Immunosuppressants and Antirheumatic Pharmacology Dr. Covert EXAM 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Multiple Sclerosis?

A

immune cells from the periphery cross the BBB into the CNS damaging myelin sheaths and axons (auto-immune)
-> leading to movement, cognitive, and speech issues

T-lymphocytes
B-lymphocytes
macrophages
antibodies, complements

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2
Q

Which type of MS is the most common and treated with the most autoimmune drugs?

A

Relapsing-remittent

symptoms flare up and go back to baseline

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3
Q

Which class of drugs are the First-Gen injectables for MS treatment? How do they work?

A

Interferon-β: Avonex, Rebif, Betaseron, Extavia, Plegridy
-SQ or IM

-suppress T-cell activity
-decrease IFN-γ secretion
-decrease macrophage activation
-decrease antigen presentation
-decrease BBB permeability

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4
Q

What are the side effects associated with Interferon-β drugs?

A

-injection site reaction
-flu-like symptoms
-weakness
-depression
-neutralizing antibodies (5-30%, may decrease the efficacy of the drug)

-increased LFT
-thyroid dysfunction
-lymphocytopenia

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5
Q

Which labs are important to monitor when using Interferon-β?

A

CBC
LFT

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6
Q

What is the MOA of Glatiramer acetate (Copaxone)?

A

-Induction of T-lymphocyte suppressor cells specific for myelin
-decreases the antigen-presenting function of T-cells

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7
Q

What are the side effects associated with Glatiramer acetate? What should be monitored?

A

-chest pain
-rash
-hypersensitivity reaction
-infection (since immunosuppressor)

monitor:
-latent infection screening in high-risk patients

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8
Q

What is the difference between First-Gen and Second Gens?

A

First-Gens are
-less potent immunosuppressants
-less infection as a side effect
-more frequent injections
-well-known

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9
Q

What is the MOA of Ocrelizumab (Ocrevus)?

2nd gen

A

-inhibition of CD-20-expressing B-cells
-IV

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10
Q

What are the side effects of Ocrelizumab (Ocrevus)?
!!!

A

-infections
-neutropenia
-infusion reactions (30-40%)
-depression

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11
Q

What should be monitored when using Ocrelizumab (Ocrevus)?

!!!

A

-HBV screening !!!
-latent infection screening (tuberculosis)

-immunoglobin levels
-infusion reaction 1h after infusion

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12
Q

Which anticancer drug binds to CD-20?
REMINDER

A

Rituximab

-infusion reaction
-Hep B reactivation

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13
Q

What is the MOA for Natalizumab (Tysabri)?
(also used for Crohn’s disease)

A

-Integrin receptor antagonist
-inhibits adhesion of and migration of leukocytes

-IV

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14
Q

What are the side effects of Natalizumab?
!!

A

-Infections
-depression
-muscle pain
-infusion-related reactions
-PML !!! progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy, irreversible brain damage

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15
Q

What should be monitored when using Natalizumab?

!!!

A

-JC virus (negative required, bc of the risk for PML) !!!
-LFT
-infusion reactions, wait for 1h after infusion

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16
Q

What is the MOA for Alemtuzumab (Lemtrada)?

A

-Binds to CD52 on B and T cells causing cell
lysis
-IV

-strong immunosuppressant
-can also be used for solid transplant patients

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17
Q

What are the side effects of Alemtuzumab?

A

-Bone marrow suppression
-infections
-infusion reactions
-malignancy
-stroke

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18
Q

What should be monitored when using Alemtuzumab?

A

-REMS program
-CBC
-platelet count
-CD4 count
-CMV antigen (cytomegalovirus), may need CMV prophylaxis if positive
-latent infections

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19
Q

What is the MOA of Sphingosine 1 phosphate receptor modulators?

Fingolimod (Gilenya)
Ponesimod (Ponvory)
Ozanimod (Zeposia)

A

they stop lymphocytes from moving from the lymph nodes to the bloodstream and into the CNS

-PO

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20
Q

What are the side effects of Sphingosine 1 phosphate receptor modulators?

A

-Increased LFTs
-infection
-cardiovascular side effects (hypertension, edema, hypotension !!! -> avoid if they have heart failure

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21
Q

What should be monitored when using Sphingosine 1 phosphate receptor modulators?

A

-Complete blood count
-liver function tests
-EKG !!!

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22
Q

What is the MOA of Teriflunomide (Aubagio)?

A

-Inhibition of pyrimidine synthesis
-antiproliferative
-anti-inflammatory effects

-PO

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23
Q

What are the side effects of Teriflunomide?

