Food Safety Flashcards
The first step in investigating an outbreak of disease is to:
a. institute treatment
b. confirm the existence of an outbreak
c. institute controls and prevention
d. search for causes
e. determine the number of cases
b. confirm the existence of an outbreak
Which of these is commonly known as the beef tapeworm?
a. Taenia pisiformis
b. Taenia solium
c. Taenia saginata
d. Taenia asiatica
c. Taenia saginata
On postmortem examination, a well-nourished cow is found to have numerous lesions of tuberculosis of the same size throughout both lungs and in the bronchial and mediastinal lymph nodes. A careful search reveals no other lesions elsewhere in the carcass. According to current USDA regulations, which of the following is the most appropriate disposition?
a. pass the carcass without restriction after condemning the lungs
b. pass the carcass for refrigeration, after condemning the lungs
c. condemn the lungs; pass the carcass for cooking
d. condemn the entire carcass
e. pass the rear quarters for cooking; condemn the forequarters
d. condemn the entire carcass
Condemn:
1. The carcass of any species (including organs and parts) [Reg. 311.2(a)] is condemned for tuberculosis when any of following conditions occur:
A. TB lesions are generalized (when lesion distribution indicates entry of the organism into the systemic circulation).
B. TB occurs in any muscle, intermuscular tissue, bone, joint, or abdominal organ (excluding the gastrointestinal tract), or in any lymph node as a result of draining a muscle, bone, joint, or abdominal organ (excluding the gastrointestinal tract).
C. TB lesions are extensive in the thoracic or abdominal cavity.
D. Active TB lesions associated with fever on antemortem.
E. TB lesions are associated with cachexia F. TB lesions are multiple, acute, and actively progressive.
G. The character of TB lesions is otherwise not indicative of a localized condition
The organism responsible for producing heat labile (LT) and heat stable (ST) enterotoxins is which of the following?
a. Enteropathogenic E.coli (EPEC)
b. Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC)
c. Enterotoxigenic E.coli (ETEC)
d. Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC)
c. Enterotoxigenic E.coli (ETEC)
The following foodborne pathogen is usually associated with ready-to-eat meats. Other modes of transmission include ingestion of contaminated soft cheeses, vegetables, and milk. Contamination is usually a post-processing problem. Its ability to grow at temperatures as low as 3 C permits multiplication in refrigerated foods.
a. Listeria monocytogenes
b. Escherichia coli 0157
c. Salmonella sp.
d. Staphylococcus aureus
e. Yersinia enterocolitica
a. Listeria monocytogenes
Eggs should be stored at what temperature?
a. 50 F
b. 55 F
c. 60 F
d. 40 F
e. 45 F
d. 40 F
The agency responsible for the Pasteurized Milk Ordinance regulations:
a. FDA
b. EPA
c. USDA-FSIS
d. USDA-APHIS
a. FDA
Which of these organisms is a spore former?
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Mycobacterium bovis
c. Streptococcus A
d. Clostridium perfringens
e. Listeria monocytogenes
d. Clostridium perfringens
The Standard Plate Count (SPC) is used for estimating bacterial populations in milk and milk products. Which of the following best describes the SPC?
a. quantitative and can differentiate pathogens from non-pathogens
b. qualitative and can differentiate pathogens from non-pathogens
c. quantitative and cannot differentiate pathogens from non-pathogens
d. qualitative and cannot differentiate pathogens from non-pathogens
c. quantitative and cannot differentiate pathogens from non-pathogens
Leading cause of illness from contaminated food or water.
a. Norovirus
b. Giardia lamblia
c. Hepatitis A virus
d. Vibrio cholera
a. Norovirus
What disease is caused by the accumulation of histamine in the flesh of fish?
a. Ciguatera fish poisoning
b. Scombrotoxin poisoning
c. Pufferfish poisoning
d. Anisakiasis
b. Scombrotoxin poisoning
Which factor does not affect the growth of microorganisms?
