Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharmacy > Infection > Flashcards

Infection Flashcards

1
Q

What drug works against anaerobic infections and protozoa?

A

metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

If meningococcal septicaemia is suspected, a single stat dose of what should be given?

A

benzylpenicillin
(ceftaxime in penicillin allergy)
(chloramphenicol if both not suitable)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the treatment options for C.Diff infections?

A

Vancomycin
Fidaxomicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What would be the treatment choice for bacterial vaginosis?

A

Metronidazole 5-7 days or single high dose stat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What would be the treatment choice for chlamydia?

A

Azithromycin or doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the treatment choice for pelvic inflammatory disease?

A

Doxy + Metro + single dose of IM ceftriaxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What would be the treatment choice for an acute cough?

A

Doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What would be the first line choice for impetigo?

A

Hydrogen peroxide 1% cream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Treatment of cellulitis?

A

Fluclox
(clari if not suitable)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Prophylaxis of infection following animal or human bite?

A

Co-amox
(doxy with metro if unsuitable)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Treatment with aminoglycosides should not last longer than how many day?

A

7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the MHRA alert for aminoglycosides?

A

Ototoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What condition are aminoglycosides contra-indicated in?

A

myasthenia gravis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What type of organisms do aminoglycosides work against?

A

gram negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How would you manage obese patients taking aminoglycosides?

A

Use IBW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the therapeutic range of gentamicin for multiple daily dosing?

A

Peak: 5-10mg/L
Trough: <2mg/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the peak and trough range for gentamicin when treating endocarditis with multiple daily dosing?

A

Peak: 3-5mg/L
Trough: <1mg/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What specific bacteria is aminoglycosides active against?

A

pseudomonas aeruginosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the treatment uses of aminoglycosides?

A

severe sepsis, pyelonephritis, complicated UTI, endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

With once daily dosing, what is the renal cut off for gentamicin?

A

<20ml/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

With multiple daily dosing of gentamicin, after how many doses should a serum level be measured?

A

3-4 doses or after dose change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which other drugs given alongside gentamicin, would be concerning for risk of ototoxicity?

A

Loop diuretics and cisplatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What specific bacteria are carbapenems active against?

A

They are beta-lactam antibacterials having activity against pseudomonas aeruginosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Why does imipenem have to be given alongside cilastatin?

A

Cilastatin is an enzyme inhibitor which prevents the renal enzymes from inactivating the imipenem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Name the carbapenems and what do they treat?

A

ertapenem - gynae infections, diabetic foot infections
meropenem - meningitis, endocarditis, chronic LRTI in CF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the only medication that interacts with meropenem?

A

sodium valproate
(decreases concentration of valproate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which cephalosporins are suitable against CNS infections?

A

ceftriaxone and cefotaxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Cephalosporins have cross sensitivity with which other group of antibacterials?

A

penicillins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the treatment options and duration of treatment for bronchiectasis?

A

amox, doxy, clari
7-14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the treatment options and duration of treatment for COPD?

A

amox, doxy, clari
5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the treatment options and duration of treatment for acute bronchitis?

A

1st Doxy
amox, clari
5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the treatment options and duration of treatment for lower UTIs in women?

A

nitro or trimeth
fosfomycin
pivmecillinam
amox (only with susceptible)
3 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the treatment options and duration of treatment for lower UTIs in men?

A

nitro or trimeth
fosfomycin
pivmecillinam
amox (only with susceptible)
7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the treatment options and duration of treatment for lower UTI in pregnant women?

A

1st Nitro
Amox or cefalexin
7-14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the treatment options and duration of treatment for acute prostatitis?

A

1st Ciprofloxacin
2nd Ofloxacin
14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the treatment options and duration of treatment for pyelonephritis?

A

1st cefalexin
ciprofloxacin
14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the treatment options and duration of treatment for C.Diff infections?

A

1st vancomycin
2nd fidaxomicin
10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the treatment options and duration of treatment for campylobacter?

A

clari or azithro
Cipro (high resistance)
5-7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the treatment options and duration of treatment for diverticulitis?

A

1st co-amox
cefalexin + metro
trimethoprim + metro
5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the treatment options and duration of treatment for cellulitis?

A

Fluclox
Clari
Erythro (pregnancy)
Doxy
7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the treatment options and duration of treatment for animal bites?

