Infection and Immunity Flashcards
1
Q
_______ immunity is inflammation that causes the release of inflammatory mediators
A
nonspecific
2
Q
nonspecific immunity causes a ____ and ______ response
A
vascular, cellular
3
Q
_____ or _____ immunity recognizes or identifies a pathogen and develops antibodies to fight it off
A
specific or adaptive
4
Q
______ si when the infection is so bad it releases chemicals into the blood stream that trigger whole body inflammation that is damaging
A
sepsis
5
Q
bacteria are _____ celled organisms
A
single
6
Q
bacteria can produce ______ and/or _______ that are very harmful
A
toxins, enzymes
7
Q
______ spectrum antibiotics work against either gram negative or gram positive bacteria
A
narrow
8
Q
_______ spectrum antibiotics work on both gram negative and gram positive bacteria
A
broad
9
Q
a gram _____ tells whether it is gram positive or gram negative
A
stain
10
Q
gram ______ bacteria loose the stain and gram ______ retain the stain
A
negative, positive
11
Q
test done to see which antibiotic will work best with a specific bacteria culture
A
culture and sensitivity
12
Q
________ antibiotics inhibit growth or replication of bacteria
A
bacteriostatic
13
Q
_______ antibiotics kill bacteria
A
bactericidal
14
Q
4 things antibiotics inhibit bacteria to synthesize
A
cell wall, protein, DNA, folic acid
15
Q
most antibiotics are not highly _____ bound
A
protein
16
Q
how soon after administration peaks are checked
A
hour and a half
17
Q
when to check troughs
A
right before next dose
18
Q
gram positive antibiotics
A
penicillins, macrolides, lincosamides
19
Q
penicillin pregnancy category
A
B
20
Q
do not give penicillin within an hour of ________
A
aminoglycosides
21
Q
penicillins stop the synthesis of bacterial _____ ____
A
cell wall
22
Q
2 common uses of penicillin
A
syphilis and gonorrhea
23
Q
______ is added to penicillin to keep the bacteria enzymes from breaking the antibiotic down
A
clavulanate
24
Q
normal BUN values
A
7-21
25
normal creatine levels for men
0.74 - 1.35
26
normal creatine levels for women
0.59 - 1.04
27
normal AST levels
8 - 48
28
normal ALT levels
7-55
29
macrolides interfere with _____ synthesis in the bacteria
protein
30
3 common uses for macrolides
strep, gonorrhea, and C-diff
31
macrolide pregnancy category
B
32
macrolides can be used in place of _______ when people are allergic
penicillins
33
2 things you cannot consume with macrolides
dairy and grapefruit juice
34
macrolides can cause issues with the _____
liver
35
2 macrolides S/E
confusion and superinfection
36
antibiotic similar to macrolide, but are more dangerous due to toxicity
licosamides
37
lincosamides can cause low ____ _____
blood counts
38
gram negative antibiotics
aminoglycosides
39
aminoglycosides are only bacter_____
icidal
40
4 routes for aminoglycosides
IV, IM, opthalamic, topical
41
aminoglycoside pregnancy category
D
42
aminoglycosides are not good for your ______ and ____
liver and kidney
43
4 side effects of aminoglycosides
ototoxicity, photosensitivity, vertigo, tinnitus
44
taking aminoglycosides with _______ increases risk for ototoxicity
diuretics
45
aminoglycosides inhibit _____ in the bacteria
ribosomes
46
aminoglycosides are used for _____ bacterial infections
severe
47
aminoglycoside that you must check peaks and troughs
gentamicin
48
gram positive and negative antibiotics
cephalosporins
fluoroquinolones
tetracyclines
sulfonamides
metronidazole
carbapenems
49
cephalosporins are divided into __ generations
5
50
1st generation cephalosporins treat gram ______ bacteria
positive
51
2nd and 3rd generation cephalosporins treat gram ______ bacteria
negative
52
4th generation cephalosporins treat gram ________ and ______ bacteria
negative and positive
53
5th generation cephalosporins treat gram _______ bacteria and _____
positive, MRSA
54
be cautious with cephalosporins and ______ disease, especially with aminoglycosides
kidney
55
2 side effects of cephalosporins
dizziness and superinfection
56
cephalosporins have a cross allergy with ______ because they have a similar action
penicillin
57
3rd and 4th generation cephalosporins are used with _____
sepsis
58
common uses for cephalosporins
E. coli and proteus mirabilis
59
do not give cephalosporins with _______
tetracyclines
60
cephalosporins pregnancy category
B
61
watch for bleeding in patients on anticoagulant and ________ antibiotics
cephalosporin
62
3 things to avoid eating when taking fluoroquinolones
antacids, dairy, iron
63
fluoroquinolones pregnancy category
C
64
fluoroquinolones stop ____ synthesis in bacteria
DNA
65
4 side effects of fluoroquinolones
photosensitivity
urine crystals
peripheral neuropathy
tendonitis and rupture
66
if you use fluoroquinolones with ______ it lengthens the QT interval
amiodorones
67
taking fluoroquinolones with _____ increases risk for CNS stimulation
NSAIDs
68
do not give fluoroquinolones to children under __
8
69
fluoroquinolones can affect _____ and ____ developement of the fetus
bone and teeth
70
tatrecyclines are just bacteri______
ostatic
71
tetracycline preg category
D
72
tetracyclines affect _____ and ____ development in young children
bone and teeth development
73
2 things not to eat when taking tetracyclines
dairy or antacids
74
main S/E of tetracyclines
photosensitivity
75
tetracycline can cause _____ toxicity
digoxin
76
4 uses for tetracyclines
acne, tick bites, rocky mountain spotted fever, lyme disease
77
4 uses for sulfonamides
UIT, ear infection, pneumonia, prophylaxitc for AIDS
78
do not take sulfonamides with _______
antacids
79
sulfonamides preg category
D
80
3 side effects of sulfonamides
decreased blood counts, photosensitivity, urine crystals
81
sulfonamides stop bacteria from synthesizing ____ ____
folic acid
82
sulfonamides is an alternative for _______
penicillin
83
sulfonamides can cause _____ blood glucose in patients with diabetes
low
84
metronidazoles have some _____ properties
antiprotozoal
85
4 uses for metronidazole
GI tract infections, gram negative bacilli, giardiasis, trichomoniasis
86
do not drink _____ with metronidazole
alcohol
87
6 side effects of metrondazole
dark urine, dry mouth, depression, CNS symptoms, parethesia, metallic taste
88
metronidazole preg category
D
89
carbapenems are only bacteri___
cidal
90
carbapenems inhibit bacterial ____ ____ synthesis
cell membrane
91
3 things carbapenems are used for
strep, staph, proteus mirabilis
92
carbapenem side effects
altered mental status and CNS problems
93
3 things carbapenems are contraindicated in
seizures, meningitis, and advanced kideny disease
94
carbapenems are toxic to the _____
kidneys
95
3 uses for glycopeptides
staph (MRSA), endocarditis, and C. diff
96
glycopeptides inhibit ___ ____ synthesis
cell wall
97
glycopeptides are bad for your ____
kidneys
98
2 side effects of glycopeptides
ototoxicity, red man syndrome
99
vancomycin peak and trough
peak: 5-15
trough: 20-40
100
gentamycin peak and trough
peak: 0.25-2
trough: 5-10
101
bacteria that causes tuberculosis
mycobacterium tuberculosis
102
antitubercular drugs are usually used in ____
combos
103
first line antitubercular drugs
isoniazide and rifampin
104
take antitbercular meds on an ____ stomach
empty
105
4 side effects of antitubercular meds
neropathy, low blood conts, orange urine, ototoxicty
106
antifungals decrease _____ levels
potassium
107
antifungals can inhibit _____ of other drugs
metabolism
108
3 side effects of antifungals
hypotension, liver enzyme altercations, electrolyte imbalance
109
6 common viruses treated with antivirals
influenza, herpes, CMS, hepatitis, HIV, COVID
110
tamiflu must be taken within ___ hours of symptoms
48
111
4 side effects of antivirals
neuro problems, increase bleeding risk, decreased blood counts, malaise
112
_____ immunity is the formation of antibodies secondary to exposure to specific antigen or pathogen
active
113
______ immunity is pre formed antibodies that are injected into the body and react with a specific antigen
passive
114
active artifical immunity
vaccines
115
active natural immunity
getting sick
116
passive natural immunity
breasfeeding
117
passive artificial immunity
infusion of immunoglobulins or interferons
118
____ or ____ vaccines are weakened virus
live or attenuated
119
_____ vaccines are dead viruses
inactivated
120
examples of inactivated vaccines
polio, Hep A, Flu, Rabies
121
attentuated vaccine examples
MMR, Rotavirus, smallpox, varicella
122
_____ vaccines contain protein fragments from the pathogen
subunit
123
5 subunit vaccine examples
Hep B, HPV, DTaP, meningitis, shingles
124
mRNA vaccine examples
covid, viral vector
125
toxoid vaccines
tetanus, diphtheria
126
most vaccines are made with ___ so make sure patients are not allergic
eggs
127
do not give vaccines to patients on _____
steroids
