased and net specific­ity is increased

c. Parallel testing; Net sensitivity remains the same and net specificity is increased

d. Parallel testing; Net sensitivity is increased and net specificity is decreased

e. Parallel testing; Net sensitivity is decreased and net specific­ity is increased

A

b. Serial testing; Net sensitivity is decreased and net specific­ity is increased

This is serial testing, which reduces sensitivity but increases specificity. This is because, in series testing, it is harder to be a “true” negative (you need to have two tests be positive to say you have the disease), but it is easier to be a “true” negative (only need one negative result to be called disease-free)

77
Q

A diagnostic test has been introduced that will detect a certain disease 1 year earlier than it is usually detected. Which of the following is most likely to happen to the disease within the 10 years after the test is introduced? (Assume that early detection has no effect on the natural history of the disease. Also assume that no changes in death certification practices occur during the 10 years.)

a. The period prevalence rate will decrease

b. The apparent 5-year survival will increase

c. The age-adjusted mortality rate will decrease

d. The age-adjusted mortality rate will increase

e. The incidence rate will decrease

A

b. The apparent 5-year survival will increase

This should be fairly intuitive. If the detecting the disease earlier does not change the course of the disease, then it will just look like people are “surviving” longer.

78
Q

A study seeks to assess birth characteristics of dairy calves in a population.

Which of the following variables describes the appropriate measurement scale or type?

A. Continuous

B. Ordinal

C. Nominal

D. Dichotomous

a. _______ Birthweight in kilograms

b. _______ Birthweight classified as low, medium, high

c. _______ Dam classified as primiparous, multiparous

d. _______ Delivery type classified as natural, assisted, cesarean

A

a. Continuous
b. Ordinal
c. Dichotomous
d. Nominal

79
Q

A large study of serum cholesterol levels in patients with diabetes mellitus reveals that the parameter is normally distributed with a mean of 230 mg/dL and standard deviation of 10 mg/dL. According to these results, 95% of serum cholesterol observations in these patients lie between which of the following limits?

a. 220 and 240 mg/dL

b. 225 and 235 mg/dL

c. 210 and 250 mg/dL

d. 200 and 260 mg/dL

e. 220 and 260 mg/dL

A

c. 210 and 250 mg/dL

This question is asking about a 95% confidence interval. If you remember, for a normally distributed variable, the lower bound of this confidence interval is: mean – 1.96 SD, and the upper bound is mean + 1.96SD. So here, the lower bound of the CI will be 230-1.9610=210 and the upper bound will be 230+1.9610=250.

80
Q

Veterinarians at a veterinary clinic report an increased incidence of lymphoma in dogs seen at their clinic. They note that some households in the community are exposed to chemical waste from a nearby factory. They believe that chemical waste causes lymphoma. If a study is designed to evaluate this claim, which of the following subjects are most likely to comprise the control group?

a. Dogs exposed to the chemical waste that do not suffer from lymphoma

b. Dogs not exposed to the chemical waste who do not suffer from lymphoma

c. Dogs from the clinic that do not suffer from lymphoma

d. Dogs not exposed to the chemical waste that suffer from lymphoma

e. Dogs that suffered from lymphoma but got cured

A

c. Dogs from the clinic that do not suffer from lymphoma

Given that lymphoma is relatively rare and we have a suspected exposure, the best option here would be a case-control study. The cases are dogs with lymphoma. The controls would be dogs that do not have the outcome (not suffering from lymphoma). When identifying controls, we do not yet know about their exposure, so we don’t select anyone BASED on their exposure (what kind of study would we specifically doing that for?), we select only according to their outcome.

81
Q

A survey asked people how often they exceed speed limits. The data are then categorized into the following contingency table of counts showing the relationship between age group and response.

Exceed speed limit? Age
Under 30 30 or over
Always 100 40
Not always 100 160

  1. In people under the age of 30, what is the risk of always exceeding the speed limit?

a. 0.20

b. 0.40

c. 0.33

d. 0.50

A

d. 0.50

Remember, risk = those with the outcome/everyone in your category of interest. So here, 100/(100+100)=0.5

82
Q

A survey asked people how often they exceed speed limits. The data are then categorized into the following contingency table of counts showing the relationship between age group and response.

Exceed speed limit? Age
Under 30 30 or over
Always 100 40
Not always 100 160

Among people under age 30, what are the odds that they always exceed the speed limit?

a. 0.50

b. 2.0

c. 1.0

d. 0.05

A

c. 1.0

Remember that odds= p/(1-p), with p being the probability or risk of the outcome. Here, 0.5/(1-0.5)=1.0.