A

co-amox
Doxy + metro
Prophylaxis: 3 days
treatment: 5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the treatment options and duration of treatment for localised non-bullous impetigo?

A

Hydrogen peroxide 1%
fusidic acid 2%
5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the treatment options and duration of treatment for widespread non-bullous impetigo?

A

fusidic acid 2%
Oral fluclox
5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the treatment options and duration of treatment for acute otitis media?

A

1st amox
2nd co-amox
clari if unsuitable
5-7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the treatment options and duration of treatment for acute otitis externa?

A

If pseudomonas suspected:
Ciprofloxacin
Or else:
Penicillin
Clari if not suitable
7-14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which drugs are risk factors for developing C.Diff?

A

clindamycin
Cephalosporins
Broad spec penicillins
Fluoroquinolones
PPIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are CRB65 and CURB65 used to assess?

A

Severity of CAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What dose CURB65 stand for?

A

Confusion
Urea > 7
Resp rate > 30
BP < 90/60
65 years or older

(0-1 low risk)
(2 intermediate risk)
(3-5 high risk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which of the following medications does not interact with methotrexate?
-amoxicillin
-cefalexin
-ciprofloxacin
-trimethoprim

A

cefalexin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What gram bacteria are glycopeptides active against?

A

gram positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which of the following can be used for MRSA infections?
-aminoglycosides
-glycopeptides
-penicillins

A

glycopeptides (vancomycin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which two glycopeptide medications must not be given orally when used for systemic infections?

A

Vancomycin and teicoplanin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the benefit to using teicoplanin over vancomycin?

A

teicoplanin has zero order kinetics, vancomycin has first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the drawback to using teicoplanin vs vancomycin?

A

does not cross the BBB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what is the target trough level for vancomycin for general infections vs endocarditis?

A

10-15 mg/mL for general
15-20 mg/mL for endo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are side effects of vancomycin?

A

-nephrotoxicity
-ototoxicity
-red man syndrome
-blood dyscrasias
-skin disorders (SJS)
-thrombophlebitis (pain/ inflammation of veins at infusion site)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What symptoms can occur when vancomycin is given too quickly?

A

Red man syndrome (flushing of upper body)
hypotension
bronchospasms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What indications are clindamycin a treatment option for?

A

Bone and joint infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What major side effect is clindamycin associated with?

A

antibiotic associated colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What counselling points should be made to patient taking clindamycin?

A

If diarrhoea develops, stop medication and see GP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

which antibiotic is used against amoebic infections?

A

mepacrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Name the macrolides?

A

erythromycin
clarithromycin
azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What would you need to monitor on an ECG for macrolides?

A

QT prolongation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What indications are macrolides for?

A

campylobacter enteritis, resp, skin infections, h.pylori eradication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Is clarithromycin an CYP450 enzyme inducer or inhibitor?

A

Inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which of the macrolides are CYP450 inhibitors?

A

Erythromycin and clarithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what are the counselling points for azithromycin, erythromycin and clarithromycin?

A

azithromycin - before food/ indigestion remedies (2 hrs)
erythromycin - before indigestion remedies (2 hrs)
clarithromycin - taste disturbance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are common side effects of macrolides?

A

GI upset
QT prolongation
Hepatotoxicity
Ototoxicity at high doses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Can you give aminoglycosides during pregnancy? which ones are safer?

A

yes, but not routinely unless no other choice
gent and tobra safe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What effect does clarithromycin have on warfarin?

A

Increased risk of bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What effect does clarithromycin have on a statin?

A

Increased risk of myopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Which of the following medication does not interact with clarithromycin?
-colchicine
-carbamazepine
-ramipril
-ondansetron

A

-colchicine - increased colchicine toxicity
-carbamazepine - carb is enzyme inducer
-ramipril
-ondansetron - QT prolongation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

which of the macrolides should not be taken during pregnancy? and which is safest?

A

Clarithromycin unsafe in pregnancy
Erythromycin preferred

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are the MHRA alerts for erythromycin?

A
  • increased cardiac risks (QT prolongation) and risk of interaction with rivaroxaban
    -risk of infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

How do the following drugs interact with aminoglycosides?
-bisphosphonates
-loop diuretics
-digoxin

A

-bisphosphonates - hypocalcaemia
-loop diuretics - risk of ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity
-digoxin - dig toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Which DOAC interacts with erythromycin?

