Immunology Exam 3 part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

types of molecules that stimulate immune response

A

antigen
hapten
toxin
superantigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

antibody isotypes involved in a secondary immune response

A

high affinity of…
IgG - neutralization/opsonization
IgA- neutralization/opsonization
IgE - activates mast cells/eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

list characteristics of lymphocytes involved in maintaining immunologic memory

A

respond quickly
present in large numbers
easier to activate
affinity maturation already occurred
B cells - Ab on surface
B cells - Ag:MHC II complexes on their surface
T cells - don’t require costimulation through CD28

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

describe how pathogens evolve to evade immunologic memory

A
  1. antigenic variation
  2. latency
  3. exploitation of immune cells
  4. resistance to immune effector mechanisms
  5. immunosuppression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

antibody functions

A
  1. agglutination
  2. toxin neutralization
  3. block attachment
  4. complement fixation
  5. opsonization
  6. antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

role of IgA

A

mucosal immunity (respiratory/GI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

role of IgG

A

systemic immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

role of cytotoxic T cells

A

cellular immunity
minimize spread of disease, prevent viremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

how long do viral vaccines last? bacterial vaccines? toxin vaccines?

A

3 years
12 months
4-6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

why do virus vaccines last longer than bacterial?

A

less complex and have fewer epitopes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is a vaccine titer

A

concentration of serum antibodies produced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

describe the different types of the T helper responses for appropriate immune response

A

Th1 for cell-mediated responses
- activates macrophages
Th2 for humoral immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are the components of vaccines

A

antigen
adjuvant
pH buffers
colorants
stabilizers
cellular debris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

describe routes of immunization and which ones are better for specific immune response

A

intranasal/intradermal good for mucosal routes and quicker immunity (days)
intramuscular/subcutaneous good for systemic routes, slower (weeks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

types of antigens

A
  1. live organism = cause disease
  2. modified live = replicates but does not cause disease
  3. inactivated (killed) = great for humoral response, safer (e.g. rabies)
  4. inactivated subunit - often have problems with efficacy, but could be good for cats and young animals
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

why is FELV/FIV not used as modified live

A

because modified live is a retrograde virus and alters DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

why is Rabies not used as modified live

A

due to the potential of reversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

why is coronavirus not used as a modified live

A

it can cause active distemper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are types of adjuvants

A

inorganic compounds
liquid base
bacterial products
cytokines

20
Q

how do you minimize vaccine failure

A

proper storage
proper administration
full dose
series of vaccines to overcome neutralization by maternal antibodies
do not freeze
once reconstituted use within an hour or throw away

21
Q

role of cytotoxic T cells

A

cellular immunity
minimize the spread of disease, prevent viremia

22
Q

what pathogens does IgE remove?
why?
what T helper cell is involved?
what cytokines?

A

parasites
too big to phagocytize and need physical repulsion
Th2 cell
IL 4,5,9,13,25,33

23
Q

how does Th2-mediated response help with the elimination of parasites

A

isotype switch to IgE
mast cell infiltration
increased epithelial cell turnover on mucosal surfaces

24
Q

how are mast cells involved with IgE

A

-mast cells bind IgE and when an antigen is encountered by IgE and IgE crosslinks, mast cell degranulates
- releases histamine & eicosanoids
- release of IL4
- release of TNF-alpha
- release of tryptases

25
Q

function of histamine & eicosanoids

A

muscle contraction
airway constriction
mucus production
vasodilation

26
Q

function of IL4

A

drives Th2 response

27
Q

function of TNF-alpha

A

adhesion molecules and leukocyte migration

28
Q

function of tryptases

A

breakdown of extracellular matrix

29
Q

how are eosinophils involved with IgE

A

-FceR bind IgE which cause eosinophil to degranulate and secrete major basic protein to kill parasites and activates mast cells
-attracted by IL5 and CCL11
-stimulated by inflammation/highly toxic pathogens and tissues

30
Q

how are basophils involved with IgE

A
  • help drive Th2
  • CD40L on basophil binds CD40 on B cells to stimulate IgE switch
  • if FceR binds IgE, baso degranulates
31
Q

describe the hygiene hypothesis

A

high hygiene, low pathogen/adjuvant burden = unbalanced expression in absence of Treg cells; prone to immunopathology (autoimmune or allergy)

low hygiene, high pathogen/adjuvant burden = Treg cells, no immunopathology

32
Q

how can maternal contribution cause allergic reactions

A

if the baby is exposed to IgE without antigen from colostrum, could result in allergic reaction

33
Q

Th2 IL that affect atopy

what do they cause

A

IL4,5,9,10,13,31
result in IgE upregulation, eosinophil/mast cell development, airway hyper responsiveness, mucous production, and chronic inflammation

34
Q

what are some general treatments of allergies

A

epinephrine
steroids
B-adrenergic receptor agonists
desensitization

35
Q

what are some non-allergen-specific treatments for allergies

A

target Th2 transcription
redirection of Th2 response
target IL4 and or 5
target IgE
target IL31

36
Q

what are some allergen specific treatments of allergies

A

induction of anergy of Th2
allergen + Th1 cytokines
allergen + recombinant microorganism
plasmid DNA

37
Q

type I hypersensitivity
pathogenesis
triggers
cells involved
reactions initiated

A

anibody-mediated (IgE)

insect bites, food, drugs, inhaled or contact allergens

mast cells, eiosinophils, Th2, B cell

localized (dermal, GI, resp) or systemic (anaphylaxis)

38
Q

what are some examples of type I hypersensitivity in dermis, GI, and respiratory system?

A

dermis: atopy, hives, urticaria, angioedema
GI: gastroenteritis
respiratory: asthma, allergic rhinitis, allergic bronchitis

39
Q

type II hypersensitivity
pathogenesis
triggers
cells involved
reactions initiated

A

antibody mediated (IgG)

self-directed antibodies opsonize cells & target them for destruction

neutrophils and macrophages

complement activation (cell lysis and inflammation)

40
Q

what is an example of type II hypersensitivity

A

autoimmune diseases
-immune-mediated hemolytic anemia
- mysthenia gravis

41
Q

type III hypersensitivity
pathogenesis
triggers
cells involved
reactions initiated

A

antibody-antigen complex/immune complex mediated

complex deposits in tissues

neutrophils

proinflammatory response (neutrophils, complement, vasculitis)

42
Q

examples of type III hypersensitivity

A

arthritis
dermatitis
glomerulonephritis
polyarthritis
feline infectious peritonitis

43
Q

type IV hypersensitivity
pathogenesis
triggers
cells involved
reactions initiated

A

CD4+ and CD8+ T cell mediated (independent of antibodies)

chronic infection or allergen exposure or contact allergens

CD4+, cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CD8+), neutrophils, macrophages, eosinophils

inflammation (Th1, 2, 17) and direct cell lysis

44
Q

examples of Type IV hypersensitivity

A

delayed hypersensitivity
- contact dermatitis (e.g. poison ivy)
- tuberculosis from chronic CD4+ activation from circus

45
Q

symptoms of anaphylaxis

A

bronchospasm
pulmonary edema
bradycardia
hypotension
diarrhea
vomiting
urticaria
angioedema