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Pharm > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

3 things that are misuse of drugs

A
  • taking meds in the wrong manner
  • taking a different dose than prescribed
  • taking someone else’s perscription
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2
Q

2 physical withdrawals of addiction

A
  • increased HR
  • N/V
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3
Q

4 psychological withdrawal symptoms

A
  • emotional
  • angry
  • irritable
  • mood swings
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4
Q

term for a patients reduced reaction to a drug because of repeated use

A

tolerance

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5
Q

drug tolerance changes the brains ______ pathway

A

reward

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6
Q

the minimum point at which something causes you pain

A

pain threshold

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7
Q

maximum amount of pain that you can handle

A

pain tolerance

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8
Q

class of medications that are designed to relieve pain without loss of consciousness

A

analgesia

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9
Q

pain that lasts less than 6 months

A

acute

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10
Q

pain that lasts longer than 6 months

A

chronic

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11
Q

pain in the organs

A

visceral

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12
Q

pain from the skin, muscles, and soft tissues

A

somatic pain

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13
Q

pain caused by damage or disease to somatosensory system

A

neuropathic

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14
Q

neuropathic pain that is abnormal sensations

A

dysenthesia

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15
Q

neuropathic pain that is normally not painful stimuli

A

allodynia

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16
Q

WHO step 1 for mild pain

A

non opioid medications

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17
Q

WHO step 2 for moderate pain

A
  • weak opioid
  • non-opioid
  • adjuvant analgesic
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18
Q

WHO step 3 for severe pain

A
  • strong opioid
  • non-opioid
  • adjuvant analgesic
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19
Q

2 types of nonopioid medication

A
  • NSAIDs
  • acetaminophen
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20
Q

non-opioid medication uses (3)

A
  • mild/moderate pain
  • head ache
  • fever
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21
Q

side effects of NSAIDs (2)

A
  • GI upset
  • Bleeding
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22
Q

levels to monitor when giving NSAIDs

A

BUN/creatine

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23
Q

levels to monitor when giving acetaminophen

A

AST/ALT

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24
Q

3 side effects of acetaminophen

A
  • N/V
  • rash
  • anorexia
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25
Q

max acetaminophen in a day

A

4 grams

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26
Q

opioids work on the same site as natural _________

A

endorphins

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27
Q

opioids also work to suppress ________ and _______

A

respirations and cough

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28
Q

6 side effects of opioids

A
  • N/V
  • constipation
  • hypotension
  • decreased RR
  • urinary retention
  • itching
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29
Q

reversal agent for opioids

A

naloxone (narcan)

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30
Q

anesthetics cause loss of consciousness by depression of the ______ by decreasing the firing of ______

A

CNS, neurons

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31
Q

2 types of anesthesia

A
  • local
  • general
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32
Q

type of anesthesia where the patient is still awake but part of the body is suppressed

A

regional anesthesia

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33
Q

inhaled general anesthesia

A

nitrous oxide

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34
Q

2 routes of general anesthesia

A

IV or inhaled

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35
Q

5 side effects of general anesthesia

A
  • cardiac/respiratory depression
  • hypotension
  • hyperthermia
  • N/V
  • dyrhythmias
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36
Q

example of local anesthesia

A

lidocaine (xylocaine)

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37
Q

regional nerve block anesthesia

A

bupivacaine (marcain)

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38
Q

3 side effects of local/regional anesthesia

A
  • H/A
  • hypotension
  • rash
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39
Q

spinal anesthesia is a needle that goes into the spinal ____

A

sac

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40
Q

epidural anesthesia is a needle that goes into the spinal _____

A

canal

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41
Q

4 cardinal signs of inflammation

A
  • redness
  • swelling
  • pain
  • heat
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42
Q

2 inflammatory mediators

A
  • prostaglandins
  • cyclooxygenase (COX) enzyme
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43
Q

4 different classes of anti-inflammatory rugs

A
  • NSAIDs
  • steroids
  • DMARDs (disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs)
  • antigout drugs
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44
Q

1st generation NSAIDs S/E (4)

A
  • GI upset
  • bleeding
  • ulcers
  • tinnitus
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45
Q

2nd generation NSAIDs have less side effects and do not effect the _____ and _______ function

A

GI, platalet

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46
Q

4 uses for NSAIDs

A
  • inflammation
  • pain
  • antipyretic
  • decreases platelet aggregation
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47
Q

NSAIDs decrease platelet aggregation by inhibiting of _____ enzyme

A

COX

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48
Q

NSAIDs are highly ______ bound

A

protein

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49
Q

NSAIDs cause ______ and ______ retention

A

sodium, water

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50
Q

steroids decrease the ______ response

A

immune

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51
Q

6 things steroids increase

A
  • blood glucose
  • BP
  • sodium/water retention
  • HR
  • appetite
  • risk for infection
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52
Q

steroids can decrease _______ levels

A

potassium

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53
Q

4 things steroids can cause

A
  • osteoporosis
  • mood chnages
  • irritability
  • insomnia
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54
Q

to decrease GI upset with steroids you can take them with food or _______ ________

A

H2-receptor agonist

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55
Q

steroids must be _______

A

tapered

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56
Q

medication used for N/V related to surgery, chemo, or vertigo

A

antiemetic

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57
Q

3 side effects of antiemetics

A
  • drowsiness
  • dry mouth
  • constipation
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58
Q

antiemetic that can cause necrosis

A

promethazine (phenegran)

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59
Q

antiemetic that pregnant women can take to help with nausea

A

ondanestron (zofran)

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60
Q

antidiarrheals decrease ________ of GI

A

hypermotility

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61
Q

4 uses for antidiarrheals

A
  • GI illness
  • bacteria
  • diet
  • drug-related diarrhea
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62
Q

5 side effects of antidiarrheals

A
  • drowsiness
  • dizziness
  • urinary retention
  • flushing
  • dry mouth
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63
Q

lomotil is made of ______ and _____

A

atropine and opioid

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64
Q

the atropine in lomotil can cause increased ______ _______ and ______ _______

A

heart rate and intraocular pressure

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65
Q

when taking lomotil, monitor for ________ and decreased ______ _____ because of the opioid in it

A

constipation, respiration rate

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66
Q

2 side effect of immodium

A
  • nausea
  • fatigue
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67
Q

Pepto Bismol can cause black _____ and _____

A

stool and gums

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68
Q

osmotic laxatives are _______ which means they have more solutes and pull more water into the intestine to move the feces

A

hyperosmolar

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69
Q

laxatives that irritate to intestinal lining

A

stimulant

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70
Q

if the patient is taking _____ ______ laxatives, you must have them drink water or else it will cause a bowel obstruction

A

bulk forming

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71
Q

stool softening laxatives that bring water to the stool

A

emollients

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72
Q

antacids neutralize _____ ____ and reduce _______ activity

A

HCl acid, pepsin

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73
Q

if the antacid contains _______ people wit impaired renal function cannot use them

A

magnesium

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74
Q

2 side effects of antacids

A
  • anorexia
  • constipation
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75
Q

take antacids ___ to ___ hours after meal time to at bedtime

A

1 to 3

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76
Q

calcium can cause _______ and magnesium can cause ______

A

constiaption, diarrhea

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77
Q

_______ ulcers cause pain right after eating

A

gastric

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78
Q

_______ ulcers cause pain between meals

A

duodenal

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79
Q

inflammatory erosion of the intestinal lining that causes intense burning and gnawing pain between meals

A

peptic ulcer disease

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80
Q

6 risk factors for peptic ulcer disease

A
  • H. pylori
  • NSAID use
  • stress
  • alcohol
  • smoking
  • caffiene
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81
Q

GERD decreases muscles tone of the _______ ______ and it causes regirgitation of stomach contents

A

esophogeal sphincter

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82
Q

4 risk factors for GERD

A
  • obesity
  • pregnancy
  • hiatal hernia
  • gastroparesis
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83
Q

4 S/S of GERD

A
  • epigastric pain
  • heart burn
  • bitter taste
  • dry cough
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84
Q