A

rivaroxaban

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What type of antibiotic is aztreonam?

A

Monobactam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What 3 things do you need to monitor with aminoglycosides?

A

-renal
-hearing
-levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is an example of an anaerobic infection?

A

Dental infections and bacterial vaginosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is an example of a protozoal infection?

A

vaginal trichomoniasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What are the common side effects of metronidazole?

A

GI upset
Taste disturbance
oral mucositis
furred tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Important counselling points for metronidazole?

A

Take with or after food
Avoid alcohol during and for 48 hours after - disulfuram-like reaction (flushing, tachycardia and hypotension)
may discolour urine (dark urine)
taste disturbances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Which of the following does not interact with metronidazole?
-ciclosporin
-digoxin
-warfarin
-phenobarbital
-lithium

A

Digoxin

-ciclosporin - increases levels
-warfarin - increases INR
-phenobarbital - metronidazole metabolism increased
-lithium - increased levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the formulation of choice for benpen and why?

A

By injection - inactivated by gastric acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Which two of the penicillins are considered narrow spectrum?

A

benpen and penv

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the antibiotic of choice for pneumoccocal meningitis?

A

Ceftriaxone/ cefotaxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is the antibiotic of choice for meningococcal meningitis?

88
Q

What is penv used to treat?

A

tonsillitis
sinusitis

89
Q

What is penv used prophylactically for?

A

following rheumatic fever, splenectomy and sickle-cell disease

90
Q

What is a common side effect of ampicillin?

A

maculopapular rashes

91
Q

Are ampicillin and amoxicillin broad or narrow spectrum?

92
Q

Why is clavulanic acid given alongside amoxicillin?

A

clavulanic acid inactivates beta-lactamases (benpen and penv innefective against) and allows its use against more resistant strains

93
Q

Which penicillins are extended spectrum?

A

piperacillin (with tazobactam)
ticarcillin (with clavulanic)

94
Q

Can penicillins easily penetrate into the CSF?

A

No, unless the meninges are inflamed

95
Q

What are common side effects of penicillins?

A

diarrhoea, nausea, skin reactions, vomiting, hypersensitivity, antibiotic associated colitis

96
Q

What has an increased risk of tendon damage when taken alongside quinolones?

A

corticosteroids

97
Q

What has an increased risk of convulsions when taken with quinolones?

98
Q

Pip/taz can affect which electrolytes at high doses?

A

hypernatremia

99
Q

What is the risk if you give penicillins intrathecally?

A

Encaphalopathy

100
Q

cautions for amoxicillin?

A

cytomegalovirus infection, leukaemia , glandular fever

101
Q

What is the MHRA alert for flucloxacillin and co-fluampicil?

A

cholestatic jaundice and hepatitis may occur up to 2 months after treatment

102
Q

Can you use flucloxacillin in pregnancy?

103
Q

What increases the risk of cholestatin jaundice and hepatitis with flucloxacillin?

A

increasing age and more than 14 days treatment

104
Q

If patients have a true allergy to penicillins, which other groups of antibiotics should not be given?

A

beta-lactam antibiotics
(cephalosporins, carbapenems, monobactams)

105
Q

What are the uses of piperacillin and ticarillin?

A

serious infections - septicaemia, HAP

106
Q

what is temocillin reserved for?

A

beta-lactamase producing strains of gram negative bacteria

107
Q

Which of the following do not interact with penicillins?
-allopurinol
-colchicine
-warfarin
-phenindione
-methotrexate

A

Colchicine

-allopurinol - increased risk of rash
-warfarin - increase INR
-phenindione -increase INR
-methotrexate - reduced clearance of MTX

108
Q

Should fluclox and phenoxymethyl be taken with food?

A

no, empty stomach

109
Q

Which penicillins cause hepatic disorders?

A

co-amoxicillin and fluclox

110
Q

What is a specific side effect to amoxicillin?

A

black hairy tongue

111
Q

penicillins can increase the risk of which diarrhoeal infection?

112
Q

What are the 5 MHRA alerts for quinolones?

