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MRCPCH > Haematology and Oncology - TAS > Flashcards

Haematology and Oncology - TAS Flashcards

1
Q

WWhich rash is associated with Antiphospholipid Syndrome?

A

Livedo Reticularis

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2
Q

What is the treatment of ITP?

A

Conservative management - apt bloods in 10 days
Tx w/ high dose steroid therapy if mucosal bleeding is present
IVIg or platelet transfusion can be used if life threatening/ intracranial bleeding present

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3
Q

Which condition generally presents with petechiae, bruising or purpura developing over a 24-48 hour period?

A

Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura

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4
Q

Which medication has been shown to reduce the frequency of hospital admissions with bone pain in patients with sickle cell anaemia?

A

Hydroxyurea (a myelosuppressive agent?

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5
Q

What are Heinz bodies on a blood film suggestive of?

A

G6PD

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6
Q

Which condition presents with anaemia, jaundice and haemoglobinurea secondary to minutes/ hours of cold exposure?

A

Paroxysmal cold haemoglobinurea

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7
Q

Investigations for Ataxia Telengectasia?

A

Raised alpha-fetoprotein
Raised CEA levels
Immunoglobulin levels - generally low
Lymphocyte subsets

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8
Q

What is the preventative treatment for tumour lysis syndrome in patients who are at high risk?

A

Hydration (2-3 litres/ day)
Rasburicase (a recombinant uric oxidase)

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9
Q

Lytic lesions in the bone diaphysis suggests?

A

Ewing sarcoma

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10
Q

Lytic lesions in the bone metaphysis suggests?

A

Osteosarcoma

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11
Q

Scurvy is a deficiency of what?

A

Ascorbic Acid (vitamin C)

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12
Q

Name one of the most likely causes of neonatal jaundice in a child of Meditteranean descent?

A

G6PD

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13
Q

Hypersegmented neutrophils are most commonly seen in?

A

Folate deficiency and B12 deficiency

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14
Q

Which medication is a cause of haemolysis in G6PD deficiency?

A

Co-trimoxazole

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15
Q

Name the 4 tumours of the posterior fossa?

A

Brainstem glioma
Ependymoma
Astrocytoma
Medulloblastoma

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16
Q

Haemophilia A is a deficiency of which factor?

A

Factor VIII

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17
Q

Haemophilia B is a deficiency of which factor?

A

Factor IX

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18
Q

Prolonged bleeding time and prolonged APTT?

A

Von Willebrand Deficiency

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19
Q

Normal bleeding time, normal PT, prolonged APTT?

A

Haemophilia

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20
Q

A benign bone tumour, the pain from which classically improves with NSAIDs?

A

Osteoid Osteoma

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21
Q

Splenectomy immunisations?

A

Meningococcal vaccine
Influenza vaccine
Pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (in over 2 yrs)
Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (in under 2 yrs)

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22
Q

For which three diseases is bone marrow transplant potentially curative?

A

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
SCID
X-linked lymphoproliferative disease

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23
Q

Causes of microcytic anaemia?

A

Iron deficiency anaemia
Thalassaemia
Chronic disease
Sideroblastic Anaemia
Lead poisoning

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24
Q

Causes of normocytic anaemia?

A

Anaemia of chronic disease
Haemolysis

25
Q

Causes of macrocytic anaemia?

A

B12 and folate deficiency
Aplastic anaemia/ bone marrow failure
Hypothyroidism
Alcohol
Liver disease
Myelodysplasia

26
Q

Target cells on a blood film are a sign of?

A

Iron deficiency anaemia
Hyposplenism (post-splenectomy)
Haemoglobinopathies (sickle cell disease or thalassaemia)

27
Q

Anisocytosis (variation in the size of the erythrocytes) on a blood film is a sign of?

A

Iron deficiency anaemia
Megaloblastic anaemia
Thalassaemia

28
Q

Howell-Jolly bodies (dense nuclear round remnants) on a blood film are a sign of?

A

Beta-thalassaemia
Post-splenectomy

29
Q

Spherocytes on blood film suggest?

A

Hereditary spherocytosis
Immune Haemolytic anaemia
Severe burns
Post Transfusion

30
Q

Basophilic Stippling on a blood film suggests?

A

Lead Poisoning
Beta thalassaemia

31
Q

Painless lymphadenopathy, raised ESR, eosinophilia and Reed Steinberg cells (owl eye appearance)?

A

Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

32
Q

What medications should be avoided in G6PD deficiency?

A

Fava beans
Naphthalene Gas
Aspirin
Co-trimoxazole
Chloroquine
Nitrofurantoin
Ascorbic acid

33
Q

What is G6PD?

A

An x-linked condition - G6PD typically maintains glutathione in a reduced state and protects red blood cells from entering an oxidative state

34
Q

What is the surgical prophylaxis for Von Willebrand Disease?

A

Desmopressin - increases the release of VWF and factor VIII

35
Q

What part of the brain does the medulloblastoma arise from?

A

Cerebellum

36
Q

What are the possible causes of mediastinal masses?

A

Thymus
Thyroid
Teratoma
Terrible Lymphoma

37
Q

What do the bloods in tumour lysis syndrome show?

A

Raised potassium, raised phosphate, low calcium and raised urate

38
Q

What are the four features of Thalassaemia?

A

Target Cells
Howell-Jolly Bodies
Anisocytes
Low MCV

39
Q

What is the most common childhood cancer?

A

ALL

40
Q

What is Schwachman-Black syndrome?

A

Exocrine pancreatic enzyme deficiency
Bone marrow hypoplasia/ aplasia
Constitutional short stature

41
Q

What is Diamond Blackfan anaemia?

A

Inherited pure red cell aplasia
Normocytic or macrocytic anaemia
Congenital abnormalities - craniofacial, urogenital, skeletal
Requires multiple packed red cell transfusions resulting in needed oral chelator due to iron overload secondary to multiple transfusions

42
Q

What are the blood film findings post-splenectomy?

A

Target cells
Howell jolly bodies
Heinz bodies
Pappenheimer bodies
Thrombocytosis
Contracted, smaller red blood cells
Increase in leukocytes

43
Q

What virus causes kaposi sarcoma?

A

Human herpes virus 8

44
Q

Most common adverse reaction to packed red cells?

A

Pyrexia

45
Q

Most common adverse reaction to FFP?

A

Urticaria

46
Q

What gene is responsible for regulating cell cycle i.e. preventing entry in S phase until DNA has been checked and repaired?

A

p53

47
Q

Which condition has a substitution of valine for glutamic acid (position 6 on the beta chain)?

A

Sickle cells disease

48
Q

What is the order of mitosis?

A

Prophase, pro metaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis

49
Q

Haemoglobin A =

A

2 alpha and 2 beta chains

50
Q

Haemoglobin A2 =

A

2 alpha and 2 delta chains

51
Q

The osmotic fragility test is positive in which conditions?

A

Thalassaemia and Hereditary spherocytosis

52
Q

Which cells do glioma’s originate from?

A

Neuroglial cells

53
Q

Antiphospholipid syndrome is associated with which antibodies?

A

Anti-cardiolipin antibodies

54
Q

What stimulates platelet production?

A

Thrombopoietin

55
Q

What is Bernard-Soulier syndrome a deficiency of?

A

Glycoprotein complex Ib-IX-V

56
Q

Which substance keeps the blood soluble and prevents platelet activation in normal conditions?

A

Prostacyclin

57
Q

Which clotting factors are most rapidly consumed in DIC?

A

Factor V + VIIII

58
Q

Associated with haemophilia C?

A

Noonan syndrome

MRCPCH (14 decks)

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