Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 1 > Immunology - Diseases & Specific Findings > Flashcards

Immunology - Diseases & Specific Findings Flashcards

1
Q

SS-A (anti-Ro) / SS-B (anti-La)

A

Sjogren’s Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Dermatomyositis - Clinical and Histological Findings

A

Malar / heliotrope rash
‘Shawl sign’
Gottron’s papules / ‘mechanic hands’

Histology shows perimysial CD4 inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Polymyositis - Histology

A

Histology shows endomysial CD8 inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Nitroblue tetrazolium (NBT) test

A

Negative in chronic granulomatous disease

Looks for production of superoxide anion which reduces the test indicator to produce blue color

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Catalase positive bacteria

A 
Pseudomonas
Listeria
Aspergillus
Candida
E. Coli
S. aureus
Serratia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Pathogens associated with Guillian-Barre Syndrome

A

Campylobacter jejuni

CMV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Pathogens associated with Hyper-IgM syndrome

A

Pyogenic infections, especially:

Pneumocystis
Cryptosporidium
CMV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Pemphigus Vulgaris - Antibody, IF, special sign

A

anti-demoglein

IF shows antibodies surrounding epithelial cells in a ‘reticular’ arrangement

Positive Nikolsky sign = separation of the epidermis with mechanical stroking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Direct Coomb’s Test

A

Used to detect the presence of anti-RBC antibodies in a patient’s serum sample

RBCs from patient serum are incubated with anti-IgG antibodies; if RBCs agglutinate then RBCs were bound by antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Indirect Coomb’s Test

A

Used to detect antibodies in patient serum, i.e. prior to blood transfusion

Patient’s serum is mixed with donor RBCs; if antibodies are present in the serum which bind donor RBCs then addition of anti-IgG to the solution causes agglutination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Seronegative arthropathies - HLA association

A

HLA B27

Psoriatic Arthritis
Ankylosing Spondylitis
IBD-related arthritis
Reactive arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Celiac Disease - HLA Association

A

DQ2

DQ8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Diabetes Mellitus Type 1 - HLA Associations

A

DR3

DR4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which cytokines are secreted by Th2s?

A

IL-4 - Enhances class switching to IgE and IgG

IL-5 - Enhances class switching to IgA; stimulates growth and differentiation of eosinophils

IL-10 - Inhibits differentiation of T cell progenitors into Th1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which cytokines are secreted by Th1s?

A

IL-2 - Provides 2nd signal for activation of CTLs

IFNy - Stimulates macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis - HLA Association

A

HLA DR4

17
Q

SLE - HLA Association

A

HLA DR2

HLA DR3

18
Q

Edrophonium challenge test

A

Edrophonium is a short-acting AChEI used to diagnose Myasthenia Gravis; symptoms of myasthenia gravis improve with administration of edrophonium

19
Q

Anti-phospholipid antibody

A

AKA ‘Lupus anticoagulant’ - acquired anti-phospholipid antibody; bind to platelet phospholipids, making them accessible to clotting factors and leading to recurrent venous and arterial thrombosis

Inhibits the function of exogenous platelet phospholipids used in PTT assay causing false elevation (looks like a bleeding disorder)

Requires lifelong anti-coagulation therapy

Reacts with cardiolipin antigen used in syphylis serology, causing false positives for syphilis

20
Q

What antibodies are most specific for SLE?

A

anti-Smith

anti-double stranded DNA

21
Q

Which auto-antibody causes false positives in syphylis testing?

A

Anti-phospholipid antibody (Lupus)

22
Q

What antibodies are seen in Churg-Strauss Syndrome?

A

anti-MPO

p-ANCA

23
Q

ANCA-associated vasculitidies

A

Churg-Strauss Syndrome
Wegener’s Granuloamotosis
Microscopic polyangiitis

24
Q

Negatively Birefringent crystals

A

Crystals are yellow under parallel light, blue under perpendicular light

Characteristic of monosodium urate (MSU) crystals seen in Gout

25
Q

Gout

A

Inflammatory monoarthritis caused by precipitation of monosodium urate (MSU) crystals in joints, secondary to hyperuricemia (90% due to under-excretion of urate)

Presents as asymmetric appearance of painful, red, swollen joint, classically the MTP of the big toe (Pedagra); 20% eventually develop Gouty Nephropathy due to MSU deposition in adrenal medulla, uric acid renal stones causing renal failure

Findings: Needle-shaped, negatively birefringent crystals in joint fluid

Acute treatment = NSAIDs / Colchicine, Glucocorticoids

Chronic treatment = Xanthine Oxidase inhibitors (Allopurinol)

26
Q

Drug-Induced Lupus

A

Seen in men and women equally, associated with anti-nuclear antibody (ANA) and anti-histone; not associated with anti-DNA antibodies (anti-dsDNA, anti-Smith)

Caused by: 
Hydralazine
Isoniazid 
Procainamide
Phenytoin
27
Q

Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome

A

Autoimmune production of antibodies directed against the pre-synaptic voltage-gated Ca2+ channel at the NMJ; often occurs as paraneoplastic syndrome of small cell lung cancer

Presents as proximal muscle weakness, diplopia, decreased DTRs; muscle weakness improves with exercise due to accumulation of pre-synaptic Ca2+

28
Q

Kaposi Sarcoma

A

Neoplasm of vascular endothelial cells caused by HHV-8; seen in the setting of immunosuppression (AIDS, transplant)

Presents as dark, flat or papular lesions on the skin; may also affect GI tract and lungs

Treated with alpha interferon

29
Q

Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis

A

T cell dysfunction resulting in deficient or absent T-cell proliferation response to Candida antigens

Presents as recurrent oral / esophageal thrush, vulvovaginitis

Treated with fluconazole / capsofungin (for oral/esophageal) and topical -azole (for vulvovaginitis)

30
Q

X-linked (Bruton’s) hypogammaglobulinemia

A

X-linked defect in BTK tyrosine kinase causing failure of B cell maturation and immunoglobulin production

Presents with recurrent pyogenic bacterial infections after 6 months (once maternal IgG is depleted)

Labs: Normal CD19+ B cell count, decreased Ig of all classes, absent/scanty lymph nodes and tonsils

31
Q

Selective IgA deficiency

A

Most common primary immunodeficiency

Majority asymptomatic but can see airway or GI infections, as well as anaphylaxis to IgA-containing blood products

Labs: Low IgA with normal IgG, IgM

32
Q

Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID)

A

Autosomal recessive defect in adenosine deaminase enzyme; accumulation of ATP and dATP imbalances nucleotide pool via feedback inhibition of ribonucleotide reducetase, preventing DNA synthesis and decreasing lymphocyte count

Presents with failure to thrive, chronic diarrhea, thrush; repeated bacterial, viral, fungal, and parasitic infections

Findings: Absent thymic shadow on CXR, absent germinal centers on lymph node biopsy, low IgG/IgM, low / absent T cells

Step 1 (29 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions