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Pharm > Infection and Immunity > Flashcards

Infection and Immunity Flashcards

1
Q

_______ immunity is inflammation that causes the release of inflammatory mediators

A

nonspecific

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2
Q

nonspecific immunity causes a ____ and ______ response

A

vascular, cellular

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3
Q

_____ or _____ immunity recognizes or identifies a pathogen and develops antibodies to fight it off

A

specific or adaptive

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4
Q

______ si when the infection is so bad it releases chemicals into the blood stream that trigger whole body inflammation that is damaging

A

sepsis

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5
Q

bacteria are _____ celled organisms

A

single

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6
Q

bacteria can produce ______ and/or _______ that are very harmful

A

toxins, enzymes

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7
Q

______ spectrum antibiotics work against either gram negative or gram positive bacteria

A

narrow

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8
Q

_______ spectrum antibiotics work on both gram negative and gram positive bacteria

A

broad

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9
Q

a gram _____ tells whether it is gram positive or gram negative

A

stain

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10
Q

gram ______ bacteria loose the stain and gram ______ retain the stain

A

negative, positive

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11
Q

test done to see which antibiotic will work best with a specific bacteria culture

A

culture and sensitivity

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12
Q

________ antibiotics inhibit growth or replication of bacteria

A

bacteriostatic

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13
Q

_______ antibiotics kill bacteria

A

bactericidal

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14
Q

4 things antibiotics inhibit bacteria to synthesize

A

cell wall, protein, DNA, folic acid

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15
Q

most antibiotics are not highly _____ bound

A

protein

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16
Q

how soon after administration peaks are checked

A

hour and a half

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17
Q

when to check troughs

A

right before next dose

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18
Q

gram positive antibiotics

A

penicillins, macrolides, lincosamides

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19
Q

penicillin pregnancy category

A

B

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20
Q

do not give penicillin within an hour of ________

A

aminoglycosides

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21
Q

penicillins stop the synthesis of bacterial _____ ____

A

cell wall

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22
Q

2 common uses of penicillin

A

syphilis and gonorrhea

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23
Q

______ is added to penicillin to keep the bacteria enzymes from breaking the antibiotic down

A

clavulanate

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24
Q

normal BUN values

A

7-21

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25
Q

normal creatine levels for men

A

0.74 - 1.35

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26
Q

normal creatine levels for women

A

0.59 - 1.04

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27
Q

normal AST levels

A

8 - 48

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28
Q

normal ALT levels

A

7-55

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29
Q

macrolides interfere with _____ synthesis in the bacteria

A

protein

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30
Q

3 common uses for macrolides

A

strep, gonorrhea, and C-diff

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31
Q

macrolide pregnancy category

A

B

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32
Q

macrolides can be used in place of _______ when people are allergic

A

penicillins

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33
Q

2 things you cannot consume with macrolides

A

dairy and grapefruit juice

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34
Q

macrolides can cause issues with the _____

A

liver

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35
Q

2 macrolides S/E

A

confusion and superinfection

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36
Q

antibiotic similar to macrolide, but are more dangerous due to toxicity

A

licosamides

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37
Q

lincosamides can cause low ____ _____

A

blood counts

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38
Q

gram negative antibiotics

A

aminoglycosides

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39
Q

aminoglycosides are only bacter_____

A

icidal

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40
Q

4 routes for aminoglycosides

A

IV, IM, opthalamic, topical

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41
Q

aminoglycoside pregnancy category

A

D

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42
Q

aminoglycosides are not good for your ______ and ____

A

liver and kidney

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43
Q

4 side effects of aminoglycosides

A

ototoxicity, photosensitivity, vertigo, tinnitus

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44
Q

taking aminoglycosides with _______ increases risk for ototoxicity

A

diuretics

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45
Q

aminoglycosides inhibit _____ in the bacteria

A

ribosomes

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46
Q

aminoglycosides are used for _____ bacterial infections

A

severe

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47
Q

aminoglycoside that you must check peaks and troughs

A

gentamicin

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48
Q

gram positive and negative antibiotics

A

cephalosporins
fluoroquinolones
tetracyclines
sulfonamides
metronidazole
carbapenems

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49
Q

cephalosporins are divided into __ generations

A

5

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50
Q

1st generation cephalosporins treat gram ______ bacteria

A

positive

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51
Q

2nd and 3rd generation cephalosporins treat gram ______ bacteria

A

negative

52
Q

4th generation cephalosporins treat gram ________ and ______ bacteria

A

negative and positive

53
Q

5th generation cephalosporins treat gram _______ bacteria and _____

A

positive, MRSA

54
Q

be cautious with cephalosporins and ______ disease, especially with aminoglycosides

A

kidney

55
Q

2 side effects of cephalosporins

A

dizziness and superinfection

56
Q

cephalosporins have a cross allergy with ______ because they have a similar action