83
Q

A survey asked people how often they exceed speed limits. The data are then categorized into the following contingency table of counts showing the relationship between age group and response.

Exceed speed limit? Age
Under 30 30 or over
Always 100 40
Not always 100 160

What is the relative risk of always exceeding the speed limit for people under 30 compared to people over 30?

a. 2.5

b. 4.0

c. 0.5

d. 0.3

A

a. 2.5

Read the question carefully and don’t jump to the cross-product ad/bc. That calculation would give us the odds ratio. Here, it’s asking relative risk, which is risk in under 30/risk in over 30 = (100/200)/(40/200)=2.5

84
Q

A survey asked people how often they exceed speed limits. The data are then categorized into the following contingency table of counts showing the relationship between age group and response.

Exceed speed limit? Age
Under 30 30 or over
Always 100 40
Not always 100 160

What is the attributable risk of being under 30 to always exceeding the speed limit?

a. 0.20

b. 0.40

c. 0.60

d. 0.80

A

c. 0.60

The attributable risk is: the risk in the exposed – risk in the non-exposed / risk in the exposed. Here, the risk in the exposed is 100/200=0.5; the risk in the non-exposed is 40/200=0.2. AR=(0.5-0.2)/0.5=0.6.

85
Q

A study is conducted to assess the relationship between breed and end-stage renal disease in cats. Two groups of pathologists independently study specimens from 1,000 kidney biopsies. The first group of pathologists is aware of the breed of the patient from whom the biopsy came, while the second group is blinded as to the patient’s breed. The first group reports ‘hypertensive nephropathy’ much more frequently for domestic shorthairs than the second group. Which of the following types of bias is most likely present in this study?

a. Confounding

b. Nonresponse bias

c. Recall bias

d. Referral bias

e. Observer bias

A

e. Observer bias

Because the pathologist or “observer” is not blinded, they may have a pre-existing suspicion that a certain breed is associated with the outcome and may therefore more aggressively seek to find the disease of interest in that breed.

86
Q

In a study of the association between body condition score and progression of chronic kidney disease in dogs, investigators followed dogs over time and produced the following graph (see attachment)

  1. What kind of analysis does this represent, and what is the name of this graph?

a. Cohort study; Meyers-Brigg curve

b. Prognosis analysis; Mann-Whitney curve

c. Survival analysis; Kaplan-Meier curve

d. Time-to-event analysis; Bayesian curve

A

c. Survival analysis; Kaplan-Meier curve

This is a survival analysis (also called time-to-event analysis), and the curve is called a Kaplan-Meier survival curve.

87
Q

What is the approximate median survival time of dogs with the highest BCS? (see attachment)

a. 25 days

b. 200 days

c. 350 days

d. 600 days

A

c. 350 days

As a reminder, the median survival time is the time point when half of the population is still alive (or, if you look at it the other way, when half of the population has died or met the outcome of interest). Look at the top curve (where BCS=7-9). Find the point on the curve where the percent surviving is 50%. Find the x-axis value for this point. That is your median survival time.

88
Q

You are working for a local health department as head of contact-tracing for the COVID epidemic. As you contact people who may have been exposed, you need to make sure they are aware of how soon after the potential exposure they will become infectious to other people. This period represents the _______________ of the disease.

a. Incubation period

b. Latent period

c. Clinical period

d. Infectious period

A

b. Latent period

The latent period is the period from the time of infection until the infected individual is able to transmit the infection. The incubation period is the period from the time of infection to the development of symptoms. The period of time during which the infected person is able to transmit the infectious agent.

89
Q

The p-value (check all that apply)

a. Represents the probability of the observed results being obtained by chance

b. Represents the probability that the null hypothesis is true

c. Roughly represents compatibility between the data and the null hypothesis

d. Represents the probability of making a type 1 error

e. Is derived from the chi-square distribution

f. Is large when the data are very compatible with the null hypothesis

A

c. Roughly represents compatibility between the data and the null hypothesis

f. Is large when the data are very compatible with the null hypothesis

a. Represents the probability of the observed results being obtained by chance – this is FALSE because it’s missing the all important part of the statement “if the null hypothesis is true”

b. Represents the probability that the null hypothesis is true – this is false; the p-value represents the probability of observing an effect as extreme or more than we have if the null hypothesis is true

c. Roughly represents compatibility between the data and the null hypothesis – not a technical definition, but it’s the one that I find most compelling in terms of understanding the concept. Because the p-value represents the probability of observing an effect as extreme or more than we have obtained if the null hypothesis is true, it gives us an indication of how compatible the data we have are with the null hypothesis – if the p-value is very low, then the likelihood of observing the data if the null hypothesis is true is very low – hence, the data are not compatible with the null hypothesis.

