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ABP BOARDS > infectious > Flashcards

infectious Flashcards

1
Q

anti DNAse B (deoxyribonuclease) titers

A

for acute strep glomerulonephritis assoc with impetigo

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2
Q

C3 levels in acute post strep glomerulonephritis

A

low

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3
Q

antibodies to check for post streptococcal infections related to GAS

A

Anti streptolysin O

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4
Q

Acute cerebellar ataxia is a complication after what infection

A

varicella

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5
Q

pleomorphic pruritic rash consisting of macules, papules, vesicles on an erythematous base and pustule with associated crusting of older lesions

A

varicella

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6
Q

most common cause of brain abscess formation in infant less than 4 week

A

Citrobacter koseri

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7
Q

What is erysipelas

A

skin lesions from GAS toxin

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8
Q

description of erysipelas rash

A

more superficial than cellulitis, raised advancing edges sharply demarcated borders and associated lymphadenopathy

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9
Q

Finding on CBC for Chlamydia Trachomatis

A

peripheral eosinophilia

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10
Q

descrptions of symptoms from Chlamydia Trachomatis

A

staccato like cough, nasal stuffiness and rales in the absece of wheezing

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11
Q

When does chlamydial conjunctivitis of newborn present

A

days to weeks after birth

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12
Q

Treatment for chlamydia conjunctivitis or pneumonia

A

erythromycin PO for 14 days or azithromycin for 3 days

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13
Q

erythromycin given orally in the 1st two weeks of life is associated with what condition

A

pyloric stenosis

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14
Q

What are 3 phases of Pertussis

A

Catarrhal
Paroxysmal
Convalescent

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15
Q

Paroxysmal stage of pertussis

A

dry, intermittent, irritating “Hacking” cough followed by inexorable paroxysms, posttussive emesis/exhaustion, and often and inspiratory “whoop”

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16
Q

bone findings of congenital syphylis

A

transverse bands of increased density across the metaphyses with patchy areas of bone destruction in the diaphyses

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17
Q

early findings of congenital syphylis

A

contagious ulcerated cutaneous lesions of palms and soles, mucous patches, condylomatous lesions, generalized lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, jaundice, hemorrhagic rhinitis

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18
Q

complement levels in syphylis

A

decreased

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19
Q

electrolyte derangements in fanconi syndrome

A

hypophos and low levels calcitriol

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20
Q

German measles is what

A

rubella

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21
Q

Findings of rubella

A

fever, generalized malaise, HA, sore throat, cough and or coryza. posterior cervial, auricular and suboccipital lymphadenopathy

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22
Q

progression of rubella

A

rash for 72 hours then spreads to trunk and disappears by 3rd day.

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23
Q

prodrom of rubeola

A

fever, cough, coryza, conunctivitis, koplik spots

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24
Q

signs of early disseminated lyme disease

A

aseptic meningitis, uveitis, cranial nerve palsies and carditis

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25
Q

what are birbeck granules

A

intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies that appear as rod or tennis racquet shaped structures

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26
Q

Birbeck granules are seen with what

A

langerhans cell histiocytosis

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27
Q

skin lesions in langerhans cell histiocytosis

A

yellowish brown erythematous with crusting and surrounding petechiae

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28
Q

langerhans histiocytosis can present with what other conditions

A

seizures, hearing loss, diabetes inspidus and cranial nerve palsies

29
Q

patients with cyclic neutropenia are at risk for sepsis with which organism

A

Clostridium septicum

30
Q

what are symptoms of black widow spider bite

A

severe cramping wthin 30-60 minutes of the bite

31
Q

signs of brown recluse spider bite

A

swelling 2-8 hours after and formation of hemorrhagic vesicle that may become necrotic and eschar in 10 days

