Immunology Basics (Exam 1) Flashcards
1
Q
Which type of immunity is majorly composed of complement proteins, which aid in the destruction of pathogens via opsonization?
A
Humoral immunity
2
Q
Which type of immunity is composed of interferons and lysozymes?
A
Humoral immunity
3
Q
Which type of immunity has an antibody mediated mechanism?
A
Humoral immunity
4
Q
Which type of immunity involves mostly B lymphocytes?
A
Humoral immunity
5
Q
Which type of immunity primarily defends against bacterial infection?
A
Humoral immunity
6
Q
Which type of immunity uses antibodies in serum as the main mode of action?
A
Humoral immunity
7
Q
Which type of immunity involves mostly T lymphocytes?
A
Cell-mediated immunity
8
Q
Which type of immunity depends on APCs to be amplifiers?
A
Cell-mediated immunity
9
Q
Which type of immunity depends on direct cell-cell contact or soluble products secreted by cells as its main mode of action?
A
Cell-mediated immunity
10
Q
Which type of immunity primarily defends against viral, fungal infections, intracellular organisms, tumor antigens, and graft rejection?
A
Cell-mediated immunity
11
Q
What do these cell types have in common?
Macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells
A
The can all be antigen presenting cells (APCs)
12
Q
What is Louis Pasteur most famously credited for?
A
First attenuated vaccine
13
Q
Which WBC is capable of further differentiation in the tissues?
A
Monocyte (becomes macrophage in tissue)
14
Q
Where are all the undifferentiated lymphocytes made?
A
Bone marrow of long bones
15
Q
Where do B cells mature?
A
Bone marrow
16
Q
Where do T cells mature?
A
Thymus
17
Q
Which type of immune cell can target infected cells without prior exposure to them?
A
NK cells
18
Q
Which cell is the most potent phagocytic cell in the tissue?
A
Dendritic cell
19
Q
The ability of an individual to resist infection by means of normally present body functions is called?
A
Innate immunity
20
Q
A cell characterized by a nucleus with 2 to 5 large lobes, a diameter of 10 to 15 um and a large # of neutral staining granules?
A
Neutrophil
21
Q
Is the thymus a primary or secondary lymphoid organ?
A
Primary
22
Q
What type of cells would be found in a primary follicle?
A
Unstimulated B cells
23
Q
The presence of surface antibodies is a distinguishing feature of which type of cell?
A
B cells
24
Q
Where do lymphocytes mainly come in contact with antigens?
A
In secondary lymphoid organs
25
What surface antigen is present on helper T cells (Th)?
CD4
26
What surface antigen is present on cytotoxic T cells (
CD8
27
Which type of immunity involves specificity for antigens?
Adaptive immunity
28
Which cell's major function is to produce cytokines that regulate innate and adaptive immune responses?
T cells
29
Neutralization of toxins by serum is a characteristic of which type of immunity?
Humoral immunity
30
What is defined as the condition of being resistant to disease?
Immunity
31
A blood cell that has reddish staining granules and is able to kill large parasites?
Eosinophils
32
Which organ collects fluid from the tissues?
Lymph node
33
What are antigenic groups identified by different sets of antibodies reacting in a similar way to standard cell lines?
Clusters of differentiation (CD)
34
Which type of immunity is primarily composed of physical barriers?
Innate immunity
35
Structural barriers, mucosal membranes, epithelium, secretions, cilia in the nasopharyngeal passages, urine, stomach HCl, and normal gut flora are examples of what type of defense?
External defense (physical)
36
Phagocytic cells, acute phase reactants, inflammation and the alternative complement pathway are all examples of what type of defense?
Internal defense (anatomical)
37
A substance that reacts with an antibody or sensitized T cell, but may not be able to evoke an immune response.
Antigen
38
Macromolecules capable of eliciting an immune response by inducing the formation of antibodies or sensitized T cells.
Immunogens
39
Serum proteins produced by certain lymphocytes when introduced to a foreign substance and they react specifically with that foreign substance.
Antibodies
40
Small portion of an immunogen, to which an antibody may bind. Also called the determinant site of the immunogen.
Epitope
41
Derived from a greek word meaning "preparing for eating," they are serum proteins that attach to a foreign cell or pathogen and help prepare it for phagocytosis.
Opsonins
42
CRP (c-reactive protein), complement proteins, and antibodies are all examples of what?
Important opsonins
43
Small, soluble proteins secreted by WBCs and a variety of other cells; Act as chemical messengers of the immune system.
Cytokines
44
Small, soluble proteins capable of regulating growth =, differentiation and gene expression.