GERD medication that blocks histamine receptors to decrease HCl production

A

H2 blockers

85
Q

4 side effects of H2 blockers

A
  • liver/kidney problems
  • agitation
  • gynocomastia
  • confusion
86
Q

4 side effects of both H2 blockers and proton pump inhibitors

A
  • H/A
  • diarrhea
  • dizziness
  • constipation
87
Q

proton pump inhibitors block HCl production in _______ cells

A

parietal

88
Q

proton pump inhibitors must be taken _____ meals

A

before

89
Q

proton pump inhibitors can cause _________ because it disrupts clcium absorption

A

osteoporosis

90
Q

medication that creates a vicious protective substance that covers the ulcers on the stomach

A

pepsin inhibitor

91
Q

pepsin inhibitors must be given on an _______ stomach

A

empty

92
Q

pepsin inhibitors can cause _________

A

constipation

93
Q

you must wait ____ to ____ hours between pepsin inhibitors and other drugs

A

1-2

94
Q

2 types of lower UTI

A
  • cystitis
  • urethritis
95
Q

1 types of upper UTI

A

pyelonephritis

96
Q

4 common bacteria that cause UTIs

A
  • E. coli
  • proteus
  • staph
  • candida
97
Q

6 S/S of UTI

A
  • dysuria
  • burning
  • urgency
  • frequency in small amounts
  • cloudy
  • hematuria
98
Q

nitrofuratoin and fasfomycin can turn the urine _______

A

brown

99
Q

nitrofuratoin and fasfomycin mst be taken with food and cause ____ upset

A

GI

100
Q

nitrofuratoin and fasfomycin suppress ________ ______

A

bacterial growth

101
Q

methanmine helps _______ the urine to help with UTI

A

acidify

102
Q

drink _____ and _____ juice when taking methenamine

A

water, cranberry

103
Q

2 things to avoid on methenamine

A
  • citrus
  • antacids
104
Q

metheamine cannot be taken with _______ or else it causes urine crytsals

A

Bacrtim

105
Q

4 side effects of sulfonamides

A
  • GI upset
  • urine crystals
  • photosnesitivity
  • rash
106
Q

3 things to not take with fluoroquinolones

A
  • dairy
  • antacids
  • iron
107
Q

4 side effects of fluoroquinolones

A
  • GI upset
  • photosensitivity
  • neuropathy
  • diminsihed renal function
108
Q

fluoroquinolones can cause ______ with older adults

A

tendonitis

109
Q

urinary analgesic

A

phenzaopyridine

110
Q

3 side effects of phenazopyridine

A
  • H/A
  • GI upset
  • red/orange urine
111
Q

do not take phenazopyridine with _______ dysfunction

A

renal

112
Q

the endocrone system produces hormones that are synthesized from ______ _____ and ________

A

amino acids and cholesterol

113
Q

2 categories of hormones

A
  • proteins/small peptides
  • steoids
114
Q

master gland that helps all other glands secrete hormones

A

pituitary

115
Q

2 hormones secreted by thr thyroid to maintain metabolism

A

T3 and T4

116
Q

2 glands on the thyroid that regulate calcium levels

A

parathyroid glands

117
Q

the adrenal glands secrete _______ that help maintain homeostasis

A

steroids

118
Q

the adrenal glands regulate ______ and _____- balance and help play a role in metabolism

A

fluid and electrolyte

119
Q

3 things that increase when the thyroid is stimulated

A
  • CO
  • O2 consumption
  • Carb use
120
Q

low thyroid levels

A

myxedema

121
Q

7 S/S of hypothyroidism

A
  • lethargy
  • memory impairment
  • emotional changes
  • slow speech
  • dry skin
  • weight gain
  • cold intolerance
122
Q

hypothyroidism causes an increase in ______ levels

A

TSH

123
Q

severe/emergent hyperthyroidism

A

thyroid storm

124
Q

most common type of hyperthyroidism

A

Graves disease (thyrotoxicosis)