a. Water activity
b. PH
c. Temperature
d. Pathogenicity
d. Pathogenicity
Standards for raw milk include a somatic cell count less than ________ and an antibiotic test using Bacillus stearothermophilus zone of less than _______mm.
a. 1,000,000 and 16
b. 1,000,000 and 20
c. 750,000 and 16
d. 750,000 and 20
c. 750,000 and 16
This pathogen is one of the most common causes of foodborne disease and is associated with Gullain-Barre syndrome.
a. Salmonella sp.
b. Campylobacter jejuni
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Streptococcus sp.
b. Campylobacter jejuni
Pasteurized milk products cannot exceed __________ bacteria per ml and coliforms not to exceed _____ per ml.
a. 100,000 and 100
b. 100,000 and 10
c. 20,000 and 100
d. 20,000 and 10
d. 20,000 and 10
Salmonella enteritidis is usually implicated with which type of food?
a. Beef carcasses
b. Shell eggs
c. Ready to eat meat products
d. Green vegetables
b. Shell eggs
Which of the following are correct for pasteurization of milk?
a. 160 F for 30 minutes
b. 145 F for 30 minutes
c. 161 F for 15 seconds
d. A and B
e. B and C
e. B and C
Which type of Clostridium botulinum causes human botulism?
a. A, B, E, F
b. C and D
c. All of the above
a. A, B, E, F
A swine carcass is found on postmortem examination to be affected with cysticercus cellulosae. Only two cysts are found in the heart. A careful search reveals no others. According to current USDA regulations, which of the following is the most acceptable disposition?
a. condemn the entire carcass
b. pass the entire carcass without restriction
c. pass the entire carcass for appropriate refrigeration
d. condemn the heart, pass the carcass without restriction
e. pass the carcass for cooking
e. pass the carcass for cooking
Which of the following statements concerning RB51 vaccine for brucellosis is FALSE?
a. Currently only approved in cattle
b. Can cause disease in humans if auto-inoculated
c. Results in a measurable titer to B. abortus using standard diagnostic tests
d. Not approved for use in bison
c. Results in a measurable titer to B. abortus using standard diagnostic tests
The ionizing radiation not used to preserve foods is:
a. electron beams
b. X-rays.
c. gamma rays
d. beta rays
d. beta rays
Which of the following statements about the activity of water, aw, is correct:
A. Distilled water has an aW of 2
B. E. coli requires a minimum aw of 8.6 to grow in food
C. At an aw < 0.6 all bacterial, yeast and mold growth is inhibited
D. Fungi, in general, require higher aw than bacteria to grow
C. At an aw < 0.6 all bacterial, yeast and mold growth is inhibited
During pasteurization of milk, HTST processing heats the milk to \_\_\_\_F for a time period of \_\_\_\_per PMO regulations. A. 284 oF, 4 seconds B. 145 oF, 30 minutes C. 161oF, 1 second D. 161oF, 15 seconds
D. 161*F, 15 seconds
A positive phosphatase test on ice cream could indicate:
A. Improper pasteurization
B. High bacterial count
C. Reactivated phosphatase
D. false-positive test caused by ingredients
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
Which of the following statements about Scombrotoxin poisoning in fish is incorrect?
A. Fish usually smell obviously spoiled before accumulation of toxic levels of scombrotoxin occur.
B. It is due to poor handling and improper (i.e. delayed) chilling of fish after harvest
C. Histamine is produced through bacterial decarboxylation of histidine
D. Toxin production is associated with Lactobacillus, Clostridial and Proteus species of bacteria.
E. Tuna and mackerel are typical fish species implicated in poisonings
A. Fish usually smell obviously spoiled before accumulation of toxic levels of scombrotoxin occur.
Symptoms of Listeria monocytogenes infections generally include
A. High fever, severe abdominal pain, urticaria, bloody diarrhea and occasionally hemolytic uremic syndrome
B. Fever, muscles aches, vomiting, and diarrhea, with some cases proceeding to headache, stiff-neck, confusion and convulsions
C. Self-limiting diarrhea and mild abdominal pain
D. Profuse watery diarrhea and vomiting 48 hours after ingestion
E. Death in up to 80 % of perinatal and neonatal cases
F. B. and E.
F. B. and E.
The microorganism most frequently associated with human foodborne illness that is capable of growth in salt concentrations as high as 10% is: A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Vibrio vulnificus C. Bacillus cereus D. Clostridium perfringens E. Clostridium botulinum
A. Staphylococcus aureus
Sampling for resistant bacteria conducted by NARMS includes which of the following:
A. Slaughterhouse fecal samples, swabs from county fair livestock facilities, testing conducted at restaurants by local departments of health
B. Testing of cuts/ground product in the local store meat case, fecal samples submitted by physicians treating patients with suspected foodborne illness, slaughterhouse fecal samples
C. Testing of on-farm fecal samples in feedlots and dairy operations, fecal samples submitted by physicians treating patients with suspected foodborne illness
D. Testing of isolates from milk processing plants prior to pasteurization, slaughterhouse fecal samples, testing of cuts/ground product in the local store meat case
B. Testing of cuts/ground product in the local store meat case, fecal samples submitted by physicians treating patients with suspected foodborne illness, slaughterhouse fecal samples
Seafood consumption has been documented to be a source for the following disease in humans: A. Cholera and typhoid B. Schistosomiasis and mycoplasmosis C. Toxoplasmosis and mycoplasmosis D. Tuberculosis and anthracosis E. Anthrax and tetanus
A. Cholera and typhoid
Which of the following statements concerning the irradiation of foods is correct?
A. 10-50 kGy is needed to kill bacterial spores
B. Higher oxygen concentrations in/on foods leads to a more lethal effect of radiation on microorganisms
C. Electron beam radiation penetrates food products up to 12”
D. A and C
E. A and B
F. None of the above
E. A and B
Which of the following is NOT a factor of the extent to which fat is incorporated into a stable emulsion? A. pH B. fat particle size C. amount and type of soluble protein D. amount of emulsion E. emulsion viscosity
D. amount of emulsion
The toxin of Clostridium botulinum can be removed from most foods by: A. freezing B. boiling C. curing D. dehydrating E. emulsifying
B. boiling
Clostridium botulinum Type E has been demonstrated to have a particularly close association with: A. pork and pork products B. cooked beef and gravy C. fish and fish products D. poultry and poultry products E. home canned vegetables
C. fish and fish products
Food borne staphylococcal illness results from the ingestion of preformed: A. enterotoxins B. exotoxins C. aflatoxins D. endotoxins E. alphatoxins
A. enterotoxins
Ultraviolet light utilized in food processing plants is most effective against: A. bacterial spores B. yeasts C. sub-surface bacteria D. surface or airborne bacteria E. molds
D. surface or airborne bacteria
The pasteurization temperature/times established by the USPHS milk ordinance and code are keyed to the conditions necessary to destroy the organisms of: A. Coxiella burnetti B. Foot and Mouth Disease C. Clostridium botulinum D. Toxoplasmosis E. Escherichia coli
A. Coxiella burnetti
What are the time and temperature standards for batch pasteurization of milk?
145*F for 30min
What are the time and temperature standards for UHT pasteurization of milk?
275-309*F for 1-8 seconds
The microorganism most resistant to destruction by ionizing radiation is: A. PA 3679 spores B. Clostridium botulinum spores C. Salmonella spp D. Clostridium perfringens spores E. Bacillus anthracis spores
B. Clostridium botulinum spores
Public health professionals consider the most significant type of bacteria found in drinking water supplies to be:
a. Bacillus sp.