A

-Teratogenic !! (others are teratogenic as well, this one is labeled though)
-hepatotoxicity -> avoid with cirrhosis
-alopecia

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24
Q

What should be monitored when using Teriflunomide?

A

-CBC
-LFT

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25
Q

What is the MOA of Dimethyl Fumarate (Tecfidera)?

A

-Active metabolite activates a pathway that
responds to cellular oxidative stress
-exact MOA unknown

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26
Q

What are the side effects of Dimethyl Fumarate?

A

-flushing
-abdominal pain

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27
Q

What should be monitored when using Dimethyl Fumarate?

A

-CBC
-LFT

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28
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Rheumatic Arthritis?

A
  1. Trigger
  2. Immune system activation (attacks the fluid-filled part of the joints, Synovial fluid)
  3. Inflammation, swollen, pannus formation
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29
Q

Which drugs are commonly used first for rheumatoid arthritis?

A

-Hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil)
-Methotrexate

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30
Q

What is the MOA of Hydroxychloroquine?

A

-inhibits movement of neutrophils and eosinophils

31
Q

What are the side effects of Hydroxychloroquine?

A

Retinopathy

32
Q

What should be monitored when using Hydroxychloroquine?

!!!

A

-CBC
-Ophthalmic exams !!!

33
Q

What is the MOA of Methotrexate?

A

-Folic acid antimetabolite that inhibits DNA synthesis
-Exact MOA for RA is unknown

-can be reversed with Leucovorin

34
Q

What are the side effects of Methotrexate?

A

-Teratogenic
-cirrhosis
-diarrhea

-anemia
-leukopenia
-neutropenia

35
Q

What should be monitored when using Methotrexate?

A

CBC, LFT, SCr

36
Q

What is the MOA of Leflunomide?
dont need to know?

A

-Inhibition of pyrimidine synthesis
-antiproliferative
-anti-inflammatory
-less preferred

37
Q

What are the side effects of Leflunomide?
dont need to know?

A

-teratogenic
-hepatoxicity
-diarrhea

38
Q

What should be monitored when using Leflunomide?
dont need to know?

A

-CBC
-LFT
-SCr

39
Q

What is the MOA of Sulfasalazine?

A

-5-ASA derivatives
-modulates leukotrienes and scavenges free radicals

40
Q

What are the side effects of Sulfasalazine?

A

-skin rash
-GI upset
-hepatotoxicity (rare)

41
Q

What should be monitored when using Sulfasalazine?

42
Q

Which agents are preferred for severe and progressing disease states?

A

Biologic agents

43
Q

What is the MOA of TNF-α Inhibitors?

Infliximab, Etanercept, Adalimumab, Certolizumab, Golimumab

A

-Binds to TNF-alpha
-reduced immune cell migration
-SQ or IV

44
Q

What are the side effects of TNF-α Inhibitors?

A

-Infections
-malignancies
-increased LFTs
-leukopenia
-thrombocytopenia

45
Q

What should be monitored when using TNF-α Inhibitors?

A

-CBC
-LFT
-latent infection screening
-> Hep B and TB reactivation -> screen for TB and hep B

46
Q

What is the MOA of Interleukin-6 (IL-6) Antagonists?

Tocilizumab, Sarilumab

A

-IL-6 inhibition
-reduction in cytokine and acute phase reactants

47
Q

What are the side effects of Interleukin-6 (IL-6) Antagonists?

A

-Serious infections (TB, fungal)
-> make sure patients are not on an antibiotic or antifungal, risk for worsening of an active infection is high !!!
-neutropenia

48
Q

What should be monitored when using IL-6 Antagonists?

A

-Neutrophils
-platelets
-latent TB

49
Q

What is the MOA of IL-1 Antagonists?
Anakinra

A

IL-1 antagonism

just know this about the drug

50
Q

What are the side effects of an IL-1 antagonist?

Anakinra

A

Increased LFTs

monitor:
-CBC
-latent TB screening
-SCr
-LFTs

51
Q

What is the MOA of Abatacept?

T-Cell Co-Stimulation Blocker

A

-Inhibits T-cell activation by binding to CD80
and CD86 on APC
-blocking T-cell activation

52
Q

What are the side effects and monitoring points for Abatacept?

A

Nausea, anemia

monitor:
-Hypersensitivity reaction
-latent infection screening

53
Q

What is the MOA of Rituximab?

A

-Binding CD20 on B-cell
-inhibition of cell cycle

54
Q

What are the side effects of Rituximab?

A

-HTN
-night sweats
-diarrhea
-anemia
-neutropenia
infections
-angioedema
-antibody development

55
Q

What should be monitored when using Rituximab?

A

-CBC
-platelets
-HBV reactivation !!!
-infusion reaction !!!

56
Q

Which drug class is the only oral biologic? How do they work?

A

Janus Kinase (JAK) inhibitors
-Inhibition of Janus kinase enzymes
-resulting in reduction in immune cell function

Tofacitinib, Baricitinib, Upadacitinib

57
Q

What are the side effects of JAK inhibitors?

A

-Infections
-malignancies
-major cardiovascular events !!!
-thrombosis !!!

58
Q

What should be monitored when using JAK inhibitors?

A

-CBC
-lipid panel
-heart rate, blood pressure

59
Q

What are the signals that cause an immune response, also seen when receiving an organ transplant?

A

Signal 1: Antigen to TCR/CD3

Signal 2: CD80/60 (APC) to CD28 of the T-cell

-> Signals 1 and 2 activate the Calcineurin pathway (drug target)

Signal 3: IL-2 activation of the mTOR pathway

60
Q

What is the purpose of Induction and Maintenance immunosuppressive therapy in organ transplantation?

A

Induction:
-deplete the immune system when receiving the transplant

Maintenance:
-suppress the immune system enough to prevent organ rejection but not so much that the risk for infections becomes too high

61
Q

Which drug class are the most potent inducting agents? How do they work?

A

-Thymoglobulin, Alemtuzumab (Campath)
Cell-depleting

-Thymoglobulin: Depletion of CD4 lymphocytes
-Alemtuzumab: CD52 binding causing cell lysis

-they are very potent immunosuppressants, so use it for patients with high-risk for organ rejection,

-patients who failed transplants before
-multiple pregnancies (exposure to different antigens -> produce different antibodies)

62
Q

What are the side effects of Thymoglobulin and Alemtuzumab?

A

-infections
-malignancies

monitor:
-CBC (thrombocytopenia, neutropenia)

63
Q

Which inducting agent is the only Non-Cell Depleting agent?

A

Basalixumab (Simulect)

-Blocks the alpha-chain of IL-2
-resulting in reduced activity of T-cells

-no side effects but less potent

appropriate for patients who are not of risk for rejection:
-not on dialysis
-low immunologic risk
-related donor

64
Q

What are the maintaining agents after organ transplantation?

A

-Calcineurin inhibitors -> BACKBONE
Tacrolimus, Cyclosporine

-Antiproliferatives (myco causes diarrhea, Aza has an interaction with allpopurinol)
Mycophenolate, Azathioprine

-mTOR inhibitors -> if they fail calcineurin (side effects)
Sirolimus, Everolimus

-T-Cell Co-Stimulation Blocker (IV drug)
Belatacept

65
Q

What is the MOA of Calcineurin inhibitors?

A

-Binds to FKBP-12 to inhibit one step in T-cell
activation

Tacrolimus, Cyclosporine

66
Q

What are the side effects of Calcineurin inhibitors?

A

-Infections
-renal impairment (afferent arterial vasoconstriction, like NSAIDs)
-electrolyte abnormalities
-diabetes, HTN, hyperlipidemia

67
Q

What should be monitored when using Calcineurin inhibitors?

A

-SCr
-BG
-BP
-K, Ma

68
Q

What is the MOA of the Antiproliferatives, Mycophenolate and Azathioprine?

A

-Mycophenolate: Inhibition of inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase, which blocks DNA synthesis, reducing T-cell response to antigens

-Azathioprine: imidazolyl derivative that halts DNA replication

69
Q

What are the side effects of the Antiproliferatives, Mycophenolate and Azathioprine?

A

Mycophenolate:
Diarrhea, teratogenic

Azathioprine:
Bone marrow suppression, malignancy (skin cancer)
-> monitor CBC
-> avoid with allopurinol? like 6-MP

70
Q

What is the MOA of mTOR inhibitors?

Sirolimus, Everolimus

A

Binds to FKBP-12 to inhibit one step in T-cell
activation

Sirolimus, Everolimus -> don’t confuse with Tacrolimus

71
Q

What are the side effects of mTOR inhibitors?

Sirolimus, Everolimus

A

-Impaired wound healing
-hypertriglyceridemia

monitor:
TG
wound healing

72
Q

What is the MOA of Belatacept?

!!!

A

Binding to CD80 and CD86 on APC to block
interaction between APCs and T-cells
-IV only

don’t confuse it with Basalixumab (which is an induction agent)

73
Q

What is the side effect of Belatacept?

A

Post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder
(PTLD)

74
Q

What should be monitored when using Belatacept?

A

EBV serostatus