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MLS Immunology > Immunology Basics (Exam 1) > Flashcards

Immunology Basics (Exam 1) Flashcards

1
Q

Which type of immunity is majorly composed of complement proteins, which aid in the destruction of pathogens via opsonization?

A

Humoral immunity

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2
Q

Which type of immunity is composed of interferons and lysozymes?

A

Humoral immunity

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3
Q

Which type of immunity has an antibody mediated mechanism?

A

Humoral immunity

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4
Q

Which type of immunity involves mostly B lymphocytes?

A

Humoral immunity

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5
Q

Which type of immunity primarily defends against bacterial infection?

A

Humoral immunity

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6
Q

Which type of immunity uses antibodies in serum as the main mode of action?

A

Humoral immunity

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7
Q

Which type of immunity involves mostly T lymphocytes?

A

Cell-mediated immunity

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8
Q

Which type of immunity depends on APCs to be amplifiers?

A

Cell-mediated immunity

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9
Q

Which type of immunity depends on direct cell-cell contact or soluble products secreted by cells as its main mode of action?

A

Cell-mediated immunity

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10
Q

Which type of immunity primarily defends against viral, fungal infections, intracellular organisms, tumor antigens, and graft rejection?

A

Cell-mediated immunity

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11
Q

What do these cell types have in common?

Macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells

A

The can all be antigen presenting cells (APCs)

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12
Q

What is Louis Pasteur most famously credited for?

A

First attenuated vaccine

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13
Q

Which WBC is capable of further differentiation in the tissues?

A

Monocyte (becomes macrophage in tissue)

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14
Q

Where are all the undifferentiated lymphocytes made?

A

Bone marrow of long bones

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15
Q

Where do B cells mature?

A

Bone marrow

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16
Q

Where do T cells mature?

A

Thymus

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17
Q

Which type of immune cell can target infected cells without prior exposure to them?

A

NK cells

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18
Q

Which cell is the most potent phagocytic cell in the tissue?

A

Dendritic cell

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19
Q

The ability of an individual to resist infection by means of normally present body functions is called?

A

Innate immunity

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20
Q

A cell characterized by a nucleus with 2 to 5 large lobes, a diameter of 10 to 15 um and a large # of neutral staining granules?

A

Neutrophil

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21
Q

Is the thymus a primary or secondary lymphoid organ?

A

Primary

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22
Q

What type of cells would be found in a primary follicle?

A

Unstimulated B cells

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23
Q

The presence of surface antibodies is a distinguishing feature of which type of cell?

A

B cells

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24
Q

Where do lymphocytes mainly come in contact with antigens?

A

In secondary lymphoid organs

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25
Q

What surface antigen is present on helper T cells (Th)?

A

CD4

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26
Q

What surface antigen is present on cytotoxic T cells (

A

CD8

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27
Q

Which type of immunity involves specificity for antigens?

A

Adaptive immunity

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28
Q

Which cell’s major function is to produce cytokines that regulate innate and adaptive immune responses?

A

T cells

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29
Q

Neutralization of toxins by serum is a characteristic of which type of immunity?

A

Humoral immunity

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30
Q

What is defined as the condition of being resistant to disease?

A

Immunity

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31
Q

A blood cell that has reddish staining granules and is able to kill large parasites?

A

Eosinophils

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32
Q

Which organ collects fluid from the tissues?

A

Lymph node

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33
Q

What are antigenic groups identified by different sets of antibodies reacting in a similar way to standard cell lines?

A

Clusters of differentiation (CD)

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34
Q

Which type of immunity is primarily composed of physical barriers?

A

Innate immunity

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35
Q

Structural barriers, mucosal membranes, epithelium, secretions, cilia in the nasopharyngeal passages, urine, stomach HCl, and normal gut flora are examples of what type of defense?

A

External defense (physical)

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36
Q

Phagocytic cells, acute phase reactants, inflammation and the alternative complement pathway are all examples of what type of defense?

A

Internal defense (anatomical)

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37
Q

A substance that reacts with an antibody or sensitized T cell, but may not be able to evoke an immune response.

A

Antigen

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38
Q

Macromolecules capable of eliciting an immune response by inducing the formation of antibodies or sensitized T cells.

A

Immunogens

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39
Q

Serum proteins produced by certain lymphocytes when introduced to a foreign substance and they react specifically with that foreign substance.

A

Antibodies

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40
Q

Small portion of an immunogen, to which an antibody may bind. Also called the determinant site of the immunogen.

A

Epitope

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41
Q

Derived from a greek word meaning “preparing for eating,” they are serum proteins that attach to a foreign cell or pathogen and help prepare it for phagocytosis.

A

Opsonins

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42
Q

CRP (c-reactive protein), complement proteins, and antibodies are all examples of what?

A

Important opsonins

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43
Q

Small, soluble proteins secreted by WBCs and a variety of other cells; Act as chemical messengers of the immune system.

A

Cytokines

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44
Q

Small, soluble proteins capable of regulating growth =, differentiation and gene expression.

A

Cytokines

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45
Q

Cell function: First responder to infection; phagocytosis

A

Neutrophil

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46
Q

Cell function: Kill parasites, neutralize basophil and mast cell products, regulate mast cells

A

Eosinophil

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47
Q

Cell function: Induce and maintain allergic reactions , stimulate production of IgE

A

Basophil

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48
Q

Cell function: Antigen presentation to T and B cells; enhancement and suppression of the adaptive immune response

A

Mast cell

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49
Q

Cell function: phagocytosis; migrate to tissues to become macrophages

A

Monocyte

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50
Q

Cell function: phagocytosis; kill intracellular parasites; tumoricidal activity; antigen presentation to T and B cells

A

Macrophage

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51
Q

Cell function: most potent phagocytic cell; most effective at antigen presentation

A

Dendritic cell

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52
Q

Subtypes are B, T, and NK cells

A

Lymphocyte

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53
Q

Lymphocyte that produces cytokines

A

T cell

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54
Q

Lymphocyte that produces antibody in adaptive immune response

A

B cell

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55
Q

Lymphocyte that is involved in innate immunity

A

NK cell

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56
Q

What are the two primary lymphoid organs?

A

Bone marrow and thymus

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57
Q

What are the four secondary lymphoid organs

A

Spleen, lymph nodes, MALT and CALT

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58
Q

Antigens that belong to the host

A

Autoantigens

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59
Q

Antigens that are from other members of the host’s species and can elicit an immune response (important during tissue transplants and blood transfusions).

A

Alloantigens

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60
Q

Antigens from other species such as other animals, plants, or microorganisms.

A

Heteroantigens

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61
Q

Heteroantigens that are close or identical to antigen of another species and cause antibody to cross-react with antigen of the other.

A

Heterophile antigens

62
Q

Normal serum constituents that increase rapidly because of infection, injury, or trauma to the tissues.

A

Acute phase reactants

63
Q

Acute phase reactant whose function is opsonization and complement activation.

A

C-reative protein (CRP)

64
Q

Acute phase reactant whose function is to activate monocytes and macrophages.

A

Serum amyloid A (SAA)

65
Q

Acute phase reactant that is a protease inhibitor.

A

Alpha-antitrypsin (AAT)

66
Q

Acute phase reactant that aids in clot formation.

A

Fibrinogen

67
Q

Acute phase reactant that binds to hemoglobin.

A

Haptoglobin

68
Q

Acute phase reactant that binds to copper and oxides iron

A

Ceruloplasmin

69
Q

Acute phase reactant whose function is opsonization and lysis.

A

Complement C3

70
Q

Which cell accounts for approx. 10-20% of lymphocytes in normal peripheral blood?

A

B cells

71
Q

Which cell accounts for approx. 61-80% of lymphocytes in normal peripheral blood?

A

T cells

72
Q

Which cell accounts for approx. 10-15% of lymphocytes in normal peripheral blood?

A

NK cells

73
Q

Which MHC class is expressed mostly on nucleated cells?

A

class I MHC

74
Q

Which MHC class is expressed mostly on APCs?

A

class II MHC

75
Q

Which MHC class is associated with CD8+ T cells?

A

class I MHC

76
Q

Which MHC class is associated with CD4+ T cells?

A

class II MHC

77
Q

Which MHC class is associated with the exogenous pathway of antigen presentation?

A

class II MHC

78
Q

Which MHC class is associated with the endogenous pathway of antigen presentation?

A

class I MHC

79
Q

Oxygen-dependent process in which an increase in oxygen occurs within a cell vacuole during phagocytosis.

A

Oxidstive burst

80
Q

What characteristic of NK cells is essential to their function as early defenders against pathogens?

A

Lack of specificity

81
Q

Exposure to which cytokines stimulate the activity of NK cells?

A

IL-12, IL-a , and IL-B (rapidly increased during viral infection)

82
Q

Which cytokines are released from activated NK cells and are important for recruiting T cells?

A

IFN-g and TNF-a

83
Q

How do NK cells tell the difference between normal and infected cells?

A

By monitoring potential target cells through two types of receptors: inhibitory and activating receptors

84
Q

If a cell is expressing foreign proteins that are recognized by antibody, what NK receptors will bind to the immobilized antibody?

A

CD16 or NKG2D

85
Q

The binding of the NK CD16 receptor to immobilized antibody on a foreign cell will cause the release of what proteins?

A

Perforins and granzymes (antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity)

86
Q

If a class I MHC molecule is present and there are no foreign or stress proteins present, will there be an inhibitory signal or or an activating signal?

A

Inhibitory

87
Q

If an NK cell comes in contact with a cell that is missing an MHC molecule and has foreign or stress proteins, will the cell be terminated or will the signal be inhibitory?

A

The cell will be terminated (missing self) ; This is common with cancerous cells

88
Q

The section of an immunoglobulin with antigen-binding capabilities.

A

Fab region (fragment antigen binding)

89
Q

The section of an immunoglobulin that is important for effector functions including opsonization and complement fixation.

A

Fc region (fragment crystallizable)

90
Q

The section of an immunoglobulin known to represent the carboxyl terminal halves of two H chains.

A

Fc region

91
Q

The section of an immunoglobulin known to consist of one L chain and and one half of an H chain held together by disulfide binding.

A

Fab region (there are two)

92
Q

Is the amino-terminal (Fab region) of each chain variable or constant?

A

Variable

93
Q

Is the carboxyl terminal (Fc region) of each chain variable or constant?

A

Constant

94
Q

What is the only antibody that can cross the placenta?

A

IgG

95
Q

What is the most prominent Ig in healthy humans, making up approx. 70-75% of total serum Ig?

A

IgG

96
Q

Which Ig has the longest half-life, lasting approx. 23 days?

A

IgG

97
Q

Which response (primary or secondary) is characterized by a long lag phase, a slow increase in antibody, and a short-lived response?

A

Primary response

98
Q

Which response (primary or secondary) is characterized by a short lag phase, a rapid rise in antibody, and higher serum levels for a longer period of time?

A

Secondary response

99
Q

Which response (primary or secondary) is the result of a larger number of antigen-specific memory T and B cells?

A

Secondary response

100
Q

Does IgG fix complement?

A

Yes

101
Q

Does IgM cross the placenta?

A

No

102
Q

Does IgM fix complement?

A

Yes

103
Q

Does IgD fix complement?

A

No

104
Q

Does IgA fix complement?

A

No

105
Q

Does IgE fix complement?

A

No

106
Q

Where are T cells located in lymph nodes?

A

Paracortical region

107
Q

Where are B cells located in lymph nodes?

A

Cortical region

108
Q

What is the basic structure of immunoglobulins?

A

Tetrapeptide

109
Q

Which Ig commonly forms a pentameric structure?

A

IgM

110
Q

Which Ig is most efficient at triggering the classical complement pathway?

A

IgM

111
Q

Which Ig commonly forms a dimer with a J chain and is found mostly in mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue?

A

IgA

112
Q

Which Ig is best known for its very low concentration in serum and the fact that it has the ability to activate mast cells and basophils?

A

IgE

113
Q

Which Ig has an extended hinge area (58 amino acids)?

A

IgD

114
Q

Which Ig is suspected to have a role in B cell maturation and differentiation?

A

IgD

115
Q

Which Ig is most abundant in serum?

A

IgG

116
Q

Which Ig indicates acute infection?

A

IgM

117
Q

Which Ig has secretory components?

A

IgA

118
Q

Which Ig identifies mature B cells?

A

IgD

119
Q

Which Ig has the role of responding to parasites and also triggers allergic response?

A

IgE

120
Q

Which Ig is the primary response Ig?

A

IgM

121
Q

What are the CD markers of mature B cells?

A

CD19, CD20 (less commonly CD21 and CD40)

122
Q

What are the CD markers of mature T cells?

A

CD4 or CD8 (CD3 and CD2)

123
Q

What type of cytokine induces inflammation, fever, and initiation of the acute-phase response?

A

IL-1Beta (from the Interleukin family and part of innate immunity)

124
Q

What type of cytokine induces inflammation, initiation of the acute-phase response and death of tumor cells?

A

TNF-alpha (from the tumor necrosis factor family and part of innate immunity)

125
Q

What type of cytokine induces initiation of acute-phase response and the activation of B and T cells?

A

IL-6 (from the interleukin family and part of innate immunity)

126
Q

What type of cytokine inhibits both T and B cell proliferation, inhibits macrophages, and induces IgA?

A

TGF-Beta (from the transforming growth factor family and part of innate immunity)

127
Q

What type of cytokine protects cells against viruses, increases class I MHC expression and activated NK cells?

A

IFN-alpha and IFN-Beta (innate immunity)

128
Q

What type of cytokine aids in the growth and proliferation of T and B cells and the activation and proliferation of NK cells?

A

IL-2 (adaptive immunity)

129
Q

What type of cytokine aids in the promotion of Th2 differentiation and the stimulation of B cells to switch to IgE production?

A

IL-4 (adaptive immunity)

130
Q

What type of cytokine aids in eosinophil generation and activation, and B cell differentiation?

A

IL-5 (adaptive immunity)

131
Q

What type of cytokine aids in the suppression of Th2 cells, inhibition of antigen presentation and inhibition of interferon-gamma?

A

IL-10 (adaptive immunity)

132
Q

What type of cytokine aids in the activation of macrophages, increased expression of class I and class II MHC molecules and increases antigen presentation?

A

IFN-gamma (adaptive immunity)

133
Q

A family of cytokines that enhance motility and promote migration of many types of WBCs via chemotaxis.

A

Chemokines

134
Q

What does CSF stand for?

A

Colony stimulating factor

135
Q

What cell has CD16 and CD56 markers?

A

NK cell

136
Q

What cell has CD4 and CD25 markers?

A

T reg cell

137
Q

What are the three ways antigens and antibodies react?

A

Lock and key,
Non-covalent bonding,
and Reversible

138
Q

Does using monoclonal antibodies decrease or increase specificity?

A

Increase

139
Q

What is measured by the initial force of Ab-Ag attraction?

A

Affinity

140
Q

What is measured by the sum of the affinities of Ab-Ag?

A

Avidity

141
Q

What does a high K constant mean for avidity and sensitivity?

A

They are both high

142
Q

What Ig has the highest avidity?

A

IgM

143
Q

What are the two steps of agglutination?

A

Sensitization and lattice formation

144
Q

What does an increase in cross-reactivity do to specificity?

A

Decreases specificity

145
Q

What does an increase in affinity do to sensitivity?

A

Increases sensitivity

146
Q

Common monoclonal antibody CD for leukocytes?

A

CD45

147
Q

What are the three components of flow cytometry?

A

Fluidics, Optical, and data conversion

148
Q

Light that is refracted directly along the axis of the laser beam.

A

Forward scatter

149
Q

Type of light in FC that is directly proportional to cell size.

A

Forward scatter

150
Q

Light scattered at a 90 degree angle to the laser.

A

Side scatter

151
Q

Type of light in Fc that is reflective of surface complexity and internal structures.

A

Side scatter

MLS Immunology (7 decks)

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