125
Q

8 S/S of hyperthyroidism

A
  • rapid pulse
  • palpitations
  • excess perspiration
  • heat intolerance
  • irritability
  • bulging eyes
  • weight loss
  • goiter
126
Q

medication for hypothyroidism

A

levothyroxine sodium

127
Q

3 uses for levothyroxine sodium

A
  • goiter
  • hypothyroidism
  • hashimoto (thyroiditis)
128
Q

levothyroxine sodium is ______ bound so it interacts with a lot of medications

A

protein

129
Q

7 side effects of levothyroxine sodium

A
  • N/V
  • anorexia
  • diarrhea
  • H/A
  • weight loss
  • amenorrhea
  • tachycardia
130
Q

you must take levothyroxine sodium at the same time everyday, before _______

A

breakfast

131
Q

tell patients taking levothyroxine sodium to monitor for ______ pain and rapid ______ _____

A

chest, heart rate

132
Q

7 foods that inhibit the thyroid

A
  • strawberries
  • peaches
  • pears
  • peas
  • cabbage
  • kale
  • radishes
133
Q

anti-thyroid med used to inhibit hormone synthesis

A

methiamozole (tapazole)

134
Q

anti-thyroid med that inhibits the conversion of T3 and T4

A

propylthiouracil (PTU)

135
Q

propylthiouracil can be really band for your _______

A

liver

136
Q

anti-thyroid med that reduces the size and vascularity of the thyroid

A

iodine-potassium iodide (SKKI)

137
Q

iodine-potassium iodide is diluted and given through a _______

A

straw

138
Q

2 corticosteroids produced by the adrenal glands

A
  • cortisol
  • aldosterone
139
Q

syndrome caused by adrenal HYPERsecretion

A

Cushing’s

140
Q

2 causes of adrenal hypersecretions

A
  • tumor
  • extended use of steroids
141
Q

9 signs and symptoms of Cushing’s syndrome

A
  • hyperglycemia
  • hypertension
  • muscle wasting
  • peptic ulcers
  • cataracts
  • hypervolemia
  • hypernatremia
  • hypokalemia
  • weight gain
142
Q

disease caused by adrenal HYPOsecretion

A

Addison’s disease

143
Q

Addison’s disease is an __________ disease

A

autoimmune

144
Q

9 signs and symptoms of Addison’s disease (adrenal hyposecretion)

A
  • hypoglycemia
  • muscle weakness
  • fatigue
  • N/V
  • tachycardia
  • hypovolemia
  • hyponatremia
  • hyperkalemia
  • anemia
145
Q

corticosteroids promote _______ retention and ________ excretion

A

sodium, potassium

146
Q

steroids suppress ________ and _______ function

A

inflammation and adrenal

147
Q

6 uses for steroids

A
  • inflammation
  • dermatological
  • autoimmune
  • asthma
  • prevent organ rejection
  • head trauma
148
Q

6 side effects of steroids

A
  • moon face
  • hyperglycemia
  • hypertension
  • psychoses
  • thin skin
  • peptic ulcers
149
Q

take steroids with _______

A

meals

150
Q

the pancreas secretes _______ and tells the liver to secrete _______

A

glucagon, glucose

151
Q

pancreas secretes _______ which suppresses glucagon and makes you feel full

A

amaline

152
Q

insulin helps ______ move into your cells from your blood stream

A

sugar

153
Q

4 signs and symptoms of hyperglycemia

A
  • polyuria
  • polydipsia
  • polyphagia
  • sweet breath
154
Q

6 signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia

A
  • H/A
  • nervousness
  • sweating
  • tremors
  • rapid pulse
  • confusion
155
Q

in type ____ diabetes the pancreas isn’t producing any insulin at all

A

1

156
Q

in type 2 diabetes the pancreas produces a little bit of insulin, but _____ cells are tired and develop insulin resistance