d. Represents the probability of making a type 1 error – this is false – the threshold at which we decide to reject the null hypothesis (usually 0.05) is the the probability of making a type I error

e. Is derived from the chi-square distribution – not always true – the p-value CAN be derived from the chi-square distribution if our outcome and predictor variable are both categorical, but it is derived from other distributions if the outcome or predictor variables are not categorical.

f. If the p value is large, the data are very compatible with the null hypothesis, and we therefore do NOT reject the null hypothesis. If the p value is very small (like less than 0.05), the data are not very compatible with the null hypothesis and we can then confidently reject the null hypothesis and accept the alternative hypothesis.

90
Q

A randomized trial comparing the efficacy of two drugs showed a difference between the two (with a P value < 0.05). Assume that in reality, however, the two drugs do not differ. This is therefore an example of:

a. Type I error (alpha error)

b. Type 2 error(beta error)

c. 1- alpha

d. 1- beta

e. None of the above

A

a. Type I error (alpha error)

Type I error is the equivalent of a “false positive” – detecting something (i.e., an effect), when there really is nothing there. When designing hypothesis-testing studies, we “set” the parameters for type I and 2 error when performing our sample size calculation (i.e., alpha and 1-beta, which is the power of the study). We often want to limit the occurrence of type I errors more than type II errors (when we don’t find a true association), which is why alpha is usually set to be smaller than beta (often 5% vs 10-20% in sample size calculations).

91
Q

In cohort studies of the role of a suspected factor in the etiology of a disease, it is essential that (select all that apply):

a. There be equal numbers of persons in both study groups

b. At the beginning of the study, those with the disease and those without the disease have equal risks of having the factor

c. The study group with the factor and the study group without the factor be representative of the general population

d. The exposed and nonexposed groups under study be as similar as possible with regard to possible confounding factors

A

d. The exposed and nonexposed groups under study be as similar as possible with regard to possible confounding factors

For A, it’s nice if both groups have the same number of people, but it is certainly not necessary. Answer B sounds nice, and certainly both groups should be capable of having the outcome (i.e., you wouldn’t want to enroll males in a study of pregnancy), but different risks of the exposure are actually something you’re looking to study. Answer C – again, it depends what the question is. If you’re looking at an exposure that only affects a certain population, you only care about generalizability to that specific population (not the “general” population). D is correct because confounding is a major problem in observational studies such as cohort studies, so if you are aware of a potential confounder, you want to make sure it’s similarly distributed in both groups so that it does not become a true confounder.

92
Q

In general, how does non-differential misclassification bias affect the odds ratio or relative risk? For a bonus, explain why.

a. It becomes smaller than 1.

b. It becomes larger than 1.

c. It gets closer to 1.

d. It can go in either direction.

e. It has no effect.

A

c. It gets closer to 1.

Non-differential misclassification of a dichotomous outcome will generally bias toward the null (i.e., closer to a RR or OR of 1, or no effect). This is usually because it dilutes the true effect.

93
Q

In general, how does differential misclassification bias affect the odds ratio or relative risk? For a bonus, explain why.

a. It becomes smaller than 1.

b. It becomes larger than 1.

c. It approaches 1.

d. It can go in either direction.

e. It has no effect.

A

d. It can go in either direction.

Non-differential misclassification can move the numerical value of the OR or RR closer to one or further away from one. That is, it can underestimate or overestimate the strength of association (you rarely know which until it happens). To illustrate differential misclassification of outcome Rothman uses the following example”
“Suppose a follow-up study were undertaken to compare incidence rates of emphysema among smokers and nonsmokers. Emphysema is a disease that may go undiagnosed without unusual medical attention. If smokers, because of concern about health effects of smoking (such as bronchitis), seek medical attention to a greater degree than nonsmokers, then emphysema might be diagnosed more frequently among smokers than among nonsmokers simply as a consequence of the greater medical attention. Unless steps were taken to ensure comparable follow-up, an information bias would result. An ‘excess’ of emphysema incidence would be found among smokers compared with nonsmokers that is unrelated to any biologic effect of smoking. This is an example of differential misclassification, since the underdiagnosis of emphysema, a misclassification error, occurs more frequently for nonsmokers than for smokers.”