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Clostridium botulinum
d. Clostridium sporogenes
e. Escherichia coli
e. Escherichia coli
Cell-cultured meat products are food products crated from a small number of cells taken from living animals, which cells are then grown in a controlled environment to produce food. What organizations regulate the collection, differentiations of cells, processing and packaging of the products (choose all that apply)?
a. FDA
b. APHIS
c. ARS
d. FSIS
a. FDA
d. FSIS
According to present day standards, the most reliable indication that a pasteurizer is operating efficiently would be to:
a. show that only traces of the enzyme alkaline phosphatase are present in the milk as it comes from the pasteurizer
b. show that the pasteurizer reduces the total plate count of the raw milk 99.44%
c. install U.S. Bureau of Standards certified thermocouples in the pasteurizer and show that a temperature of 145°F is maintained for 30 minutes
d. show that no coliform bacteria are detectable in the pasteurized milk
e. inoculate the raw milk with the tubercle bacilli and show that they cannot be isolated from the pasteurized milk
a. show that only traces of the enzyme alkaline phosphatase are present in the milk as it comes from the pasteurizer
What percentage of milk tanker loads are tested for antibiotics?
a. 50%
b. 25%
c. 100%
d. 10%
c. 100%
The pasteurization temperature/times established by the USPHS milk ordinance and code are keyed into the conditions necessary to destroy the organisms of:
a. Coxiella burnetii
b. Foot and Mouth Disease
c. Clostridium botulinum
d. Toxoplasma gondii
e. Escherichia coli
a. Coxiella burnetii
- The ionizing radiation used to preserve food is: (choose all that apply)
a. Electron beam
b. Alpha rays
c. X rays
d. Gamma rays
e. Beta rays
a. Electron beam
c. X rays
d. Gamma rays
Which of the following statements concerning the irradiation of foods is correct?
a. 0-50 kGy is needed to kill bacterial spores
b. Higher oxygen concentrations in/on foods leads to a more lethal effect of radiation on microorganisms
c. Electron beam radiation penetrates food products up to 12”
d. A and C
e. A and B
f. None of the above
e. A and B
Foodborne staphylococcal illness results from the ingestion of preformed:
a. Enterotoxins
b. Exotoxins
c. Aflatoxins
d. Endotoxins
e. Alphatoxins
a. Enterotoxins
b. Exotoxins
Grayanotoxin poisoning is associated with:
a. Consumption of honey produced from the pollen and nectar of rhododendrons
b. Eating sub-tropical Bar Jack fish
c. Eating improperly chilled Tuna or Mahi Mahi
e. Eating improperly cooked Escolar fish
a. Consumption of honey produced from the pollen and nectar of rhododendrons
To guarantee the safety and quality of frozen foods, they may be thawed in any of the following manners EXCEPT:
a. Under refrigeration, at temperatures below 45 degrees Fahrenheit.
b. In a microwave oven, if final cooking occurs immediately after thawing.
c. By immersing in hot water, at least 100 degrees Fahrenheit, overnight.
d. As part of the conventional cooking process.
e. By immersing in cold water, changing water every 30 minutes.
c. By immersing in hot water, at least 100 degrees Fahrenheit, overnight.
- A swine carcass is found on postmortem examination to be affected with Cysticercus cellulose. Only two cysts are found in the heart. A careful search reveals no others. According to current USDA regulations, which of the following is the most acceptable disposition?
a. Condemn the entire carcass
b. Pass the entire carcass without restriction
c. Pass the entire carcass for appropriate refrigeration
d. Condemn the heart, pass the carcass without restriction
e. Pass the carcass for cooking
e. Pass the carcass for cooking
Pass with processing restriction: Any swine carcass affected with Cysticercus cellulosae that is less than excessively infested may be passed for cooking (held at 170 ° F for 30 minutes), after removal and condemnation of all affected areas.
FSIS Directive 6100.6 Post-mortem Dispositions for PHVs page 5: b. Pass for cooking, any swine carcass affected with Cysticercus cellulosae that is less than excessively affected