A

penicillin

57
Q

3rd and 4th generation cephalosporins are used with _____

A

sepsis

58
Q

common uses for cephalosporins

A

E. coli and proteus mirabilis

59
Q

do not give cephalosporins with _______

A

tetracyclines

60
Q

cephalosporins pregnancy category

A

B

61
Q

watch for bleeding in patients on anticoagulant and ________ antibiotics

A

cephalosporin

62
Q

3 things to avoid eating when taking fluoroquinolones

A

antacids, dairy, iron

63
Q

fluoroquinolones pregnancy category

A

C

64
Q

fluoroquinolones stop ____ synthesis in bacteria

A

DNA

65
Q

4 side effects of fluoroquinolones

A

photosensitivity
urine crystals
peripheral neuropathy
tendonitis and rupture

66
Q

if you use fluoroquinolones with ______ it lengthens the QT interval

A

amiodorones

67
Q

taking fluoroquinolones with _____ increases risk for CNS stimulation

A

NSAIDs

68
Q

do not give fluoroquinolones to children under __

A

8

69
Q

fluoroquinolones can affect _____ and ____ developement of the fetus

A

bone and teeth

70
Q

tatrecyclines are just bacteri______

A

ostatic

71
Q

tetracycline preg category

A

D

72
Q

tetracyclines affect _____ and ____ development in young children

A

bone and teeth development

73
Q

2 things not to eat when taking tetracyclines

A

dairy or antacids

74
Q

main S/E of tetracyclines

A

photosensitivity

75
Q

tetracycline can cause _____ toxicity

A

digoxin

76
Q

4 uses for tetracyclines

A

acne, tick bites, rocky mountain spotted fever, lyme disease

77
Q

4 uses for sulfonamides

A

UIT, ear infection, pneumonia, prophylaxitc for AIDS

78
Q

do not take sulfonamides with _______

A

antacids

79
Q

sulfonamides preg category

A

D

80
Q

3 side effects of sulfonamides

A

decreased blood counts, photosensitivity, urine crystals

81
Q

sulfonamides stop bacteria from synthesizing ____ ____

A

folic acid

82
Q

sulfonamides is an alternative for _______

A

penicillin

83
Q

sulfonamides can cause _____ blood glucose in patients with diabetes

A

low

84
Q

metronidazoles have some _____ properties

A

antiprotozoal

85
Q

4 uses for metronidazole

A

GI tract infections, gram negative bacilli, giardiasis, trichomoniasis

86
Q

do not drink _____ with metronidazole

A

alcohol

87
Q

6 side effects of metrondazole

A

dark urine, dry mouth, depression, CNS symptoms, parethesia, metallic taste

88
Q

metronidazole preg category

A

D

89
Q

carbapenems are only bacteri___

A

cidal

90
Q

carbapenems inhibit bacterial ____ ____ synthesis

A

cell membrane

91
Q

3 things carbapenems are used for

A

strep, staph, proteus mirabilis

92
Q

carbapenem side effects

A

altered mental status and CNS problems

93
Q

3 things carbapenems are contraindicated in

A

seizures, meningitis, and advanced kideny disease

94
Q

carbapenems are toxic to the _____

A

kidneys

95
Q

3 uses for glycopeptides

A

staph (MRSA), endocarditis, and C. diff

96
Q

glycopeptides inhibit ___ ____ synthesis

A

cell wall

97
Q

glycopeptides are bad for your ____

A

kidneys

98
Q

2 side effects of glycopeptides

A

ototoxicity, red man syndrome

99
Q

vancomycin peak and trough

A

peak: 5-15
trough: 20-40

100
Q

gentamycin peak and trough

A

peak: 0.25-2
trough: 5-10

101
Q

bacteria that causes tuberculosis

A

mycobacterium tuberculosis

102
Q

antitubercular drugs are usually used in ____

A

combos

103
Q

first line antitubercular drugs

A

isoniazide and rifampin

104
Q

take antitbercular meds on an ____ stomach

A

empty

105
Q

4 side effects of antitubercular meds

A

neropathy, low blood conts, orange urine, ototoxicty

106
Q

antifungals decrease _____ levels

A

potassium

107
Q

antifungals can inhibit _____ of other drugs

A

metabolism

108
Q

3 side effects of antifungals

A

hypotension, liver enzyme altercations, electrolyte imbalance

109
Q

6 common viruses treated with antivirals

A

influenza, herpes, CMS, hepatitis, HIV, COVID

110
Q

tamiflu must be taken within ___ hours of symptoms

A

48

111
Q

4 side effects of antivirals

A

neuro problems, increase bleeding risk, decreased blood counts, malaise

112
Q

_____ immunity is the formation of antibodies secondary to exposure to specific antigen or pathogen

A

active

113
Q

______ immunity is pre formed antibodies that are injected into the body and react with a specific antigen

A

passive

114
Q

active artifical immunity

A

vaccines

115
Q

active natural immunity

A

getting sick

116
Q

passive natural immunity

A

breasfeeding

117
Q

passive artificial immunity

A

infusion of immunoglobulins or interferons

118
Q

____ or ____ vaccines are weakened virus

A

live or attenuated

119
Q

_____ vaccines are dead viruses

A

inactivated

120
Q

examples of inactivated vaccines

A

polio, Hep A, Flu, Rabies

121
Q

attentuated vaccine examples

A

MMR, Rotavirus, smallpox, varicella

122
Q

_____ vaccines contain protein fragments from the pathogen

A

subunit

123
Q

5 subunit vaccine examples

A

Hep B, HPV, DTaP, meningitis, shingles

124
Q

mRNA vaccine examples

A

covid, viral vector

125
Q

toxoid vaccines

A

tetanus, diphtheria

126
Q

most vaccines are made with ___ so make sure patients are not allergic

A

eggs

127
Q

do not give vaccines to patients on _____

A

steroids

Pharm (9 decks)

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