94
Q

You have conducted a cohort study examining the effect of climate on osteoarthritis in pet dogs. Your exposure is cold vs warm winters. While you did your best to match pets by age, you are concerned that there might be some confounding by age in your study. You sort the dogs into one of two age categories, less than 7 years of age and 7 years or greater. Here are some possible results. What do you conclude in each case?

3) Original odds ratio was 2.60, stratified odds ratio are 2.57 for the younger dogs and 2.62 for the older dogs.

a. There was confounding by age and the confounder was associated with an increase in disease incidence.

b. There was confounding by age and the confounder was associated with a decrease in disease incidence.

c. There was no confounding by age.

A

c. There was no confounding by age.

The new odds ratios are almost identical to the original odds ratios therefore there was no confounding.

95
Q

You have conducted a cohort study examining the effect of climate on osteoarthritis in pet dogs. Your exposure is cold vs warm winters. While you did your best to match pets by age, you are concerned that there might be some confounding by age in your study. You sort the dogs into one of two age categories, less than 7 years of age and 7 years or greater. Here are some possible results. What do you conclude in each case?

Original odds ratio was 2.60, stratified odds ratio are 1.5 for the younger dogs and 1.7 for the older dogs.

a. There was confounding by age and the confounder was associated with an increase in disease incidence.

b. There was confounding by age and the confounder was associated with a decrease in disease incidence.

c. There was no confounding by age.

A

a. There was confounding by age and the confounder was associated with an increase in disease incidence.

The new odds ratios are >15% different from the original odds ratios therefore confounding was occurring. Because the stratified estimates are smaller than the original estimates, then the confounder was associated with an increase in disease incidence.

96
Q

A group of investigators was interested in testing diagnostic ultrasound as a screen for cystic hydatid disease in sheep and goats in Kenya. The gold standard was post mortem examination of the liver and lungs. In ruminants, intestinal gases sometimes obscure the cysts so ultrasound gives some false negatives. Also, Taenia hydatigena cysts can be confused for Echinococcus granulosus cysts and so ultra sound gives some false positives. Three hundred sheep and goats were tested: 31 were positive on ultra sound and 46 were positive on post mortem examination; of these twenty five were positive on both. What is the sensitivity, specificity and positive predictive value of ultrasonography with respect to cystic hydatid disease in sheep and goats?

A
  1. Hopefully you know by now that in questions like this you have to construct the 2x2 table yourself. So, (1) draw the table, (2) put in any row or column totals first, and then and only then (3) insert those values of A, B, C or D that you know and get the rest by subtraction from the column or row totals.
97
Q

Georgiadis et al. (2000) conducted a prospective cohort study of risk factors associated with the clinical signs of iridovirus and herpesvirus-2 infections in a commercial sturgeon farm in California. They were interested in two clinical signs: mortality and runting (reduced live-weight gain). One of the risk factors was “spawn”, that is the particular mating from which the fish eggs were obtained. Here are some of their data.

Proportion of fish dead at sale time

Proportion of fish dead at sale time Proportion of runts at sale time

3rd spawn 0.02 0.16
5th spawn 0.25 0.11

What is the relative risk of mortality and runting in fish derived from the fifth spawn compared with those derived from the third spawn?

a. 12.5 and 0.69

b. 0.08 and 1.45

c. 0.055 and 0.69

d. 0.005 and 0.50

e. 12.5 and 1.45

A

a. 12.5 and 0.69

Note that it is important to not jump to the immediate conclusion that this is your standard 2x2 table from which one derives an odds ratio.In fact, the column headings here are, by definition, the cumulative incidence of death and runting respectively. Therefore: Mortality RR = 0.25/0.02 = 12.5 and RR for stunting=0.11/0.16=0.69. It’s also important to be able to quickly and efficiently translate a word problem into the relevant table and perform the necessary calculation.

98
Q

Georgiadis et al. (2000) conducted a prospective cohort study of risk factors associated with the clinical signs of iridovirus and herpesvirus-2 infections in a commercial sturgeon farm in California. They were interested in two clinical signs: mortality and runting (reduced live-weight gain). One of the risk factors was “spawn”, that is the particular mating from which the fish eggs were obtained. Here are some of their data.

Proportion of fish dead at sale time

Proportion of fish dead at sale time Proportion of runts at sale time

3rd spawn 0.02 0.16
5th spawn 0.25 0.11

The authors of this study concluded that “spawn” was not associated with runting. Given your answer to the previous question, what are two possible reasons for this conclusion?

I. The outcome was not normally distributed.

II. The confidence interval of the effect estimate contained 1.

III. A confounding variable was detected in the analysis.

IV. Because runting is relatively common, the assumption that the odds ratio approximates the relative risk is not valid.

a. I & II

b. II & III

c. III & IV

d. I & III

e. II & IV

A

b. II & III

A confidence interval including one indicates a non-significant association (like a p-value > 0.05), so this is a valid reason to accept the null hypothesis. The discovery of a confounder that resulted in stratified estimates equal to 1.0 could be another reason. Answer I makes no sense, as the outcome was a dichotomous variable (runt vs not), even though the table shows a continuous outcome (proportion). Answer IV is incorrect, because the rare disease assumption applies to a case-control study where we can only calculate the odds ratio. Because this is a cohort study, we have direct access to the relative risk.

99
Q

In many studies examining the associations between estrogens and endometrial cancer, a one-sided significance test was used. The underlying assumption justifying a one-sided rather than a two-sided test is:

a) The distribution of the proportion exposed followed a “normal” pattern

b) The expectation before starting the study was that estrogens cause endometrial cancer

c) The pattern of association could be expressed as a straight-line function

d) Type II error was the most important potential error to avoid

e) Only one control group was being used

A

b) The expectation before starting the study was that estrogens cause endometrial cancer

When using a two-tailed test, regardless of the direction of the relationship you hypothesize, you are testing for the possibility of the relationship in both directions. For example, we may wish to compare the mean of a sample to a given value x using a t-test. Our null hypothesis is that the mean is equal to x. A two-tailed test will test both if the mean is significantly greater than x and if the mean significantly less than x. When using a one-tailed test, you are testing for the possibility of the relationship in one direction and completely disregarding the possibility of a relationship in the other direction. These investigators are therefore assuming that estrogens could only cause endometrial cancer – there test does not account for the possibility that estrogens could be protective against endometrial cancer.

100
Q

Factors A, B and C can each individually cause a certain disease without the other two factors, but only when followed by exposure to factor X. Exposure to factor X alone is not followed by the disease, but the disease never occurs in the absence of exposure to factor X. Factor A is a ____________ and Factor X is _______________.

I. A necessary and sufficient cause

II. A necessary but not sufficient cause

III. A sufficient but not necessary cause

IV. Neither necessary nor sufficient

A

IV, II

Factor X= A necessary but not sufficient cause; Factor A=neither necessary nor sufficient. Note that factors that are neither sufficient nor necessary represent a more complex model but probably more accurately represents the causal relationships that operate in most chronic diseases.

101
Q

A group of investigators conducted a study to examine the correlation between dietary fat intake and breast cancer by country and produced the following graph (see uploaded document “dietaryfat_breastcancer”). What would you conclude when looking at this graph?

a) Increased intake of dietary fat causes breast cancer

b) Increased intake of dietary fat is associated with an increase in the rate of breast cancer

c) Increased intake of dietary fat might be associated with an increase in the rate of breast cancer, but we cannot say for certain due to the possibility of ecological fallacy

d) Decreased intake of dietary fat is associated with a low incidence of breast cancer.

A

c) Increased intake of dietary fat might be associated with an increase in the rate of breast cancer, but we cannot say for certain due to the possibility of ecological fallacy

The ecological fallacy is an important concept to understand – in which we ascribe to members of a group characteristics that they in fact do not possess as individuals. This problem arises in ecologic studies because we only have data for groups; we do not have exposure and outcome data for each individual in the population. Is there any use for ecologic studies then? Yes, they are useful for hypothesis generation. However, in and of themselves, they do not demonstrate conclusively that a causal association exists.

102
Q

An investigator wants to study the effect of a dog’s body condition score on the likelihood of experiencing orthopedic disease such as CCL tears or osteoarthritis. Which statistical test / method should the investigator use to test her hypothesis that a higher BCS is associated with a higher likelihood of experiencing orthopedic disease?

a. A chi-square test

b. A t-test

c. Linear regression

d. Logistic regression

e. Ordinal logistic regression

f. Poisson regression

A

d. Logistic regression

the outcome is categorical (dz/no dz) and the predictor is continuous. When the logistic regression is run, we will obtain a relative risk telling us how much every 1-unit change in BCS increases our risk of having an orthopedic injury.

