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MRCPCH > Infection, Immunology and Allergy > Flashcards

Infection, Immunology and Allergy Flashcards

1
Q

Who should receive prophylaxis for meningococcal disease?

A

Other household contacts only

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2
Q

Which condition is characterised by a triad of hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy and erythroderma in the presence of raised IgE or peripheral eosinophil count?

A

Omenn Syndrome (an autosomal recessive form of severe combined immunodeficiency)

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3
Q

What is the treatment for Chediak-Higashi syndrome?

A

Ascorbic Acid

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4
Q

Chediak-Higashi syndrome is characterised by …

A

Increased susceptibility to infection
A mild bleeding diathesis
Partial oculocutaneous albinism
Progressive peripheral neuropathy
A tendency to develop a life-threatening lymphoma syndrome

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5
Q

Four days of prodromal illness with conjunctivitis and Koplik spots is pathognomonic of what?

A

Measles

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6
Q

Toxic shock syndrome is caused by which organisms?

A

Staph Aureus
Strep. pyogenes

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7
Q

Describe the features of possible underlying HIV infection in children?

A

Failure to thrive
Generalised lymphadenopathy
Hepatosplenomegaly
Parotid gland enlargement
Persistent oral candidiasis
Chronic candida nappy rash
Recurrent otitis media
Chronic dermatitis
Chronic diarrhoea

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8
Q

Treatment of Pneumocystis Carinii Pneumonia?

A

Cotrimoxazole (21 days high dose)
Broad Spectrum Antibiotics (Cefuroxime)
Anti-TB medications

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9
Q

Rash spreading from the face down to the rest of the body?

A

Measles

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10
Q

Recurrent infections, consanguineous marriage and albinism

A

Chediak-Higashi Syndrome

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11
Q

Name two live vaccinations?

A

BCG
MMR

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12
Q

Which groups of individuals are live vaccines contraindicated in?

A

Immunocompromised patients
Those on immunosuppressants
Those using corticosteroids

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13
Q

Which vaccination is contraindicated in a patient with previous anaphylaxis to eggs?

A

Tick-borne encephalitis
Yellow Fever

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14
Q

Investigation for C.difficile?

A

Toxin detection in stool sample

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15
Q

Mild intestinal symptoms and microcytic anaemia?

A

D. Latum

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16
Q

Hepatomegaly and microcytic anaemia with bloody diarrhoea?

A

Ameobic Abscess

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17
Q

Water foul smelling diarrhoea?

A

Giardia

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18
Q

Slapped cheek disease is caused by ??

A

Parvovirus B19

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19
Q

Which antibiotics treat mycoplasma pneumonia?

A

Erythromycin
Clarithromycin

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20
Q

Opportunistic infections in patients with HIV?

A

Cytomegalovirus Retinitis
Pneumocystis Pneumonia
Disseminated Mycobacterium Avium Complex
Oesophageal Candidiasis
Cryptococcal Meningitis
Chronic Cryptosporidium Enteritis

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21
Q

Causes of an absent thymus on CXR?

A

DiGeorge Syndrome (low calcium)
Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (normal calcium)
Ataxia Telangiectasia (normal calcium)

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22
Q

Treatment of severe campylobacter jejuni?

A

Normally conservative management however if severe it should be treated with AZITHROMYCIN

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23
Q

What is the treatment of Shigella?

A

Ciprofloxacin

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24
Q

What is the antibiotic treatment of Giardia?

A

Metronidazole

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25
Q

Greyish deposit on oropharynx/ pseudomembrane?

A

Diptheria

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26
Q

Management of Diptheria?

A

Antitoxin
Penicillin
Preparation for Intubation

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27
Q

Aplastic crisis in sickle cell disease is caused by?

A

Parvovirus B19

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28
Q

Treatment of Anaphylaxis is with?

A

1:1000 Adrenaline IM

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29
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosis of malaria?

A

Thick and thin blood film

30
Q

What do phagocyte function disorders typically present with?

A

Recurrent oral and cutaneous infection
Lymphadenitis
Chronic cough
Poor wound healing
Prolonged infections with poor response to abc

31
Q

Presents with recurrent deep seated infections such as lymphadenitis or abscesses?

A

Chronic granulomatous disease

32
Q

Which condition causes delayed separation of the umbilical cord?

A

Leucocyte Adhesion Deficiency (LAD-1)

33
Q

Pharmacological management of PCP?

A

Co-Trimoxazole

34
Q

Causative organism of Croup?

A

Parainfluenza

35
Q

Causative organism of Slapped cheek/ erythema infectiosum?

A

Parvovirus B19

36
Q

Causative organism of Scarlet Fever?

A

Group A strep

37
Q

Lyme disease rash?

A

Erythema Migrans (bulls eye lesion)

38
Q

Very high temperature, diarrhoea and macular rash?

A

Salmonella

39
Q

Delayed separation of the umbilical cord after birth/

A

Leucocyte-Adhesion Defect

40
Q

Coxsackie virus is an example of what type of virus?

A

Enterovirus

41
Q

Outline the Gell and Coombs classification of hypersensitivity?

A

Type 1 - anaphylaxis
Type 2 - Cell mediated
Type 3 - Immune mediated
Type 4 - Delayed hypersensitivity
Type 5 - Autoantibodies that bind to the cell surface receptors (MG and Graves disease)

42
Q

Outline the primary immunodeficiencies with eczema?

A

Wiskott Aldrich syndrome - immunodeficiency, thrombocytopenia and eczema
Hyper IgE syndrome - skeletal abnormalities
Chronic granulomatous disease - multiple, multisystemic granulomatous lesions
Omenn syndrome - diarrhoea, hepatosplenomegaly, hypereosinophilia, erythroderma > eczema

43
Q

What is Bartonella Henselae a cause of?

A

Cat scratch disease

44
Q

What is Borrelia burgdorferi the causative organism of?

A

Lyme disease

45
Q

What is a Ghon complex indicative of?

A

TB

46
Q

What are the cells of adaptive immunity?

A

Helper T cells
B cells
Plasma cells
Cytotoxic T cells

47
Q

Which cells are responsible for antibody production?

A

B cells

48
Q

What is the shape of e.coli?

A

Gram negative rods (catalase positive, oxidase negative)

49
Q

What are the contraindications to MMR vaccination?

A

Severe immunosuppression
Allergy to neomycin
Children who have received another live vaccine by injection within 4 weeks
Pregnancy should be avoided for at least 1 month following vaccination
Immunoglobulin therapy within the past 3 months (there may be no immune response to the measles vaccine if antibodies are present)

50
Q

What is the Hutchinson triad - diagnostic criteria of syphilis?

A

Interstitial keratitis
Hutchinson incisors
8th cranial nerve deafness

51
Q

What is the structure of streptococcus pneumonia?

A

Gram positive cocci in chains

52
Q

What are neutrophil polymorphs an indication of?

A

Acute inflammation

53
Q

What are granulomas an indication of?

A

Chronic inflammation

54
Q

Vaccination schedule in premature children?

A

Should be done according to their chronological age

55
Q

What are the characteristic features of congenital rubella?

A

Sensorineural deafness
Congenital cataracts

56
Q

Describe the steps of acute inflammation?

A

Vasoconstriction
Vasodilation
Increased permeability of vessels
Stasis of red blood cells
Neutrophil margination

57
Q

RNA is transcribed from DNA by which enzyme?

A

RNA polymerases

58
Q

What is the exclusion period for hand, foot and mouth disease?

A

NO exclusion is needed

59
Q

Describe a WCC?

A

Lymphocytes - viral in nature
Neutrophils - bacterial in nature
Eosinophils - fungal in nature
Monocytes - protozoan in nature

60
Q

Blood film post-splenectomy?

A

Howell-jolly bodies
Heinz bodies
Poikilocytes (target cells)
Pappenheimer bodies
Erythrocyte containing siderotic granules

61
Q

Erythema ….?

A

Erythema migrans- Lyme disease
Erythema multiforme- Herpes simplex, mycoplasma
Erythema marginatum- Rheumatic fever
Erythema nodosum- Crohns disease, streptococcal

62
Q

Can cause hydros fetalis if contracted during pregnancy?

A

Parvovirus B19

63
Q

What are the risk factors for developing active TB?

A

silicosis
chronic renal failure
HIV positive
solid organ transplantation with immunosuppression
intravenous drug use
haematological malignancy
anti-TNF treatment
previous gastrectomy

64
Q

Which infection can cause spontaneous splenic rupture?

A

EBV

65
Q

What are the most common complications of mumps?

A

Orchitis (1 in 5)
Pancreatitis (1 in 10)

66
Q

Which cell types make up the innate immune system?

A

Neutrophils
Basophils
Mast cells
Eosinophils
Monocytes
Macrophages
Natural killer cells
Dendritic cells

67
Q

At what level does the spina cord end?

A

L1/L2

68
Q

What are the contraindication to the rotavirus vaccination?

A

Hypersensitivity
Severe combined immunodeficiency disease
Intusseception

69
Q

What is the risk period for chickenpox at delivery?

A

The risk period for neonates is those whose mother developed chickenpox within 5 days before or 2 days after delivery

70
Q

Where are histamine receptors found?

A

CNS tissue, smooth muscle and endothelium
Parietal cells in the stomach
Central and peripheral nervous tissue
Basophils

71
Q

Drug causes of hepatic granulomas?

A

Allopurinol
Sulphonamides

MRCPCH (14 decks)

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