Infections On Surfaces And Travel Related Infections Flashcards

1
Q

Which viruses are most likely to infect the skin?

A

Papilloma

Herpes simplex

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2
Q

Which bacteria are most likely to infect the skin?

A

Gram positive - staph aureus and coagulase negative staph

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3
Q

Give examples of prosthetic surfaces which can get infected

A
Intravascular lines
Peritoneal dialysis catheters
Prosthetic joints
Cardiac valves
Pacing wires 
Endovascular grafts 
Shunts
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4
Q

Give examples of pathogens likely to cause endocarditis if >1 year post-op

A

Strep viridans
Enterococcus faecalis
Staph aureus
Candida

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5
Q

Give examples of pathogens likely to cause endocarditis if <1 year post-op

A

Coagulase negative staph

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6
Q

Give the bacteria most likely to cause prosthetic joint infections

A

Coagulase neg staph

Staph aureus

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7
Q

Which organisms are most likely to infect pacemaker wires?

A

Coagulase neg staph

Staph aureus

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8
Q

Give some features of biofilms

A

Increases life cycle
Decreases turn over
Antibiotics won’t work on them - Abx only target actively replicating bacteria
Quorum sensing

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9
Q

Describe quorum sensing in biofilms

A

The communication between bacteria in a biofilm
Recognises if there are a lot of bacteria present
Controls: sporulation, biofilm formation and virulence factor secretion

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10
Q

What is a natural antibacterial that we could cover prosthetic joints/lines in?

A

Silver

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11
Q

Why is antibiotic resistance more prevalent in some countries?

A

In some places you can buy Abx over the counter

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12
Q

What might we think of if someone had been to North Africa?

A

malaria

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13
Q

What types of infection would we be thinking of if someone had been to the middle east?

A

Respiratory pathogens and viruses

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14
Q

What types of infections might we think of if someone had been to north Australia?

A

Malaria

Bacterial infections

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15
Q

What infection might we think of if someone had been to North America?

A

West Nile virus

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16
Q

What categories do we usually divide the incubation periods into?

A

< 10 days
10-21 days
> 21 days
(Since the symptoms began)

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17
Q

What type of infection is ebola?

A

Viral haemorrhagic fever

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18
Q

Define meningism

A

Triad of nuchal (neck) rigidity, photophobia and headache

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19
Q

What might we find on examination of someone with malaria?

A
Fever
Low BP
Tachycardia 
Bite marks
Low O2 states
Unwell/confused 
Possible hepatosplenomegaly  
Possible jaundice
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20
Q

What investigations would we do in malaria?

A

Hb - low (anaemia)

Platelets - low

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21
Q

If their travel Hx and symptoms suggest malaria, how can we rule it out?

A

3 negative blood films rule it out

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22
Q

What are the 4 main species of plasmodium?

A

Falciparum
Vivax
Ovale
Malariae

23
Q

Which type of malaria is most common in the UK?

A

Plasmodium falciparum

24
Q

Can malaria spread from person to person?

25
What is the incubation period of malaria?
Minimum 6 days
26
What is the classic triad of symptoms in malaria?
Fever Chills Sweats (In a cycle)
27
Why is it hard to target a vaccine at malaria?
It has many different stages to its life cycle
28
What is the treatment for plasmodium falciparum?
Quinine and doxycycline OR Artesinate
29
What is the treatment for P. Vivax, ovale and malariae?
Chloroquine and primaquine
30
What other possible diagnoses should occur to you when you suspect malaria?
Typhoid Dengue Rickettsial infection Non-travel related infection eg. Meningococcal sepsis
31
Name the 2 types of enteric fever
Typhoid | Paratyphoid
32
Describe the classical symptoms of enteric fever
Constipation Abdominal cramps Dry cough Headache
33
In which disease state may a faint rose spot appear on the abdomen?
Enteric fever | Typhoid/paratyphoid
34
Which bacteria causes enteric fever?
Salmonella typhi
35
How is enteric fever spread?
Faecal oral route
36
What type of bacteria is salmonella typhi?
Enterobacteriaceae Aerobic Gram negative Rod shaped
37
What is the incubation period for enteric fever?
7 - 14 days
38
With enteric fever, what happens to the heart rate?
Bradycardia
39
Which type of enteric fever is generally milder?
Paratyphoid
40
What is the treatment for enteric fever?
Ceftriaxone or azithromycin | 7-14 days
41
Is there a vaccine for enteric fever?
There is a typhoid vaccine | 50-75% effective
42
Describe a non-typhoidal salmonella infection
'Food poisoning' Widespread throughout out Usually caused by salmonella typhimunum or salmonella enteritidis Diarrhoea, vomiting, fever, abdominal pain Generally self-limiting
43
Give some symptoms/signs of Dengue fever
Rash - broad, flat, macular Fever Severe myalgia Headache
44
What infections do we need to think about if someone presents with a fever and a rash?
``` Dengue Childhood: Measles, rubella, parvovirus Infectious mononucleosis (glandular) Acute HIV infections Rickettsia (ticks) ```
45
Give 2 tests that need to be done to confirm dengue fever
PCR | Serology IgM
46
How is dengue fever spread?
Mosquitoes
47
How do we treat dengue fever?
Supportive treatment only | Usually self limiting (improvement seen 3-4 days after getting the rash)
48
Reinfection with a different serotype of dengue fever is worse that the original infection, why?
Can lead to: Haemorrhagic fever Shock syndrome
49
What is myiasis?
Fly larvae Biting flies lay eggs on you or your clothes Larvae bury into skin and then pop out if they survive
50
What does MERS-CoV stand for and what animal is it associated with?
Middle East Respiratory Syndrome | Camels
51
Describe the ebola virus
Filovirus Flu like illness with vomiting, diarrhoea, headache, confusion and a rash Internal/external bleeding at 5-7 days Spread by direct contact with bodily fluids
52
Describe the Zika virus
Arbovirus - mosquito Sexually transmitted No treatment and no vaccine available 20% of people get mild (dengue-like) symptoms Can cause foetal loss and congenital abnormalities in pregnant women
53
Why shouldn't we give primaquine to people with G6PD deficiency?
These people produce less NADPH therefore cannot reduce glutathione as readily Primaquine causes oxidative damage to RBCs that their body cannot fix Heinz bodies form -> haemolytic anaemia