A
  • tendinopathy
  • convulsions
  • aortic aneurysm/ dissection
  • heart valve regurgitation
  • long lasting disabling side effects (peripheral neuropathy)
113
Q

cautions for quinolones?

A

history of seizures, diabetes

114
Q

what are the side effects of quinolones?

A

qt prolongation (especially moxofloxacin), GI upset, fungal infection

115
Q

What is the risk of quinolones in children and pregnancy?

A

athropathy of weight bearing joints

116
Q

When would it be appropriate to give a pregnant patient a dose of ciprofloxacin?

A

prevention of secondary meningococcal meningitis

117
Q

what is the difference between early and latent syphilis?

A

early < 2 years
latent > 2 years

118
Q

name the quinolones?

A

ciprofolxacin, deflafloxacin, levofloxacin, moxifloxacin, ofloxacin

119
Q

What is the interaction between fluclox and methotrexate?

A

increased risk of hepatotoxicity

120
Q

retinoids interact with tetracyclines to cause what?

A

increased intracranial pressure

121
Q

why should tetracyclines be avoided in children?

A

risk of bone and teeth deposits

122
Q

which tetracyclines have the greatest risk of oesophageal issues?

A

tetracycline, doxycycline and minocycline

123
Q

what antibiotic is associated is associated with toxic megacolon?

A

co-amoxiclav

124
Q

what antibiotics affect the eyes?

A

ethambutol and linezolid

125
Q

which antibiotics do not require renal dosing?

A

doxycyline, ceftriaxone, clarithromycin, erythromycin, clindamycin, moxofloxacin

126
Q

which 5 antibiotics should be taken with meals?

A

clarith, erith, trimeth, nitro, metro

127
Q

how should sulfonamides be taken?

A

empty stomach

128
Q

how should pivmecillinam be taken?

A

empty stomach

129
Q

which of the tetracyclines has the broadest spectrum and is associated with increased risk of lupus-erythamatosus and irreversible pigmentation?

A

minocycline

130
Q

which two of the tetracyclines have the most risk of photosensitivity?

A

doxy and dema

131
Q

what are some common side effects of tetracyclines?

A

angiodema, photosensitivity, tooth discolouration, headache and visual disturbances (discontinue if happens)

132
Q

what is the age range for tetracyclines?

A

> 12 years

133
Q

why should you not give tetracyclines in pregnancy?

A

effects on skeletal development

134
Q

how should tetracyclines be taken?

A

with a full glass of water

135
Q

name the two sulfonamides?

A

co-trimoxazole (trimethoprim & sulfamethoxazole)
sulfadiazine

136
Q

side effects of sulfonamides?

A

diarrhoea, electrolytes imbalance, fungal overgrowth, skin reactions

blood dyscrasias and rash - discontinue if apparent

137
Q

cautions of sulfonamides?

A

acute porphyrias, asthma, G6PD deficiency

138
Q

co-trimoxazole is contraindicated in what?

A

SJS, TEN or thrombocytopenia previously

139
Q

is chloramphenicol broad or narrow spectrum?

140
Q

what is the indication for chloramphenicol?

A

infections caused by haemophilus influenzae

141
Q

what is the risk of chloramphenicol in pregnancy?

A

grey-baby syndrome

142
Q

which tetracyclines can you continue in renal impairment?

A

doxy and mino

143
Q

what should be done if psychiatric, neurological or hypersensitivity occurs with quinolones?

A

discontinue

144
Q

what is the interaction between ciprofloxacin and theophylline?

A

cipro is an enzyme inhibitor causing theophylline

145
Q

what is an important side effect regarding daptomycin?

A

unexplained muscle pain/ tenderness/ weakness/ cramps - measure CK every 2 days

146
Q

fusidic acid should not be used for longer than how many days due to the risk of resistance?

147
Q

what gram bacteria is linezolid active against?

A

gram positive including MRSA

148
Q

what are the two warnings surrounding linezolid?

A
  • optic neuropathy (increased risk if >28 days treatment)
  • blood disorders
149
Q

what is the risk from the interaction between linezolid and SSRIs, TCAs, MAOIs, opioids

A

hypertensive crisis

150
Q

counselling points for linezolid?

A

avoid tyramine rich foods during and 2 weeks after (mature cheese, wines) - causes hypertensive crisis

151
Q

trimethoprim cautions?