103
Q

What if the investigator from the previous question wanted to examine the effect of BCS on the number of orthopedic injuries a dog experiences?

a. A chi-square test

b. A t-test

c. Linear regression

d. Logistic regression

e. Ordinal logistic regression

f. Poisson regression

A

f. Poisson regression

Poisson regression – the outcome is a count (# of orthopedic injuries). The Poisson regression model will tell us the percent change in the # of occurrences of orthopedic disease for every 1-unit increase in BCS.

104
Q

Talbot and colleagues carried out a study of sudden unexpected death in women. Refer to the following table (uploaded document “ASHD_smoking”) and answer the questions below.

Calculate the matched-pairs odds ratio for these data.

A

Since this is a matched case-control study, you look at the quotient of the informative cells (where exposure differed for cases and controls) – so cell b/c=36/8=4.5

105
Q

Talbot and colleagues carried out a study of sudden unexpected death in women. Refer to the following table (uploaded document “ASHD_smoking”) and answer the questions below.

Using data from the table, unmatch the pairs and calculate an unmatched odds ratio.

A

To unmatch the pairs and create a typical 2x2 table, you take the marginal sums of each category. So an unmatched table becomes:
Cases Controls
Smoke more than 1 pack 38 10
Smoke less than 1 pack 42 70

Then, you have your typical 2x2, and OR=ad/bc=(3870)/(4270)=6.3

106
Q

Talbot and colleagues carried out a study of sudden unexpected death in women. Refer to the following table (uploaded document “ASHD_smoking”) and answer the questions below.

What are the odds that the controls smoke 1+ pack/day?

A
107
Q

Why is the “specificity of association” criteria less weighted in the modern criteria?

A

Many modern diseases and health events are multifactorial and it can be difficult to tease out only one specific cause. For example, canine osteoarthritis may be rooted in genetics, obesity, history of trauma, etc.

108
Q

If you decide that a particular illness is caused by an infectious microorganism (viral, bacterial), why is the incubation period important to take into account?

A

The most important criteria for causation, the temporal relationship, states that exposure must precede the disease. If you can determine that the disease surfaced after a known incubation period of the virus or bacteria and you know the individual was exposed, the temporal relationship can be established. Remember, the temporal relationship is the most important criteria, but it isn’t the only criteria needed.

109
Q

Your case control study determines that a horse who was fed Green Vitamix has 1.1 greater odds of laminitis than a horse who didn’t eat Green Vitamix. Is this sufficient criteria for causation? Why or why not?

A

The 1.1 greater odds is quite slim and it would be difficult to determine with certainty that the vitamin caused the laminitis. If other criteria were strong, it may add evidence for causation. For example, other epidemiologists may have come to the same conclusion (consistency, replication of findings) but with a greater odds ratio. Or maybe there is a dose-response relationship that adds an additional criteria for causation.

110
Q

In a point-source outbreak, the majority of cases occur within what period of time (relative to the incubation period for the disease) and how would the epi curve for such an outbreak be described?

A

For a point-source outbreak, the onset of illness for the majority of cases would occur within one incubation period. The epi curve rises rapidly to a peak and then decreases.

111
Q

For a point-source outbreak, the onset of illness for the majority of cases would occur within one incubation period. The epi curve rises rapidly to a peak and then decreases.

A

In a case where a population/group of people was exposed to contaminated food over several weeks, the epi-curve would resemble that for a continuous common source outbreak, with the number of cases gradually increasing and possibly plateauing for a time before decreasing. The time period over which individuals became ill and show up on the epi curve exceeds one incubation period for the disease. In a point source outbreak, the majority of cases would occur within one incubation period.

112
Q

An outbreak of an infectious disease with spread occurring from individual to individual would be considered what type of outbreak (point-source, continuous common source, or propagated), and what is one characteristic of the generic epi curve for this type of outbreak that distinguishes it from those of the others?

A

A propagated outbreak would be consistent with an infectious disease in which spread from individual to individual occurs. The epi curve for a propagated outbreak is distinguished primarily by progressively increasing peaks (each separated by one incubation period) until such time as the number of susceptible individuals in the population declines or public health control measures are implemented.