Cytokines
45
Cell function: First responder to infection; phagocytosis
Neutrophil
46
Cell function: Kill parasites, neutralize basophil and mast cell products, regulate mast cells
Eosinophil
47
Cell function: Induce and maintain allergic reactions , stimulate production of IgE
Basophil
48
Cell function: Antigen presentation to T and B cells; enhancement and suppression of the adaptive immune response
Mast cell
49
Cell function: phagocytosis; migrate to tissues to become macrophages
Monocyte
50
Cell function: phagocytosis; kill intracellular parasites; tumoricidal activity; antigen presentation to T and B cells
Macrophage
51
Cell function: most potent phagocytic cell; most effective at antigen presentation
Dendritic cell
52
Subtypes are B, T, and NK cells
Lymphocyte
53
Lymphocyte that produces cytokines
T cell
54
Lymphocyte that produces antibody in adaptive immune response
B cell
55
Lymphocyte that is involved in innate immunity
NK cell
56
What are the two primary lymphoid organs?
Bone marrow and thymus
57
What are the four secondary lymphoid organs
Spleen, lymph nodes, MALT and CALT
58
Antigens that belong to the host
Autoantigens
59
Antigens that are from other members of the host's species and can elicit an immune response (important during tissue transplants and blood transfusions).
Alloantigens
60
Antigens from other species such as other animals, plants, or microorganisms.
Heteroantigens
61
Heteroantigens that are close or identical to antigen of another species and cause antibody to cross-react with antigen of the other.
Heterophile antigens
62
Normal serum constituents that increase rapidly because of infection, injury, or trauma to the tissues.
Acute phase reactants
63
Acute phase reactant whose function is opsonization and complement activation.
C-reative protein (CRP)
64
Acute phase reactant whose function is to activate monocytes and macrophages.
Serum amyloid A (SAA)
65
Acute phase reactant that is a protease inhibitor.
Alpha-antitrypsin (AAT)
66
Acute phase reactant that aids in clot formation.
Fibrinogen
67
Acute phase reactant that binds to hemoglobin.
Haptoglobin
68
Acute phase reactant that binds to copper and oxides iron
Ceruloplasmin
69
Acute phase reactant whose function is opsonization and lysis.
Complement C3
70
Which cell accounts for approx. 10-20% of lymphocytes in normal peripheral blood?
B cells
71
Which cell accounts for approx. 61-80% of lymphocytes in normal peripheral blood?
T cells
72
Which cell accounts for approx. 10-15% of lymphocytes in normal peripheral blood?
NK cells
73
Which MHC class is expressed mostly on nucleated cells?
class I MHC
74
Which MHC class is expressed mostly on APCs?
class II MHC
75
Which MHC class is associated with CD8+ T cells?
class I MHC
76
Which MHC class is associated with CD4+ T cells?
class II MHC
77
Which MHC class is associated with the exogenous pathway of antigen presentation?
class II MHC
78
Which MHC class is associated with the endogenous pathway of antigen presentation?
class I MHC
79
Oxygen-dependent process in which an increase in oxygen occurs within a cell vacuole during phagocytosis.
Oxidstive burst
80
What characteristic of NK cells is essential to their function as early defenders against pathogens?
Lack of specificity
81
Exposure to which cytokines stimulate the activity of NK cells?
IL-12, IL-a , and IL-B (rapidly increased during viral infection)
82
Which cytokines are released from activated NK cells and are important for recruiting T cells?
IFN-g and TNF-a
83
How do NK cells tell the difference between normal and infected cells?
By monitoring potential target cells through two types of receptors: inhibitory and activating receptors
84
If a cell is expressing foreign proteins that are recognized by antibody, what NK receptors will bind to the immobilized antibody?
CD16 or NKG2D
85
The binding of the NK CD16 receptor to immobilized antibody on a foreign cell will cause the release of what proteins?
Perforins and granzymes (antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity)
86
If a class I MHC molecule is present and there are no foreign or stress proteins present, will there be an inhibitory signal or or an activating signal?
Inhibitory
87
If an NK cell comes in contact with a cell that is missing an MHC molecule and has foreign or stress proteins, will the cell be terminated or will the signal be inhibitory?
The cell will be terminated (missing self) ; This is common with cancerous cells
88
The section of an immunoglobulin with antigen-binding capabilities.
Fab region (fragment antigen binding)
89
The section of an immunoglobulin that is important for effector functions including opsonization and complement fixation.
Fc region (fragment crystallizable)
90
The section of an immunoglobulin known to represent the carboxyl terminal halves of two H chains.
Fc region
91
The section of an immunoglobulin known to consist of one L chain and and one half of an H chain held together by disulfide binding.
Fab region (there are two)
92
Is the amino-terminal (Fab region) of each chain variable or constant?
Variable
93
Is the carboxyl terminal (Fc region) of each chain variable or constant?
Constant
94
What is the only antibody that can cross the placenta?
IgG
95
What is the most prominent Ig in healthy humans, making up approx. 70-75% of total serum Ig?