A

blood dyscrasias

152
Q

what electrolyte can be affected by trimeth?

A

hyperkalaemia

153
Q

side effects of trimethoprim?

A

SJS, toxic epidermal necrolysis, photosensitivity

154
Q

How long is the treatment with Atovaquone with progaunil (malarone)?

A

1-2 days before, and 1 week after leaving

155
Q

How long is the treatment with doxycycline?

A

1-2 days before, and 4 weeks after leaving

156
Q

How long is the treatment with chloroquine?

A

1 week before, and 4 weeks after

157
Q

How long is the treatment with proguanil?

A

1 week before, and 4 weeks after

158
Q

How long is the treatment with mefloquine?

A

2-3 weeks before, and 4 weeks after

159
Q

Which two anti-malarial are once a week?

A

chloroquine and mefloquine

160
Q

contraindications for mefloquine?

A

psychiatric disorders (including any sleep disorders) and convulsions
cautioned with hypersensitivity to quines

161
Q

contraindications for chloroquine?

A

convulsions

162
Q

contraindications for malarone?

A

CrCl < 30
nausea - vomiting decreases absorption

163
Q

interactions with malarone?

A

antivirals, metoclopramide, antacids (should take 2 hours apart)

164
Q

counselling for malarone?

A

should be taken with milk

165
Q

what should you look out for after coming back from a high risk area of malaria?

A

any symptoms for the first year, especially the first 3 months

166
Q

what non-pharmacological advice could be given to people travelling to high risk areas for malaria?

167
Q

what are the four antimalarials?

A

-chloroquine
-proguanil
-mefloquine
-doxycycline

168
Q

contraindications for nitrofurantoin?

A

under 3 months, acute porphyrias, GP6D deficiency

169
Q

side effects of nitrofurantoin?

A

nausea, risk of peripheral neuropathy in renal impairment?

170
Q

what is the renal cut off for nitrofurantoin?

171
Q

patient counselling for nitrofurantoin?

A
  • take with food
  • colours urine (yellow/ brown)
172
Q

what is the effect of antacids on azole antifungals?

A

Interacts, azoles need acidic pH for absorption, reduces bioavailability

172
Q

what is the effect of carbonated drinks on azole antifungals?

A

Interacts, carbonated drinks are acidic, would increase the bioavailability of azole

173
Q

What is the effect of grapefruit juice on azole antifungals?

A

Interacts, reduces bioavailability

174
Q

What are two side effects of itraconazole?

A

heart failure and hepatoxicity

175
Q

What is the MHRA alert for ketoconazole?

A

Risk of fatal hepatotoxicity is greater than benefit of treating fungal infections

176
Q

What are two side effects of voriconazole?

A

Phototoxicity (causes pre-malignant lesions or skin cancer - avoid direct sunlight and sunlamps) and hepatotoxicity

177
Q

what is the indication for amphoteracin B?

A

serious fungal infections

178
Q

What is the side effect for amphoteracin B?

A

nephrotoxicity
anaphylaxis with first doses IV - test dose

179
Q

What is the MHRA alert for chloroquine?

A

increased cardiovascular risk with macrolides

180
Q

what are the two types of protein synthesis?

A

50s and 30s

181
Q

Which two antibiotics inhibit the 30s subunit?

A

aminoglycosides and tetrocylines

182
Q

Which antibiotics inhibit the 50s subunit?

A

lincosamide, linezolid, macrolides, chloramphenicol

183
Q

which antibiotics work by folate synthesis?

A

trimethoprim, sulfonamides, dapsone

184
Q

which antibiotics inhibit DNA gyrase synthesis?

A

flouroquinolones

185
Q

which antibiotics inhibit RNA polymerase?

A

rifampicin

186
Q

Which antibiotics inhibit cell well synthesis?

A

penicillins, carbapenems, cephalosporins, glycopeptides

187
Q

treatment for human and animal bites?

A

1st co-amox
2nd doxy + metro

3 days for prophylaxis
5 days for treatment

188
Q

treatment for tick bites?

A

1st doxy 100mg BD
2nd amox 1g TDS

21 days

189
Q

treatment for diabetic foot infection?