32
Q

findings on peripheral smear of patient with HUS

A

helmet and burr cells from endothelial injury

33
Q

which URI virus is associated with hemorrhagic cystitis

A

adenovirus

34
Q

triad with disseminated gonococcal infection

A

tenosynovitis, dermatitis-vesicular and polyarthralgias

35
Q

treatment for listeria

A

IV penicillin G or ampicillin

36
Q

Findings of familial Mediterranean fever

A

fever, abdominal and testicular pain, swelling of knees and ankles

37
Q

findings congenital rubella

A

microcephaly, cataracts and PDA

38
Q

progression of chlamydia trachomatis genital infection

A

femoral lymphadenopathy. Primary lesions small painelss papule that turns to ulceration heals. Then painful inguinal and femoral lymph nodes 2-6 weeks after that are unilateral

39
Q

treatment for lymphogranuloma venerium (C trachomatis)

A

doxy for 3 weeks or erythro for 21 days

40
Q

Which STD causes chancroid

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

41
Q

what is a chancroid

A

painful lesion in genital region with inguinal lymphadenitis

42
Q

sepsis and ketones and urinary resducing substances

A

galactossemia Not hereditary fructose intolerance

43
Q

Treatment for cyptosporidium

A

when Sx greater than 2 weeks. Nitazoxanide

44
Q

Signs of congenital variclla

A

aplasia, microcephaly, hydrocephaly, calcifications, microphthalmia, optic atrophy, cataracts, chorioretinitis, limb atrophy and malformations, cicatricial scarring of extremities, hypopigementation

45
Q

treatment of listeria monocytogenes

A

amp and gent

46
Q

teen with symmetric erythematous swelling of hands anf feet- wrist and ankles with papules, petechiae and purpura. what is the organism causing this

A

parvovirus B19- Papular purpuris gloves and socks syndrome

47
Q

electrolyte abnormality with rocky mountain spotted fever

A

hyponatremia

48
Q

presentation rocky mountain spotted fever

A

prodromal symptoms 3-5 days then erythematous papular rash peripherally that turns into petechial lesions and moves centrally

49
Q

treatment for exposure to someone with invasive meningococcal disease

A

rifampin BID for 2 days

50
Q

teen greater than 13 years of age with no history varicella vaccination– next step

A

if no history of natural infection do one dose now and 2nd in 4 weeks

51
Q

what type of WBCs have an issues in Job’s syndrome (IgE)

A

neutrophils do not adhere to endothelium so secretion of chemotactic chemokines bring eosinophils to the tissues

52
Q

What type of lymphocyte is affected in DiGeorge syndrome

A

T cells due to thymic aplasia

53
Q

genital ulcer with wright stain showing rod shaped oval organisms within the cytopasm of mononuclear phagocytes

A

klebsiella granulomatous

54
Q

chancroid with gram stain showing gram negative coccbacilli in parallel clusters

A

haemophilus ducreyi

55
Q

patients with cyclic neutropenia are at risk of what bacterial infection

A

clostridium septicum

56
Q

erlichia is present where

A

south central, south east- Arkansas

57
Q

anaplasma is located where

A

northeast and upper midwest

58
Q

test most useful for acute EBV infection

A

IgM to the capsid antigen of EBV

59
Q

treatment for congenital CMV for infant

A

6 months oral valacyclovir

60
Q

neonate with microcephaly, intracranial calcifications, hepatosplenomegaly and petechial rash and hepatitis

A

congenital CMV

61
Q

first step in management epiglotitis

A

SECURE airway. not antibiotics first.

62
Q

cause of watery diarrhea from community pool source

A

shigella sonei

63
Q

varicella invasive infection is associated with what secondary bacterial infection

A

GAS

64
Q

acute unilateral blindness and history of puppies at home

A

toxocariasis

65
Q

suspect HSV in mother and infant just born, when do you start evaluation

A

24 hours. else could be contamination

66
Q

pulmonary consolidation, lives in california and has lytic bone lesion on xray- next step in diagnosis

A

serology for coccidiomycosis

67
Q

how do you get ascaris lumbricoides

A

ingestion soil contaminated food

68
Q

which worm enters by dermal penetration

A

hook worms- necator americanos

ABP BOARDS (10 decks)

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