IgG
96
Which Ig has the longest half-life, lasting approx. 23 days?
IgG
97
Which response (primary or secondary) is characterized by a long lag phase, a slow increase in antibody, and a short-lived response?
Primary response
98
Which response (primary or secondary) is characterized by a short lag phase, a rapid rise in antibody, and higher serum levels for a longer period of time?
Secondary response
99
Which response (primary or secondary) is the result of a larger number of antigen-specific memory T and B cells?
Secondary response
100
Does IgG fix complement?
Yes
101
Does IgM cross the placenta?
No
102
Does IgM fix complement?
Yes
103
Does IgD fix complement?
No
104
Does IgA fix complement?
No
105
Does IgE fix complement?
No
106
Where are T cells located in lymph nodes?
Paracortical region
107
Where are B cells located in lymph nodes?
Cortical region
108
What is the basic structure of immunoglobulins?
Tetrapeptide
109
Which Ig commonly forms a pentameric structure?
IgM
110
Which Ig is most efficient at triggering the classical complement pathway?
IgM
111
Which Ig commonly forms a dimer with a J chain and is found mostly in mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue?
IgA
112
Which Ig is best known for its very low concentration in serum and the fact that it has the ability to activate mast cells and basophils?
IgE
113
Which Ig has an extended hinge area (58 amino acids)?
IgD
114
Which Ig is suspected to have a role in B cell maturation and differentiation?
IgD
115
Which Ig is most abundant in serum?
IgG
116
Which Ig indicates acute infection?
IgM
117
Which Ig has secretory components?
IgA
118
Which Ig identifies mature B cells?
IgD
119
Which Ig has the role of responding to parasites and also triggers allergic response?
IgE
120
Which Ig is the primary response Ig?
IgM
121
What are the CD markers of mature B cells?
CD19, CD20 (less commonly CD21 and CD40)
122
What are the CD markers of mature T cells?
CD4 or CD8 (CD3 and CD2)
123
What type of cytokine induces inflammation, fever, and initiation of the acute-phase response?
IL-1Beta (from the Interleukin family and part of innate immunity)
124
What type of cytokine induces inflammation, initiation of the acute-phase response and death of tumor cells?
TNF-alpha (from the tumor necrosis factor family and part of innate immunity)
125
What type of cytokine induces initiation of acute-phase response and the activation of B and T cells?
IL-6 (from the interleukin family and part of innate immunity)
126
What type of cytokine inhibits both T and B cell proliferation, inhibits macrophages, and induces IgA?
TGF-Beta (from the transforming growth factor family and part of innate immunity)
127
What type of cytokine protects cells against viruses, increases class I MHC expression and activated NK cells?
IFN-alpha and IFN-Beta (innate immunity)
128
What type of cytokine aids in the growth and proliferation of T and B cells and the activation and proliferation of NK cells?
IL-2 (adaptive immunity)
129
What type of cytokine aids in the promotion of Th2 differentiation and the stimulation of B cells to switch to IgE production?
IL-4 (adaptive immunity)
130
What type of cytokine aids in eosinophil generation and activation, and B cell differentiation?
IL-5 (adaptive immunity)
131
What type of cytokine aids in the suppression of Th2 cells, inhibition of antigen presentation and inhibition of interferon-gamma?
IL-10 (adaptive immunity)
132
What type of cytokine aids in the activation of macrophages, increased expression of class I and class II MHC molecules and increases antigen presentation?
IFN-gamma (adaptive immunity)
133
A family of cytokines that enhance motility and promote migration of many types of WBCs via chemotaxis.
Chemokines
134
What does CSF stand for?
Colony stimulating factor
135
What cell has CD16 and CD56 markers?
NK cell
136
What cell has CD4 and CD25 markers?
T reg cell
137
What are the three ways antigens and antibodies react?
Lock and key,
Non-covalent bonding,
and Reversible
138
Does using monoclonal antibodies decrease or increase specificity?
Increase
139
What is measured by the initial force of Ab-Ag attraction?
Affinity
140
What is measured by the sum of the affinities of Ab-Ag?
Avidity
141
What does a high K constant mean for avidity and sensitivity?
They are both high
142
What Ig has the highest avidity?
IgM
143
What are the two steps of agglutination?
Sensitization and lattice formation
144
What does an increase in cross-reactivity do to specificity?
Decreases specificity
145
What does an increase in affinity do to sensitivity?
Increases sensitivity
146
Common monoclonal antibody CD for leukocytes?
CD45
147
What are the three components of flow cytometry?
Fluidics, Optical, and data conversion
148
Light that is refracted directly along the axis of the laser beam.
Forward scatter
149
Type of light in FC that is directly proportional to cell size.
Forward scatter
150
Light scattered at a 90 degree angle to the laser.
Side scatter
151
Type of light in Fc that is reflective of surface complexity and internal structures.
Side scatter
