Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

Cytokines function = IL 1

Name 2 IL-1 inhibitors

Uses?

A

Fever, induces other cytokines,
T cell stimulation

Canakinumab (SC)
Anakinra (SC)

Used in RA, periodic syndromes

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2
Q

Which cells express MHC Class 1?

What does this activate?

A

Basically all somatic cells

CD8 cytotoxic T cells

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3
Q

What is the 2 signal model of T cell activation?

A

2 signals required for T cell activation.

Signal 1 = interaction of CD3 with MHC

Signal 2 = costimulation (e.g. CD28 with B7)

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4
Q

What types of immune response are Th1 cells most active in?

A

Pro-inflammatory

Involved in:

  • eradication of intracellular organisms e.g. viruses, mycobacteria
  • Type IV hypersensitivity
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5
Q

What types of immune response are Th2 cells most active in?

A

Important in IgE / eosinophil synthesis

Involved in:

  • parasitic infections
  • allergy and asthma
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6
Q

What types of immune response are Th17 cells most active in?

A

Involved in:

  • early response to extracellular pathogens
  • chronic inflammatory responses
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7
Q

What main cytokines are produced by Th1 cells?

A

IFN-gamma

TNF-alpha

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8
Q

What main cytokines are produced by Th2 cells?

A

IL-4
IL-5
IL-6
IL-13

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9
Q

What main cytokines are produced by Th17 cells?

A

IL 17

IL 21, 22, 23

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10
Q

What main inhibitory cytokines are produced by Treg cells?

A

IL-10

TGF-beta

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11
Q

What is the main interleukin involved in gout pathogenesis?

A

IL-1

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12
Q

What does TLR3 pathway deficiency result in?

A

Severe HSV encephalitis

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13
Q

What defect causes chronic granulomatous disease?

A

Molecular defect in 1 or more subunits of NADPH oxidase. This is what is usually responsible for respiratory burst by neutrophils to kill intracellular organisms

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14
Q

What is the classical complement pathway triggered by?

A

Antibody-antigen complexes with IgM or IgG

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15
Q

What is the lectin pathway of complement triggered by?

A

Mannose-binding lectin binding to mannose on pathogen surfaces

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16
Q

What is the alternative pathway of complement triggered by?

A

Background low level of C3 circulating, which spontaneously activates to C3b. Then comes across pathogen surface and binds, leading to pathway activation

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17
Q

What is opsonisation?

A

Coating of target by C3b to promote its elimination -> enhanced uptake by phagocytic cells

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18
Q

What is eculizumab?

What is it used in?

A

C5 monoclonal antibody

Atypical HUS
PNH

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19
Q

What are the classical conditions found with early complement pathway deficiencies?

A

SLE, GN

Immune complexes diseases in general -> complement has role in clearing these from the circulation

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20
Q

What are the classical conditions found with late complement pathway deficiencies?

A

Disseminated neisseria infections

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21
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Hereditary angiooedema?

Main management?

A

Deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor, which usually controls complement activation.
Thus -> Excessive classical pathway activation -
- Bradykinin release -> angio-oedema

Mx = Icatibant = bradykinin 2 receptor antagonist

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22
Q

What are the 5 antibody heavy chain isotypes?

Which can cross the placenta?

A
IgG
IgM
IgA
IgE
IgD

IgG crosses placenta

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23
Q

Which cells express MHC Class 2?

A

Professional APCs

  • dendritic cells
  • macrophages
  • B cells
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24
Q

What do VDJ genes code for?

A

The variable portions on immunoglobulin

25
Where does affinity maturation of B cells occur?
Germinal centres -> secondary lymphoid tissue
26
What is isotype switching of B cells?
Activated B cells changing surface immunoglobulin isotype expression -> e.g. from IgM to IgG
27
What infections are commonly seen in CVID?
Recurrent sinopulmonary infection GIT - diarrhoea Skin
28
What non-infective complications are seen in CVID?
Autoimmunity | Malignancy -> NHL, gastric
29
Which immunoglobulins are most commonly low in CVID?
IgG, IgA, sometimes IgM
30
What are the live vaccines? (5)
``` Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR combined vaccine) Rotavirus Smallpox Chickenpox Yellow fever ```
31
What is the key defect which causes X-linked agammaglobulinaemia?
Mutation or absence of Bruton's Tyrosine Kinase, which is essential for B cell development
32
When is the onset of X-linked agammaglobulinaemia clinically noted?
6 months of age, when maternal IgG wears off
33
Why can IgA deficienct patients get anaphylaxis from blood products?
If blood contains IgA -> patient may have Anti-IgA antibodies
34
How is specific antibody deficiency detected?
Response to vaccination is impaired
35
What cell marker is present on all T cells?
CD3
36
What is the role of AIRE ?
Autoimmune regulator - required to turn on tissue-specific self-antigens in thymus, to educate T cells to detect self vs non-self. For avoidance of autoimmunity
37
What are the 3 key features found in APECED (autoimmune poly-endocrine syndrome Type 1)?
Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis Hypoparathyroidism Addison's
38
What is Abatacept?
CTLA-4 Ig - this binds to B7 to turn off T cells / prevent activation Used for RA
39
What is Hyper IgM Syndrome caused by?
Absent CD40 to CD40 Ligand co-stimulation This is key for B cell differentiation, so without this, B cells cannot isotype switch. Thus high IgM, no IgG or IgA
40
What is the key growth factor for T cell expansion?
IL-2
41
What is the key regulatory factor for Treg cells?
FOXP3
42
What is the key defect in IPEX?
Defect in FOXP3, which is required for Treg cells | Thus will get rampant autoimmune manifestations
43
What infection does deficiency of Th1 cells put you at risk of? (2)
Non-tuberculous mycobacteria | Invasive salmonella
44
Which T cells are most important in fighting candida infection?
Th17 cells
45
Which interleukin is most central to Psoriasis?
IL-17
46
Which T cells are most involved in atopic disease?
Th2 cells
47
What is the pathophysiology of SCID?
Deficiency in a component critical for T cell function and development Leads to vulnerability to infections, plus increased risk of malignancy and autoimmunity
48
What are the two main functions of NK cells?
To kill - virally infected cells - tumour cells
49
Other than AChR antibodies, what antibody can be tested for in myasthenia gravis?
Anti-MuSK
50
What are the key antibodies to test for in suspected SLE?
ANA Anti-sm antibody Anti-dsDNA
51
What is Anti-mitochondrial antibody associated with?
Primary biliary cirrhosis
52
What is Anti-VGCC ab associated with?
Lambert-Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome
53
What is Liver kidney microsome type 1 antibodies (anti-LKM-1) associated with?
Autoimmune hepatitis
54
What are anti-smooth muscle (SM) antibodies associated with?
Chronic autoimmune hepatitis
55
What is anti-U1RNP ab associated with?
Mixed connective tissue disease
56
What is the most common infection associated with urticaria?
Mycoplasma
57
What is expressed on plasma cells?
CD38
58
Who needs tetanus Ig after a dirty wound?
Uncertain vax hx | Humoral immunodeficiency