A

betaa

157
Q

diabetes can lead to _______ ______ disease

A

peripheral arterial

158
Q

diabetes can lead to _____ failure or disease

A

kidney

159
Q

____ to ____ grams of simple carbs can help with hypoglycemia

A

10 -15

160
Q

2 uses for inuslin

A
  • type 1 diabetes
  • hyperglycemia
161
Q

insulin can cause ______ _____ as a side effect

A

insulin shock

162
Q

you must ______ insulin after opening it

A

refrigerate

163
Q

stress can cause blood glucose to _____

A

raise

164
Q

rapid-acting insulins (3)

A
  • lispro (humalog)
  • aspart (novolog)
  • glulisine (apidra)
165
Q

rapid-acting insulin onset

A

5-15 minutes

166
Q

rapid-acting insulin peak

A

30 minutes to 3 hours

167
Q

rapid-acting insulin duration

A

2 to 5 hours

168
Q

short-acting insulin med

A

regular (humulin R; novolog R)

169
Q

short-acting insulin onset

A

30 minutes to 1 hour

170
Q

short-acting insulin peak

A

2 to 4 hours

171
Q

short-acting insulin duration

A

6 to 8 hours

172
Q

intermediate-acting insulins (2)

A
  • isophane
  • NPH (humulin N; novolin N)
173
Q

intermediate-acting insulin onset

A

1 to 2 hours

174
Q

intermediate-acting insulin peak

A

6 to 12 hours

175
Q

intermediate-acting insulin duration

A

18 to 24 hours

176
Q

long-acting insulin example

A

Glargine (lantus)

177
Q

long-acting insulin onset

A

1 hour

178
Q

long-acting insulin peak

A

evenly distibuted

179
Q

long-acting insulin duration

A

24 hours

180
Q

combination insulin example

A

humulin 70/30

181
Q

2 oral anti-diabetic medications

A
  • sulfonyureas
  • biguanides
182
Q

sulfonylureas stimulate _____ cells to produce more insulin

A

beta

183
Q

oral anti-diabetic meds are used for type ___ diabetes

A

2

184
Q

3 side effects of sulfonylureas

A
  • hypoglycemia
  • abdominal pain
  • tachycardia
185
Q

give sulfonylureas before ________

A

breakfast

186
Q

do not give sulfonylureas to patients with ________ or ______ dysfunction

A

kidney, liver

187
Q

biguanides decrease hepatic production of _______ from stored ______

A

glucose, glycogen

188
Q

biguanides diminshes increase in serum glucose after a _______

A

meal

189
Q

6 side effects of biguanides

A
  • dizziness
  • fatigue
  • H/A
  • agitation
  • bitter metallic taste
  • diarrhea
190
Q

hold biguanides for 48 hours after and before ____ ______ ____ or else the kidneys will be damaged

A

IV contrast dye

191
Q

do not drink _______ with biguanides

A

alcohol

192
Q

take biguanides with _______

A

meals

193
Q

sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 for type 2 diabetes

A

invokana

194
Q

invokana must be used in combination of ______ and _____

A

diet and exercise

195
Q

Invokana works with the _____ to excrete glucose in the urine

A

kidneys

196
Q

4 risks using Invokana

A
  • kidney problems
  • UTIs
  • yeast infections
  • electrolyte imbalance
197
Q

Invokana is preg category ___

A

C

198
Q

amylin analogue for type 1 and 2 diabetes

A

Symlin

199
Q

symlin is used with _____ therapy

A

insulin

200
Q

symlin decreases post meal ______ and _____

A

glucose and glucagon

201
Q

give symlin ______ meal via SQ but NEVER in the _____

A

before, arm

202
Q

glucagon-like peptide-1 agonists ussed for type 2 diabetes

A

Exenatide (byetta, bydureon)

203
Q

Exenatide improves ______ _____ responsiveness and enhances ______ secretion

A

beta cell, insulin

204
Q

Exenatide slows down ______ production from liver

A

glucose

205
Q

Exenatide is preg category ___

A

C

206
Q

3 places to give Exenatide

A
  • arm
  • thigh
  • abdomen
207
Q

on patients taking Exenatide, monitor for _____ _____ tumors and _________

A

thyroid C-cell, pancreatitis

208
Q

once weekly injection that responds to when blood sugar rises

A

trulicity

Pharm (9 decks)

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