A

MILD (< 2cm):
1st fluclox
OR clari, erthro, doxy

MODERATE/ SEVERE (abscess or osteomyelitis):
1st fluclox or co-amox +/- gent
OR co-trimox +/- gent

190
Q

treatment for cellulitis?

A

1st fluclox
OR clari, erythro, doxy, co-amox

IF NEAR EYES/ NOSE:
1st co-amox
OR clari + metro

191
Q

treatment for diarrhoea?

A

C.DIFF:
1st oral vanc
2nd fidax
If life threatening - oral vanc and IV metro

10 days

TRAVELLERS DIARRHOEA:
standby: azith
prophylaxis/ treatment: bismuth subsalicylate

192
Q

treatment for ear infections?

A

OTITIS MEDIA:
1st amox
2nd co-amox (2-3 days treatment failure and worsening symptoms)
OR clari, erythro (pregnancy)

OTITIS EXTERNA
1st topical acetic acid 2%
2nd topical neomycin sulphate with topical corticosteroid
3rd fluclox if systemic

193
Q

treatment for H.pylori?

A

TRIPLE THERAPY:
PPI + 2 of:
amox 1g BD (included unless pen allergy)
clari 500mg BD
metro 400mg BD

194
Q

how do you diagnose h.pylori?

A

urea breath test - should not be performed within 2 weeks of taking PPI, and 4 weeks of taking antibiotics

195
Q

treatment for impetigo?

A

LOCALISED NON-BULLOUS:
1st hydrogen peroxide 1%
2nd fusidic acid 2% OR mupirocin 2% if resistance suspected

WIDESPREAD NON BULLOUS:
fusidic acid 2% OR mupirocin 2% if resistance suspected

BULLOUS/ SYSTEMICALLY UNWELL:
1st fluclox
2nd clari (erythro if pregnant)

196
Q

treatment for UTI?

A

MEN:
1st nitro OR trimeth

7 days

WOMEN (NON-PREGNANT):
1st nitro OR trimeth
2nd pivmecillinam OR fosfomycin

3 days

WOMEN (PREGNANT):
1st nitro
2nd cefalexin OR amox

7 days

197
Q

treatment for CAP?

A

LOW SEVERITY:
1st amox
2nd doxy, clari

MODERATE SEVERITY:
1st amox + clari
2nd doxy OR clari

HIGH SEVERITY:
1st co-amox + clari
2nd levofloxacin

198
Q

treatment for HAP?

A

NON SEVERE:
1st co-amox
2nd doxy, cefalexin, co-trimox, levofloxacin (adults)
2nd clari (children)

199
Q

treatment for acne vulgaris?

A

adapalene gel
clindamycin gel
benzyl peroxide
lymecycline

200
Q

treatment for chlamydia?

A

doxycycline

201
Q

treatment for bacterial vaginosis?

A

metronidazole (high dose STAT or course)

202
Q

treatment for dental abscess?

A

amox
metronidazole

203
Q

treatment for gonorrhoea?

A

ceftriaxone
ciprofloxacin

204
Q

treatment for meningitis?

205
Q

treatment for scabies?

A

permethrin cream (apply to whole body)

206
Q

treatment for sinusitits?

A

phenoxy
doxy in allergy

207
Q

treatment for conjunctivitis?

A

chloramphenicol

208
Q

which of the following is least appropriate for treatment of covid?
-dexamethasone
-remdesivir
-paracetamol
-aciclovir

209
Q

Cold sores are associated with which virus?

A

herpes simplex virus serotype 1

210
Q

shingles and chickenpox are associated with which virus?

A

varicella-zoster

211
Q

What anti-virals are appropriate for shingles in aged over 50?

A

aciclovir

apply all over body including head and scalp

212
Q

which two antivirals are used for both treatment and post-exposure prophylaxis of influenza?

A

zanamivir and oseltamivir

213
Q

a patient with asthma has developed sever flu, which of the following is the more appropriate option?
-zanamivir
-oseltamivir

A

oseltamivir

(zanamivir has risk of bronchospasm and should be avoided in sever asthma)

214
Q

what is the treatment of choice for threadworm, what is the age range and duration?

A

mebendazole

treat whole family, given as single dose and treated after 2 weeks (reinfection very common)

215
Q

what is treatment options for vaginal thrush?

A

clotrimazole

itraconazole for resistant infection

Pharmacy (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions