Infection Control Flashcards

1
Q

Chain of infection

A

factors that lead to the transmission or spread of disease

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2
Q

reservoir

A

habitat in which the agent normally lives, grow, and multiplies.
Can be human, animal, or the environment

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3
Q

portal of exit

A

path by which a pathogen leaves its host.
Can exit through the placenta, cuts, needles in the skin, droplets from the respiratory tract, or saliva.

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4
Q

direct contact

A

microorganisms transferred from one infected person to another without a contaminated intermediate object/person or direct contact with soil harboring infectious organisms
EX: kissing :3

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5
Q

indirect contact

A

microorganisms are transferred from an infectious agent through contaminated object, person, suspended air particles, vehicles, or vectors.
EX: blood, saliva, and other secretions from patients

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6
Q

portal of entry

A

the way a pathogen gets inside the new host.
many portals of entry are the same as the portal of exit.

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7
Q

susceptible host

A

new home for the pathogen.
individuals can respond differently to the same pathogen due to factors such as genetics or immunity.

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8
Q

How to break the chain of infection?

A

if 1 of the 5 components is broken then the infection is stopped.
ex: using gloves when working in the mouth.

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9
Q

What is the most important procedure for preventing the spread of infection?

A

Hand washing!

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10
Q

Is the reservoir always the source from which an agent is transferred to a host?

A

no, for example, the reservoir for Clostridium botulinum is soil, but the source of most botulism infections in improperly canned foods.

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11
Q

How is Hepatitis A transmitted?

A

through the “fecal-oral” route.

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12
Q

Can bloodborne agents be transmitted by body fluids and sweat?

A

They can be transmitted by blood or body fluids EXCEPT sweat.

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13
Q

What are outbreaks of legionnaires?

A

they are traced to environmental reservoirs such as water supplies in cooling towers and evaporative condensers.

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14
Q

what infections are spread by direct contact?

A

infectious mononucleosis (mono), gonorrhea, hookworm via soil, herpes simplex virus, HIV, hepatitis

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15
Q

what infections are spread by indirect contact?

A

hepatitis B and C

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16
Q

what is droplet infection

A

relatively large (bigger than 10 microns), short-range aerosols produced by sneezing, coughing, or even talking. Can be spread through surfaces by touch and is considered direct transmission.

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17
Q

what are the types of droplet infections that can be spread?

A

influenza, mumps, rubella viruses, herpes viruses, coronaviruses.

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18
Q

Airborne infections

A

small particles called drop nuclei or aerosol particles are smaller than 10 microns and can be airborne for HOURS.

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19
Q

Examples of airborne infections

A

tuberculosis, chickenpox, measles, SARS-Cov-2.

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20
Q

Vehicles

A

food, water, biological products (blood), and fomites such as handkerchiefs, bedding, or scalpels that can carry infectious agents.

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21
Q

vectors

A

mosquitos, fleas, and ticks may carry infectious agents.

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22
Q

Blood-borne transmission

A

spread through blood and other body fluids (not including sweat)

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23
Q

most common blood-borne pathogens that healthcare workers are at risk for

A

HIV, hepatitis B, Hep C

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24
Q

What is a percutaneous injury?

A

healthcare worker who is injured by a contaminated syringe.

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25
Q

What is a mucocutaneous injury

A

a healthcare worker being splashed in the eye with blood

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26
Q

Standard precaution

A

precaution designed to protect the healthcare provider against blood-borne pathogens, from blood, bodily fluids, and excretions(except sweat).

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27
Q

What are diseases when standard precaution is used

A

HBV, AIDS/HIV

28
Q

Sequence for donning PPE

A

gown, mask, glasses, handwashing, gloves.
(doff in opposite order)

29
Q

N95 efficacy

A

filters out 95% of airborne particles including large and small.

30
Q

What should be the alcohol concentration of hand sanitizers?

A

60-95% are most effective and can be used when no visible soil is seen on the hands.

31
Q

What is transient flora?

A

colonizers of the superficial layers of the skin and can be removed with hand washing. They are acquired by contact with patients and contaminated surfaces.

32
Q

What is resident flora?

A

flora attached to the deeper layers of the skin and is more resistant to hand washing.

33
Q

What can be disposed of in the regular trash

A

patient bibs, barrier, PPE, and items NOT saturated with blood or saliva

34
Q

Can blood-borne diseases be transmitted by contact with raw or treated sewage?

A

no, so the disposal of limited quantities of blood/other body fluids can be disposed in the sanitary sewer is safe :)

35
Q

Can extracted teeth be returned to the patient

A

yes :p otherwise they need to be disposed in the medical waste containers

36
Q

How to dispose of amalgam

A

DO NOT flush it down the sink or toilet
Recycle amalgam waste separately according to local regulation

37
Q

sterilization

A

destruction of ALL microorganisms including spores by physical or chemical means

38
Q

disinfectant

A

destruction of PATHOGENIC and other kinds of microorganisms by physical or chemical means.
May not destroy bacterial endospores

39
Q

qualities of an ideal disinfectant:

A

broad-spectrum, fast-acting, non-toxic, compatible with materials, odor-free, and easy to use

40
Q

Antiseptic

A

the substance that stops or slows down the growth of microorganisms
ex: alcohols, chlorohexidine, triclosan

41
Q

High level disinfectant

A

FDA regulated disinfectant. Inactivates bacteria, mycobacteria, fungi, and viruses, not NOT bacterial SPORES.
Kills M. tuberculosis
Takes long contact time to inactive microbes so not suitable for environmental surfaces

42
Q

low level disinfectant

A

does not kill M. tuberculosis

43
Q

critical item

A

item at high risk for infection
AKA curettes, needles, surgical burs because they can penetrate soft tissue, bone or contact the bloodstream
REQUIRES heat sterilization

44
Q

Semi-critical item

A

item at lower risk for infection
contact mucous membranes, non-intact skin, but will NOT penetrate soft tissues.
EX: radiographic film holders, mirrors, reusable trays.
Requires high-level disinfection or heat sterilization

45
Q

non critical items

A

contacts intact skin but not mucous membranes
EX: BP cuff, xray tube head.
requires intermediate or low level disinfectant

46
Q

clinical surface

A

does not touch the patient directly and has limited risk of disease transmission
EX: light handles, switches, pen, handles, counter tops.
cleaned with low/intermediate level disinfectant after each patient

47
Q

housekeeping surface

A

does not touch the patient directly and has limited risk of disease transmission
EX: sink or floor
can be decontaminated with detergent and water only.

48
Q

Surfactant

A

loosens, emulsifies, and holds organism in suspension, so they can be rinsed away easier

49
Q

Cavitation process

A

bubbles formed by the process collapse on the surface and disturb the organisms

50
Q

automatic washer

A

cleans and thermally disinfects instruments by using a high-temperature cycle rather than a chemical bath.

51
Q

how do sterilizers work

A

destroys microorganisms by creating irreversible coagulation, denaturation of enzymes and proteins, and oxidization of cells.

52
Q

Steam (moist) autoclave

A

pressure chamber that generates moist heat at temps of 121 celcius (250F) for 20-30 mins or 132 C (270F) for 3-10 mins

53
Q

gravity displacement steam sterilizer

A

steam is admitted and unsaturated air is forced out of the chamber through a vent

54
Q

High-speed pre-vacuum steam sterilizer

A

air is removed to create a vacuum, then high temperature pressured steam is introduced (allow faster steam penetration throughout, and temperature is higher than gravity displacement type)

55
Q

Dry heat sterilization technique

A

uses higher temperatures of 162-180C (320-375F) for 6-20mins (rapid type) or 1-2 hours (oven type)

56
Q

Unsaturated chemical vapor

A

involves heating a chemical solution of alcohol and formaldehyde in a closed pressurized chamber. Generates heat at temperatures of 135C (270F) and pressures of 20-40 lbs/in2 for 20-30 mins.
requires adequate ventilation to prevent toxic fume accumulation

57
Q

flash cycle

A

instruments are sterilized unwrapped.
Only used in EMERGENCY situations

58
Q

Cold sterilization

A

requires up to 10 hours of exposure to a liquid agent registered as sterilant/disinfectant. Instruments should be rinsed with water, dried, and placed in a sterile container

59
Q

Ethyl oxide

A

ethylene oxide gas is used at temperatures of 25C (75F) for 10-16 hours.

60
Q

Internal chemical monitors

A

used inside EACH package to ensure the sterilizing agent has penetrated the packaging material and has actually reached the instruments inside.

61
Q

Class 1 external process indicator

A

autoclave indicator tape as a form of chemical monitoring that changes color when exposed to heat.

62
Q

What is the most accepted method for monitoring the sterilization process?

A

biologic monitoring (live spore testing)

63
Q

optimum flow for instrument processing

A

receiving, cleaning, decontamination, packaging, sterilization, and storage areas.

64
Q

After an exposure incident, should the area be squeezed to express fluid to reduce the risk of infection with blood borne pathogens?

A

no, the area should be washed with antimicrobial soap and water. There is no evidence to support that squeezing reduces risk

65
Q

Does the use of a cassette increase sterilization’s effectiveness?

66
Q

Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) includes

A

-information for safe handling, clean up, and disposal of the chemical
-physical and chemical description
-contact info of supplier
-date
-list of any health, environment, flammability, or reactivity risks

67
Q

rickettsia

A

type of bacteria commonly transmitted through bites, such as ticks, fleas, and lice.